Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The basic unit of life is the organelle.

A

False

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2
Q

One function of an organelle is reproduction.

A

False

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3
Q

Only animal cells have cell walls.

A

False

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4
Q

Plant cells have several small vacuoles

A

False

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5
Q

The nucleus controls only cellular activities in animal cells.

A

False

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6
Q

The cytoplasm includes the organelles and other life supporting materials

A

True

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7
Q

The function of the endoplasmic reticulum is to package nutrients.

A

False

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8
Q

Osmosis is another term for diffusion.

A

False

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9
Q

Osmosis involves the diffusion of water through a preamble membrane.

A

False

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10
Q

When a substance cannot penetrate a membrane, it cannot diffuse from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

A

True

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11
Q

Which organelle makes energy available to the cell.
a) Golgi body
b) Mitochondrion
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

A

Mitochondrion

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12
Q

Which substance pass through to enter or leave a cell?
a) Golgi body
b) Ribosome
c) Nucleus
d) Cell membrane

A

Cell membrane

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13
Q

Which organelle makes proteins as directed by the nucleus?
a) Golgi body
b) Mitochondrion
c) Vacuole
d) Ribosome

A

Ribosome

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14
Q

Which organelle breaks down food into particles that cells can use for survival?
a) Golgi body
b) Vacuole
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondrion

A

Mitochondrion

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15
Q

Which organelle converts food into compounds that the cell uses for growth, development, and movement?
a) Chlorplast
b) Golgi body
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondrion

A

Mitochondrion

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16
Q

Which of the following structures serves as a boundary between the cell and environment?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Cell membrane
c) Chlorplast
d) Ribosome

A

Cell membrane

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17
Q

Which cell structure contains the cells genetic materials and controls the cells activites?
a) Organelle
b) Nucleus
c) Cytoplasm
d) Cell membrane

A

Nucelus

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18
Q

The main function of the cell was is to:
a) Store DNA
b) Direct the cells activities
c) Support and protect the cell
d) Help the cell move

A

Support and protect the cell

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19
Q

Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
a) Helps a cell maintain its shape
b) Contains DNA
c) Surrounds the cell
d) Helps to make proteins

A

Helps a cell maintain its shape

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20
Q

Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a) Store DNA
b) Controls most of the cells processes
c) Contains the genetic information needed to make proteins
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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21
Q

Which of the following terms refers to cells having different jobs in organisms?
a) Multicellular
b) Cell specialization
c) Levels of organization
d) Unicellular

A

Cell specilization

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22
Q

Which organelle helps to provide cells with energy?
a) Mitrochondrion and chlorplast
b) Endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles
c) Golgi body and ribsoes
d) Endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles

A

Mitrochondrion and chloroplast

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23
Q

Which of the following correctly matches the organelle with its function?
a) Mitochondrion and photosynthesis
b) Nucleus and respiration
c) Ribosome and manufacture of fats
d) Vacuole and storage

A

Vacuole and storage

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24
Q

Which group of organelles is involved in making the substance needed by the cell?
a) Nucleus, vacuole, and ribsome
b) Vacuole, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleus
c) Nucleus, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum
d) Endoplasmic reituclum, ribosome, and vacuole.

A

Nucleus, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum

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25
Q

Which organelle would you expect to find in plant cells but not in animal cells?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Ribsome
c) Chlorplast
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

A

Chlorplast

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26
Q

When the concentration of molecules on both sides of a semi premable mebrane is the same, it will:
a) Move across the membrane to the outside of the cell.
b) Stop moving across the membrane
c) Move across the membrane in both directions.
d) Move across the membrane to the inside of the cell

A

Move across the membrane in both directors.

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27
Q

The diffusion of water across a semi premable membrane is called:
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Osmosis
c) Diffusion
d) Active transportation

A

Osmosis

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28
Q

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from:
a) an area of low concentration to an area of high conentration.
b) an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
c) an are of equilinirum to an area of high concentration.
d) all of the above

A

An are of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

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29
Q

An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the pressure causes:
a) Water to burst into the cell.
b) Water to move out of the cell.
c) Substances to move into the cell.
d) Substances to move out of the cell.

A

Water to move out of the cell

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30
Q

Concentration

A

The number of molecules of a substance in a given volume.

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31
Q

Diffusion

A

The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until they are evenly distrubuted.

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32
Q

Osmosis

A

The movement of water molecules across a membrane in response to concentration differences.

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33
Q

Cell membrane

A

Controls the flow of materials in and out of the cell

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34
Q

Chlorplast

A

Traps energy from the sun to make glucose

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35
Q

The basic unit of life is the organelle

A

False

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36
Q

Only animal cells have cell walls

A

False

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37
Q

During interphase the elongated cell begins to pinch apart at the centre.

A

False

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38
Q

During anaphase the new chromosomes are pulled apart and drawn to each end of the cell.

A

True

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39
Q

During metaphase the chromosomes begin to uncoil.

A

False

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40
Q

The phases of mitosis occur in this order: prophase, anaphase, telophase, and metaphase

A

False PMAT

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41
Q

The chromsones align themselves in the middle of the cell during:
a) Prophase
b) Anaphase
c) Metaphase
d) Telophase

A

Metaphase

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42
Q

New chromsones are pulled apart and drawn to each end of the cell during:
a) Phrophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

A

Anaphase

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43
Q

In which phase do cells spend most of their time?

A

Interphase

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44
Q

During which stage of mitosis do the loosley arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened, and distinct?

A

Prophase

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45
Q

All specialized cells are the result of cell differentiation.

A

False

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46
Q

The human heart contains muscle ells, nerve cells, connective tissue, and epithelial tissue.

A

True

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47
Q

A group of cells that performs similair functions is called an organ.

A

False (tissue)

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48
Q

The 4 principle types of tissues are:

A

Epithelial, connecitve, muscle, and nervous

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49
Q

In which phase does the chromosomes replicate and the nuclear membrane disappears?

A

Interphase

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50
Q

Cells specialized to transmit information between body regions are:
a) Muscle cells
b) Connective cells
c) Epithelial cells
d) Nervous cells

A

Nervous cells

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51
Q

Vocal cords
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach

A

Larynx

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52
Q

Process by which nutrients pass into the digestive system
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach

A

Absorption

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53
Q

Takes place in the alveolus
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach

A

Gas exchange

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54
Q

Where gas exchange occurs
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach

A

Alveoli

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55
Q

Where water and nutrients are reabsorbed
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach

A

Large intestine

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56
Q

Very small objects such as cells are best viewed using:
a) PET Scan
b) CT scans
c) MRI scans
d) Microscopy

A

Microscopy

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57
Q

Endoscopy can be used to:
a) View hard tissue such as bone.
b) Observe organ function
c) View internal body parts without cutting.
d) Contrast soft tissue and hard tissue

A

View internal body parts without cutting

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58
Q

Which of the following can best diagnose bone injuries and malformation?
a) X-rays and ultrasound
b) X-rays and CT scans
c) CT scans and ultrasounds
d) Ultrasounds and PET scans

A

X-rays and CT scans

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59
Q

Involves sending electromagnetic radiation through the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan

A

X-ray

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60
Q

Direct sound waves at specific body parts:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan

A

Ultrasound

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61
Q

Scan that involves small amounts of radioactive materials taken into the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan

A

PET scan

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62
Q

Produces 3d images of body parts:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan

A

CT scan

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63
Q

Involves passing radio waves through a magnetic field around the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan

64
Q

A polyatomic ion is composed of at least 3 atoms.

65
Q

One electron is transferred from one sodium atom to one chlorine atom to form sodium chloride

66
Q

Multivalent metals have more than one ion charge.

67
Q

Magnesium phosphide is an ionic compound.

68
Q

A reactant is a pure substance that is formed in a chemical change.

69
Q

Sodium chloride is a covalent compound.

70
Q

An ion is a negatively charged ion.

71
Q

There are 2 ways to identify a compound: by it’s chemical name and it’s chemical formula.

72
Q

Calcium hydroxide is an ingredient in making mortar and plaster for construction.

73
Q

An ionic compound is composed of ions with the same charge

74
Q

How many electrons does a beryllium atoms lose when it forms an ion?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

75
Q

Which element does not exist as a diatomic molecule? HOFBRINCL
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Phosporus
d) Chlorine

76
Q

Which of the following chemical formulas contains the greatest number of different elements?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Iron chlroide
c) Tin dichromate
d) Ammonium acetate

A

Ammonium acetate

77
Q

Which of the following is not an acceptable formula for a maganese compound?
a) MnO
b) Mn3O2
c)Mn2O3
d)MnO2

78
Q

In which of the following compounds will the bonding involve the sharing of electrons between atoms?
a) Na2O
b) N2O4
c) Nb2O3
d) NiO

79
Q

In which of the following compounds have electrons been transferred to oxygen?
a) SO2
b) P2O5
c) Na2O
d) Cl2O7

80
Q

What type of compound results from the reaction of carbon with sulfur?

81
Q

Chlorine is added to a solution of sodium iodide and a reaction occurs. The reactants are shown below: Cl2 + 2 Nal –> ?
a) 2ICI2 + 2Na
b) 2NaCl + ICI
c) 2Na + I2 + Cl2
d) 2NaCl + I2

A

2NaCl + I2

82
Q

Consider this: K3PO4 + Fe(NO3)3 –> ??
a) FePO4 + KNO3
b) FeK3 + NO3PO4
c) Fe3PO4 + K3NO3
d) K3Fe + PO4(NO3)3

A

FePO4 + KNO3

83
Q

A piece pf aluminium foil is added to a solution of copper chloride and a reaction occurs. You would expect the products of this reaction to be:
a) AlCl3 + Cu
b) Al + Cu _ Cl2
c) AlCu + Cl2
d) CuAl3 + Cl2

A

AlCl3 + Cu

84
Q

A piece of aluminum foil is placed in an aqeous solution of copper chloride. Within a few seconds a solid brown metal appears to form and the aluminum metal appears to dissolve. This reaction is classified as:
a) Combustion
b) Decomposition
c) Single displacement
d) Synthesis

A

Single displacement

85
Q

Which of the following pairs of reactants is likely to produce a pure metal when they react together?
a) Na3PO4(aq) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)
b) Cl2(aq) + Kl(aq)
c) Mg(s) + O2(g)
d) Al(s) + CuCl2(aq)

A

Al(s) + CuCl2(aq)

86
Q

When magensium metla and nitrogen gas react together, the correct formula for the product will be:
a) MgN
b) Mg2N3
c) Mg3N2
d) NgN2

87
Q

Methane(a hydrocarbon) + oxygen —>
a) Single displacement
b) Double displacement
c) Synthesis
d) Decomposition
e) Combustion

A

Combustion

88
Q

The electrolysis of water, resulting in production of hydrogen and oxygen gas, is an example of double displacement.

A

False (decompostion)

89
Q

The reaction of zinc metal with hydrochloric acid, producing hydrogen gas, can be as single displacement

90
Q

To reduce emissions that could form acid percipitation, sulfur dioxide is removed from exhaust gases through a reaction with calcium oxide that forms calcium sulfite.

91
Q

Most cleaning agents (soap, bleach, detergents) have a pH that is more than 7

92
Q

Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce sodium chlroide (table salt) and water.

93
Q

Acids are characterized by a bitter taste.

A

False (sour)

94
Q

Sodium hydroxide commonly known as Iye, is found in citrus fruits.

95
Q

An oxacid is composed of hydrogen, oxygen, and another element.

96
Q

Bases are characterised by having a slippery feeling.

97
Q

Which of the following liquids has the highest pH?
a) H2CO3(aq)
b)HCL(aq)
c) KOH(aq)
d) H2O

98
Q

A solution with an H+ ion concentration one million times greater than pure water would be:
a) Basic and a pH of 1
b) Acidic and a pH of 1
c) Acidic and a pH of 13
d) Basic and a pH of 13

A

Acidic and a pH of 1

99
Q

A solution is found to have an ion concentration 10000 times lower than of pure water. Which is correct?
a) A basic solution with a pH of 3
b) An acidic solution with a pH of 3
c) A basic solution with a pH of 11
d) An acidid solution with a pH of 11

A

A basic solution with a pH of 11

100
Q

Which reaction is an example of a neturalization reaction?
a) H2CO3(aq) –> CO2 + H2O
b) N2 + 3H2 –>2NH3
c) Cl2 + 2NaBr(aq) –> Br2 + 2NaCl(aq)
d) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) –> NaCl(aq) + H2O

A

NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) –> NaCl(aq) + H2O

101
Q

The hydroshpere includes all the following except:
a) Water that is frozen
b) Water that is a gas
c) Water on the space shuttle
d) Water on the surface of the Earth

A

Water on the space shuttle

102
Q

What do the North Polar Zone and the South Polar Zone have in common?
a) They both face the sun
b) Excessive snowfall
c) Cold temperatures and ice all over
d) Dramatic temperature variation

A

Cold temperature and ice all over.

103
Q

Which would be the most helpful in preidicting weather for the following 6 months?
a) Cloud patterns and local bodies of water.
b) Climatic zone information
c) A climatograph of the region
d) Weather reports

A

A climatograph of the region

104
Q

Which of the following is responsiblle for water’s ability to moderate coastal weather?
a) The 3 states of water
b) The salt held in water
c) The density of water
d) Its large specific heat capacity

A

Its large heat capacity

105
Q

Which of the following can be used to explain differences in the winter in North America compared to the winter in South America?
a) Eccentricity
b) Tilit
c) Wobble
d) All of the above

106
Q

What is not found on a climatograph?
a) Specific location
b) Average rainfall
c) Average temperature
d) Annual data

A

Anual data

107
Q

Volcanic eruptions are the result of:
a) Plate movement
b) Jet streams
c) Solar radiation
d) Global warming

A

Plate movement

108
Q

What caused a decrease in global temperature in the years after Mount Pinatubo’s eruption?
a) Particles caused more radiation to be reflected back into space.
b) Ozone depletion resulted in less solar radiation reaching into Earth’s surface.
c) Lava and mud flows emitted more radiation back into space.
d) Ash scattered more of the radiation leaving Earth’s surface.

A

Particles caused more radiation to be reflected back to space.

109
Q

Which climatic zone contains Ontario?
a) Northern Temperate zone
b) Southern Temperate zone
c) North Polar zone
d) Tropical zone

A

Northern Temperate zone

110
Q

An effect caused by human activitry

A

Antrhopogenic

111
Q

A large biosphere division

112
Q

What are 2 features of the tundra biome?

A

Ice sheets and permafrost

113
Q

Alebdo refers to the changes in temperature seen in the polar regions compared to the equatorial region.

114
Q

The jet stream is wind movement as a result of high speed, high altitude aircraft.

115
Q

Scientists project that closet to 1 billion species of plants and animals face extinction because of climate change.

116
Q

Solar energy provides energy for climate and weather

117
Q

Earth’s rotation around the sun is a fixed circle.

118
Q

The tundra biome is found immediately south of the ice covered polar seas in the northern hemisphere.

119
Q

The prairies are best described as being part of the grassland biome.

120
Q

Solar variations, volcanoes, and a wobbling planet are an adequate explanation for recent changes in climate.

121
Q

The southern part of Canada will feel global warming the most since it will become the warmest.

122
Q

What is the main anthropogenic source of carbon dioxide?
a) Volcanoes
b) Respiration
c) Forest fires
d) Burning fossil fuels

A

Burning fossil fuels

123
Q

Ocean currents mix the contents of all oceans every ____ years.
a) 7
b) 10,000
c) 1000
d) 1

124
Q

Which of the following is responsible for wind?
a) Radiation
b) Conduction
c) Emission
d) Convection

A

Convection

125
Q

Which of the following is not a source of nitrous oxide?
a) Manure treatment
b) Vehicle exhaust
c) Fertilizer
d) Decomposing garbage

A

Decomposing garbage

126
Q

Which of the following is entirely anthropogenic?
a) Methane production
b) Ozone production
c) Halocarbons
d) Thermohaline circulation

A

Halocarbons

127
Q

Thermohaline circulation refers to the global pattern of ocean circulation

128
Q

An increase in carbon dioxide increases the concentration of water vapour in the atompshere.

129
Q

Concave mirrors in the shape of a parabola elimiate a problem known as spherical abberaiton.

130
Q

If the angle of relfection is 55 then the angle of incidence is also 55

131
Q

The angle between the incident ray and the normal ray is called the angle of incidence.

132
Q

Concave mirrors make great security devices at store.

133
Q

In a convex mirror, objects appear smaller than they are in reality.

134
Q

Persistent emission of light following exposure to and removal of a source of radiation.
a) Incandescence
b) Fluorescence
c) Phosphorescence
d) Bioluminescence
e) Chemiluminescence

A

Phosporescense

135
Q

Which colour of light has the shortest wavelegnth?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Violet

136
Q

What is true about an image seen in a plane mirror?
a) It is smaller than the object it reflects.
b) It is larger than the object it reflects.
c) It is the same size as the object it reflects.
d) It is either smaller or bigger

A

It is the same size as the object it reflects.

137
Q

Theresa wants to powder her nose. She is confident the mirror is:
a) Concave
b) Convex
c) Plane
d) Compact

138
Q

Which best describes the term ray?
a) A light that passes through any substance.
b) A straight line that represents the path of a beam of light.
c) Light that is bent as it passes through a translucent object.
d) An explanation based on observation of how light behave.

A

A straight line that represents the path of a beam of light.

139
Q

The image seen in a convex mirror in comparsion with an object is:
a) Smaller and upright
b) Larger and upright
c) Smaller and inverted
d) Larger and inverted

A

Smaller and upright

140
Q

The image in a convex mirror is always…
a) Real and inverted
b) Virtual and inverted
c) Real and upright
d) Virtual and upright

A

Virtual and upright

141
Q

Objects viewed at the bottom of a swimming pool are deeper than they appear

142
Q

A rainbow forms when sunlight enters a water droplet and refracts, reflects off the inner surface of the droplet and then refracts again when leaving the droplet.

143
Q

A reflection is the change in direction of a ray of light as it crosses the surface between 2 transparent media.

144
Q

When light passes from air into ethyl alcohol it will refract towards the normal.

145
Q

In which of the following substances is the speed of light the smallest?
a) Sodium chloride (n = 1.54)
b) Zircon (n = 1)
c) Lucite (n = 1.51)
d) Ruby (n = 1.54)

A

Sodium chloride

146
Q

In which of the following substances is the speed of light the greatest?
a) Diamond (n = 2.42)
b) Zircon (n = 1.92)
c) Lucite (n = 1.51)
d) Flint glass (n = 1.65)

147
Q

The speed of light in glycerol is equal to which of the following?
a) 3.00 x 10^8
b) 2.04 x 10^8
c) 2.46 x 10^8
d) 3.36 x 10^8

A

2.04 x 10^8

148
Q

Which of the following optical phenomina is caused by uneven heating of air?
a) Rainbow
b) Mirage
c) Sun dog
d) Apparent depth

149
Q

The speed of light in water is equal to which of the following:
a) 3.00 x 10^8
b) 2.20 x 10^8
c) 2.25 x 10^8
d) 3.36 x 10^8

A

2.25 x 10^8

150
Q

The magician entertaining at a childs party claims she can break a pencil in half without physicaly breaking it. When you see her trick, you realize it’s an optical illusion. What is it?
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Luminosity
d) Normal

A

Refraction

151
Q

Chromic aberration is the dispersion of light through the edge of a lens.

152
Q

Hyperopia, also known as far sightness is the condition in which the eye cannot focus on nearby objects.

153
Q

The cornea is the tissue that forms a transparent, curved structure in front of the eye that refracts light before it enters the eye.

154
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a converging lens?
a) Thinner in the middle, thicker edges.
b) Causes light to converge
c) Thicker in the middle thinner edges.
d) Forms images upside down

A

Thinner and thicker

155
Q

After the lights are shut off and then turned on again, Louis looks in the mirror at his eyes. What is the coloured part of the eye called?
a) Retina
b) Ciliary muscle
c) Pupil
d) Iris