Final Exam Flashcards
(156 cards)
1
Q
The basic unit of life is the organelle.
A
False
2
Q
One function of an organelle is reproduction.
A
False
3
Q
Only animal cells have cell walls.
A
False
4
Q
Plant cells have several small vacuoles
A
False
5
Q
The nucleus controls only cellular activities in animal cells.
A
False
6
Q
The cytoplasm includes the organelles and other life supporting materials
A
True
7
Q
The function of the endoplasmic reticulum is to package nutrients.
A
False
8
Q
Osmosis is another term for diffusion.
A
False
9
Q
Osmosis involves the diffusion of water through a preamble membrane.
A
False
10
Q
When a substance cannot penetrate a membrane, it cannot diffuse from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
A
True
11
Q
Which organelle makes energy available to the cell.
a) Golgi body
b) Mitochondrion
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
A
Mitochondrion
12
Q
Which substance pass through to enter or leave a cell?
a) Golgi body
b) Ribosome
c) Nucleus
d) Cell membrane
A
Cell membrane
13
Q
Which organelle makes proteins as directed by the nucleus?
a) Golgi body
b) Mitochondrion
c) Vacuole
d) Ribosome
A
Ribosome
14
Q
Which organelle breaks down food into particles that cells can use for survival?
a) Golgi body
b) Vacuole
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondrion
A
Mitochondrion
15
Q
Which organelle converts food into compounds that the cell uses for growth, development, and movement?
a) Chlorplast
b) Golgi body
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Mitochondrion
A
Mitochondrion
16
Q
Which of the following structures serves as a boundary between the cell and environment?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Cell membrane
c) Chlorplast
d) Ribosome
A
Cell membrane
17
Q
Which cell structure contains the cells genetic materials and controls the cells activites?
a) Organelle
b) Nucleus
c) Cytoplasm
d) Cell membrane
A
Nucelus
18
Q
The main function of the cell was is to:
a) Store DNA
b) Direct the cells activities
c) Support and protect the cell
d) Help the cell move
A
Support and protect the cell
19
Q
Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
a) Helps a cell maintain its shape
b) Contains DNA
c) Surrounds the cell
d) Helps to make proteins
A
Helps a cell maintain its shape
20
Q
Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?
a) Store DNA
b) Controls most of the cells processes
c) Contains the genetic information needed to make proteins
d) All of the above
A
All of the above
21
Q
Which of the following terms refers to cells having different jobs in organisms?
a) Multicellular
b) Cell specialization
c) Levels of organization
d) Unicellular
A
Cell specilization
22
Q
Which organelle helps to provide cells with energy?
a) Mitrochondrion and chlorplast
b) Endoplasmic reticulum and vacuoles
c) Golgi body and ribsoes
d) Endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles
A
Mitrochondrion and chloroplast
23
Q
Which of the following correctly matches the organelle with its function?
a) Mitochondrion and photosynthesis
b) Nucleus and respiration
c) Ribosome and manufacture of fats
d) Vacuole and storage
A
Vacuole and storage
24
Q
Which group of organelles is involved in making the substance needed by the cell?
a) Nucleus, vacuole, and ribsome
b) Vacuole, endoplasmic reticulum and nucleus
c) Nucleus, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum
d) Endoplasmic reituclum, ribosome, and vacuole.
A
Nucleus, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum
25
Which organelle would you expect to find in plant cells but not in animal cells?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Ribsome
c) Chlorplast
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Chlorplast
26
When the concentration of molecules on both sides of a semi premable mebrane is the same, it will:
a) Move across the membrane to the outside of the cell.
b) Stop moving across the membrane
c) Move across the membrane in both directions.
d) Move across the membrane to the inside of the cell
Move across the membrane in both directors.
27
The diffusion of water across a semi premable membrane is called:
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Osmosis
c) Diffusion
d) Active transportation
Osmosis
28
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from:
a) an area of low concentration to an area of high conentration.
b) an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
c) an are of equilinirum to an area of high concentration.
d) all of the above
An are of high concentration to an area of low concentration.
29
An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the pressure causes:
a) Water to burst into the cell.
b) Water to move out of the cell.
c) Substances to move into the cell.
d) Substances to move out of the cell.
Water to move out of the cell
30
Concentration
The number of molecules of a substance in a given volume.
31
Diffusion
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until they are evenly distrubuted.
32
Osmosis
The movement of water molecules across a membrane in response to concentration differences.
33
Cell membrane
Controls the flow of materials in and out of the cell
34
Chlorplast
Traps energy from the sun to make glucose
35
The basic unit of life is the organelle
False
36
Only animal cells have cell walls
False
37
During interphase the elongated cell begins to pinch apart at the centre.
False
38
During anaphase the new chromosomes are pulled apart and drawn to each end of the cell.
True
39
During metaphase the chromosomes begin to uncoil.
False
40
The phases of mitosis occur in this order: prophase, anaphase, telophase, and metaphase
False *PMAT*
41
The chromsones align themselves in the middle of the cell during:
a) Prophase
b) Anaphase
c) Metaphase
d) Telophase
Metaphase
42
New chromsones are pulled apart and drawn to each end of the cell during:
a) Phrophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
Anaphase
43
In which phase do cells spend most of their time?
Interphase
44
During which stage of mitosis do the loosley arranged strands of chromosomes become coiled, shortened, and distinct?
Prophase
45
All specialized cells are the result of cell differentiation.
False
46
The human heart contains muscle ells, nerve cells, connective tissue, and epithelial tissue.
True
47
A group of cells that performs similair functions is called an organ.
False (tissue)
48
The 4 principle types of tissues are:
Epithelial, connecitve, muscle, and nervous
49
In which phase does the chromosomes replicate and the nuclear membrane disappears?
Interphase
50
Cells specialized to transmit information between body regions are:
a) Muscle cells
b) Connective cells
c) Epithelial cells
d) Nervous cells
Nervous cells
51
Vocal cords
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach
Larynx
52
Process by which nutrients pass into the digestive system
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach
Absorption
53
Takes place in the alveolus
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach
Gas exchange
54
Where gas exchange occurs
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach
Alveoli
55
Where water and nutrients are reabsorbed
a) Larynx
b) Large intestine
c) Gas exchange
d) Absorption
e) Alveoli
f) Stomach
Large intestine
56
Very small objects such as cells are best viewed using:
a) PET Scan
b) CT scans
c) MRI scans
d) Microscopy
Microscopy
57
Endoscopy can be used to:
a) View hard tissue such as bone.
b) Observe organ function
c) View internal body parts without cutting.
d) Contrast soft tissue and hard tissue
View internal body parts without cutting
58
Which of the following can best diagnose bone injuries and malformation?
a) X-rays and ultrasound
b) X-rays and CT scans
c) CT scans and ultrasounds
d) Ultrasounds and PET scans
X-rays and CT scans
59
Involves sending electromagnetic radiation through the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan
X-ray
60
Direct sound waves at specific body parts:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan
Ultrasound
61
Scan that involves small amounts of radioactive materials taken into the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan
PET scan
62
Produces 3d images of body parts:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan
CT scan
63
Involves passing radio waves through a magnetic field around the body:
a) MRI scan
b) Endoscopy
c) PET scan
d) Ultrasound
e) X-ray
f) CT scan
MRI scan
64
A polyatomic ion is composed of at least 3 atoms.
False
65
One electron is transferred from one sodium atom to one chlorine atom to form sodium chloride
True
66
Multivalent metals have more than one ion charge.
True
67
Magnesium phosphide is an ionic compound.
True
68
A reactant is a pure substance that is formed in a chemical change.
False
69
Sodium chloride is a covalent compound.
False
70
An ion is a negatively charged ion.
True
71
There are 2 ways to identify a compound: by it's chemical name and it's chemical formula.
True
72
Calcium hydroxide is an ingredient in making mortar and plaster for construction.
True
73
An ionic compound is composed of ions with the same charge
False
74
How many electrons does a beryllium atoms lose when it forms an ion?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
2
75
Which element does not exist as a diatomic molecule? *HOFBRINCL*
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Phosporus
d) Chlorine
Phosporus
76
Which of the following chemical formulas contains the greatest number of different elements?
a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Iron chlroide
c) Tin dichromate
d) Ammonium acetate
Ammonium acetate
77
Which of the following is not an acceptable formula for a maganese compound?
a) MnO
b) Mn3O2
c)Mn2O3
d)MnO2
Mn3O2
78
In which of the following compounds will the bonding involve the sharing of electrons between atoms?
a) Na2O
b) N2O4
c) Nb2O3
d) NiO
N2O4
79
In which of the following compounds have electrons been transferred to oxygen?
a) SO2
b) P2O5
c) Na2O
d) Cl2O7
Na2O
80
What type of compound results from the reaction of carbon with sulfur?
Covalent
81
Chlorine is added to a solution of sodium iodide and a reaction occurs. The reactants are shown below: Cl2 + 2 Nal --> ?
a) 2ICI2 + 2Na
b) 2NaCl + ICI
c) 2Na + I2 + Cl2
d) 2NaCl + I2
2NaCl + I2
82
Consider this: K3PO4 + Fe(NO3)3 --> ??
a) FePO4 + KNO3
b) FeK3 + NO3PO4
c) Fe3PO4 + K3NO3
d) K3Fe + PO4(NO3)3
FePO4 + KNO3
83
A piece pf aluminium foil is added to a solution of copper chloride and a reaction occurs. You would expect the products of this reaction to be:
a) AlCl3 + Cu
b) Al + Cu _ Cl2
c) AlCu + Cl2
d) CuAl3 + Cl2
AlCl3 + Cu
84
A piece of aluminum foil is placed in an aqeous solution of copper chloride. Within a few seconds a solid brown metal appears to form and the aluminum metal appears to dissolve. This reaction is classified as:
a) Combustion
b) Decomposition
c) Single displacement
d) Synthesis
Single displacement
85
Which of the following pairs of reactants is likely to produce a pure metal when they react together?
a) Na3PO4(aq) + Mg(NO3)2(aq)
b) Cl2(aq) + Kl(aq)
c) Mg(s) + O2(g)
d) Al(s) + CuCl2(aq)
Al(s) + CuCl2(aq)
86
When magensium metla and nitrogen gas react together, the correct formula for the product will be:
a) MgN
b) Mg2N3
c) Mg3N2
d) NgN2
Mg3N2
87
Methane(a hydrocarbon) + oxygen --->
a) Single displacement
b) Double displacement
c) Synthesis
d) Decomposition
e) Combustion
Combustion
88
The electrolysis of water, resulting in production of hydrogen and oxygen gas, is an example of double displacement.
False (decompostion)
89
The reaction of zinc metal with hydrochloric acid, producing hydrogen gas, can be as single displacement
True
90
To reduce emissions that could form acid percipitation, sulfur dioxide is removed from exhaust gases through a reaction with calcium oxide that forms calcium sulfite.
True
91
Most cleaning agents (soap, bleach, detergents) have a pH that is more than 7
False
92
Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to produce sodium chlroide (table salt) and water.
True
93
Acids are characterized by a bitter taste.
False (sour)
94
Sodium hydroxide commonly known as Iye, is found in citrus fruits.
False
95
An oxacid is composed of hydrogen, oxygen, and another element.
True
96
Bases are characterised by having a slippery feeling.
True
97
Which of the following liquids has the highest pH?
a) H2CO3(aq)
b)HCL(aq)
c) KOH(aq)
d) H2O
KOH(aq)
98
A solution with an H+ ion concentration one million times greater than pure water would be:
a) Basic and a pH of 1
b) Acidic and a pH of 1
c) Acidic and a pH of 13
d) Basic and a pH of 13
Acidic and a pH of 1
99
A solution is found to have an ion concentration 10000 times lower than of pure water. Which is correct?
a) A basic solution with a pH of 3
b) An acidic solution with a pH of 3
c) A basic solution with a pH of 11
d) An acidid solution with a pH of 11
A basic solution with a pH of 11
100
Which reaction is an example of a neturalization reaction?
a) H2CO3(aq) --> CO2 + H2O
b) N2 + 3H2 -->2NH3
c) Cl2 + 2NaBr(aq) --> Br2 + 2NaCl(aq)
d) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) --> NaCl(aq) + H2O
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) --> NaCl(aq) + H2O
101
The hydroshpere includes all the following except:
a) Water that is frozen
b) Water that is a gas
c) Water on the space shuttle
d) Water on the surface of the Earth
Water on the space shuttle
102
What do the North Polar Zone and the South Polar Zone have in common?
a) They both face the sun
b) Excessive snowfall
c) Cold temperatures and ice all over
d) Dramatic temperature variation
Cold temperature and ice all over.
103
Which would be the most helpful in preidicting weather for the following 6 months?
a) Cloud patterns and local bodies of water.
b) Climatic zone information
c) A climatograph of the region
d) Weather reports
A climatograph of the region
104
Which of the following is responsiblle for water's ability to moderate coastal weather?
a) The 3 states of water
b) The salt held in water
c) The density of water
d) Its large specific heat capacity
Its large heat capacity
105
Which of the following can be used to explain differences in the winter in North America compared to the winter in South America?
a) Eccentricity
b) Tilit
c) Wobble
d) All of the above
Tilt
106
What is not found on a climatograph?
a) Specific location
b) Average rainfall
c) Average temperature
d) Annual data
Anual data
107
Volcanic eruptions are the result of:
a) Plate movement
b) Jet streams
c) Solar radiation
d) Global warming
Plate movement
108
What caused a decrease in global temperature in the years after Mount Pinatubo's eruption?
a) Particles caused more radiation to be reflected back into space.
b) Ozone depletion resulted in less solar radiation reaching into Earth's surface.
c) Lava and mud flows emitted more radiation back into space.
d) Ash scattered more of the radiation leaving Earth's surface.
Particles caused more radiation to be reflected back to space.
109
Which climatic zone contains Ontario?
a) Northern Temperate zone
b) Southern Temperate zone
c) North Polar zone
d) Tropical zone
Northern Temperate zone
110
An effect caused by human activitry
Antrhopogenic
111
A large biosphere division
Biome
112
What are 2 features of the tundra biome?
Ice sheets and permafrost
113
Alebdo refers to the changes in temperature seen in the polar regions compared to the equatorial region.
False
114
The jet stream is wind movement as a result of high speed, high altitude aircraft.
False
115
Scientists project that closet to 1 billion species of plants and animals face extinction because of climate change.
False
116
Solar energy provides energy for climate and weather
True
117
Earth's rotation around the sun is a fixed circle.
False
118
The tundra biome is found immediately south of the ice covered polar seas in the northern hemisphere.
False
119
The prairies are best described as being part of the grassland biome.
True
120
Solar variations, volcanoes, and a wobbling planet are an adequate explanation for recent changes in climate.
False
121
The southern part of Canada will feel global warming the most since it will become the warmest.
False
122
What is the main anthropogenic source of carbon dioxide?
a) Volcanoes
b) Respiration
c) Forest fires
d) Burning fossil fuels
Burning fossil fuels
123
Ocean currents mix the contents of all oceans every ____ years.
a) 7
b) 10,000
c) 1000
d) 1
1000
124
Which of the following is responsible for wind?
a) Radiation
b) Conduction
c) Emission
d) Convection
Convection
125
Which of the following is not a source of nitrous oxide?
a) Manure treatment
b) Vehicle exhaust
c) Fertilizer
d) Decomposing garbage
Decomposing garbage
126
Which of the following is entirely anthropogenic?
a) Methane production
b) Ozone production
c) Halocarbons
d) Thermohaline circulation
Halocarbons
127
Thermohaline circulation refers to the global pattern of ocean circulation
True
128
An increase in carbon dioxide increases the concentration of water vapour in the atompshere.
True
129
Concave mirrors in the shape of a parabola elimiate a problem known as spherical abberaiton.
True
130
If the angle of relfection is 55 then the angle of incidence is also 55
True
131
The angle between the incident ray and the normal ray is called the angle of incidence.
True
132
Concave mirrors make great security devices at store.
False
133
In a convex mirror, objects appear smaller than they are in reality.
True
134
Persistent emission of light following exposure to and removal of a source of radiation.
a) Incandescence
b) Fluorescence
c) Phosphorescence
d) Bioluminescence
e) Chemiluminescence
Phosporescense
135
Which colour of light has the shortest wavelegnth?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Violet
Violet
136
What is true about an image seen in a plane mirror?
a) It is smaller than the object it reflects.
b) It is larger than the object it reflects.
c) It is the same size as the object it reflects.
d) It is either smaller or bigger
It is the same size as the object it reflects.
137
Theresa wants to powder her nose. She is confident the mirror is:
a) Concave
b) Convex
c) Plane
d) Compact
Concave
138
Which best describes the term ray?
a) A light that passes through any substance.
b) A straight line that represents the path of a beam of light.
c) Light that is bent as it passes through a translucent object.
d) An explanation based on observation of how light behave.
A straight line that represents the path of a beam of light.
139
The image seen in a convex mirror in comparsion with an object is:
a) Smaller and upright
b) Larger and upright
c) Smaller and inverted
d) Larger and inverted
Smaller and upright
140
The image in a convex mirror is always...
a) Real and inverted
b) Virtual and inverted
c) Real and upright
d) Virtual and upright
Virtual and upright
141
Objects viewed at the bottom of a swimming pool are deeper than they appear
True
142
A rainbow forms when sunlight enters a water droplet and refracts, reflects off the inner surface of the droplet and then refracts again when leaving the droplet.
True
143
A reflection is the change in direction of a ray of light as it crosses the surface between 2 transparent media.
False
144
When light passes from air into ethyl alcohol it will refract towards the normal.
True
145
In which of the following substances is the speed of light the smallest?
a) Sodium chloride (n = 1.54)
b) Zircon (n = 1)
c) Lucite (n = 1.51)
d) Ruby (n = 1.54)
Sodium chloride
146
In which of the following substances is the speed of light the greatest?
a) Diamond (n = 2.42)
b) Zircon (n = 1.92)
c) Lucite (n = 1.51)
d) Flint glass (n = 1.65)
Lucite
147
The speed of light in glycerol is equal to which of the following?
a) 3.00 x 10^8
b) 2.04 x 10^8
c) 2.46 x 10^8
d) 3.36 x 10^8
2.04 x 10^8
148
Which of the following optical phenomina is caused by uneven heating of air?
a) Rainbow
b) Mirage
c) Sun dog
d) Apparent depth
Mirage
149
The speed of light in water is equal to which of the following:
a) 3.00 x 10^8
b) 2.20 x 10^8
c) 2.25 x 10^8
d) 3.36 x 10^8
2.25 x 10^8
150
The magician entertaining at a childs party claims she can break a pencil in half without physicaly breaking it. When you see her trick, you realize it's an optical illusion. What is it?
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Luminosity
d) Normal
Refraction
151
Chromic aberration is the dispersion of light through the edge of a lens.
True
152
Hyperopia, also known as far sightness is the condition in which the eye cannot focus on nearby objects.
True
153
The cornea is the tissue that forms a transparent, curved structure in front of the eye that refracts light before it enters the eye.
True
154
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a converging lens?
a) Thinner in the middle, thicker edges.
b) Causes light to converge
c) Thicker in the middle thinner edges.
d) Forms images upside down
Thinner and thicker
155
After the lights are shut off and then turned on again, Louis looks in the mirror at his eyes. What is the coloured part of the eye called?
a) Retina
b) Ciliary muscle
c) Pupil
d) Iris
Iris
156
