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BSCI170 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A molecule contains…

A

Two or more atoms that are similar or different.

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2
Q

Living systems do not contain phosphorous and sulfur because they are toxic. (T/F)

A

False

Phosphorus is an essential nutrient for living processes. It is a major component of nucleic acids and phospholipids, and, as calcium phosphate, it makes up the supportive components of our bones.

Sulfur is an essential element for the molecules of living things. As part of the amino acid cysteine, it is involved in the formation of proteins.

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3
Q

How many electrons are found in the p subshell?

A

6

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4
Q

What is the ranking of electronegativity, from least to most electronegative:

a. Cl, C, Na
b. Na, C, Cl
c. C, Na, Cl
d. Na, Cl, C

A

Na, C, Cl

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5
Q

In living systems, ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds. (T/F)

A

False

So in biological contexts, always in water, ionic bonds are more suggestions than bonds-a convenient way of describing ion pairs, and are thus much much weaker than a covalent bond that doesn’t dissociate in the same way. But in a vacuum, the ionic bond is much harder to break than a simple covalent interaction.

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6
Q

Determine the number of protons in an isotope that has the atomic number of 12, atomic mass number 26, charge of +2

A

12

same as atomic number

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7
Q

Determine the number of neutrons in an isotope that has the atomic number of 12, atomic mass number 26, charge of +2

A

26-12 = 14

atomic mass - atomic number

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8
Q

Determine the number of electrons in an isotope that has the atomic number of 12, atomic mass number 26, charge of +2

A

12-2 = 10

protons - charge

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9
Q

Naturally occurring europium (Eu) consists of two isotopes with a mass of 151 and 153. Europium-151 has an abundance of 48.03% and Europium-153 has an abundance of 51.97%. What is the atomic weight of europium?

A

(151* 0.4803) + (153 * 0.5197)
152 amu

(mass1 * abundance1) + (mass2 * abundance2)

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10
Q

atomic weight units

A

amu

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11
Q

What is the molecular mass of C2H5OH? Carbon has 6 protons and 6 neutrons, hydrogen has 1 proton, and oxygen has 8 protons and 8 neutrons. Please include an appropriate unit.

A

46 g/mol (or amu or Da)

2(6+6)+5(1)+(8+8)+(1)

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12
Q

molecular mass units

A

g/mol, amu, or Da

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13
Q

Free energy is

G

A

Energy available to do work

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14
Q

Potential energy is

A

Stored energy

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15
Q

Entropy is

S

A

Unusable energy

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16
Q

Enthalpy is

H

A

Total energy of the system

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17
Q

Equilibrium is

A

Having minimal to no free energy

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18
Q

For a reaction, the H of reactants is 10J, the H of products is 50J, the S of the reactants is 80 J/K and the S of the products is 70 J/K. The T of the system is 250K. What is G? Note that: G = H - TS.

and is this an endergonic or exergonic reaction?

A

H = 50J – 10J = 40 J
S = 70J/K – 80 J/K = -10 J/K
G = 40J – 250K * (-10 J/K)
G = 2540 J

Reaction is endergonic

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19
Q

For a reaction, G is 300 J, S is 3 kJ/K, and T is 300K. What is H? Please provide appropriate units. Note that: G = H - TS

A

0.3kJ = H – 300 K * 3 kJ/K
H = 0.3kJ + 900 kJ
H = 900.3 kJ

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20
Q

How many Joules are in a Kilojoule

A

1000 J

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21
Q

If energy is needed to break bonds, why does catabolism result in energy release?

A

Because it also results new bond formation, which are more stable and release energy.

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22
Q

What is the ranking for water forms, from least to most dense:

A

Vapor, solid, liquid

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23
Q

Cohesion is

A

Attraction of identical molecules

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24
Q

Adhesion is

A

Attraction of different molecules

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25
Q

High specific heat is

A

Responsible for reduced temperature
fluctuations in living systems

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26
Q

High heat of vaporization is

A

Responsible for cooling the surfaces of living systems

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27
Q

Hydration shell is

A

Cluster of water molecules around a
charged molecule

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28
Q

A solute dissolves in a solvent when solute-solvent attraction is greater than solute-solute attraction and solvent-solvent attraction (T/F)

A

True

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29
Q

neutral solution

A

equal number of H+ and OH-

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30
Q

acidic solution

A

more H+ than OH-

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31
Q

basic solution

A

more OH- than H+

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32
Q

When a basic substance enters the bloodstream, ______ is formed causing release of ___

A

Bicarbonate, H+ ions

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33
Q

cis isomer

A

molecules with the same connectivity of atoms. They feature same side groups placed on the same side of a double bond

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34
Q

structural isomer

A

same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms

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35
Q

Trans isomers

A

molecules with same side groups placed on opposite sides of a double bond

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36
Q

methyl functional group

A

CH3

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37
Q

hydroxyl functional group

A

OH

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38
Q

sulfhydryl functional group

A

SH

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39
Q

amino/amines functional group

A

NH2; accepts H+ in living tissue to form NH3+

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40
Q

Phospholipids contain a hydrophobic tail of ________ and a hydrophilic head of ________. This makes phospholipids __________.

A

Fatty acids, glycerol-phosphate-choline, amphipathic

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41
Q

Glucose easily dissolves in water. There are 0.05 moles/L of sucrose in a solution. How many grams of sucrose are in 1 L of the solution? Its atomic mass is 180 g/mol. The mole of a substance is its mass divided by its atomic mass.

A

In 1 L of solution,
Mass of glucose = 0.05 mol * 180 g/mol = 9 g

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42
Q

triglyceride

A

molecule
a type of lipid with 3 fatty acid chains

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43
Q

lipid

A

macromolecule
long chain fatty acids which may be either free or combined with an alcohol by an ester linkage

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44
Q

saturated fatty acids

A

only single bonds

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45
Q

carboxyl functional group

A

COOH

can act as an acid and lose a proton to form a negatively-charged carboxylate ion (COO ‍ )

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46
Q

ketone functional group

A

CO

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47
Q

```

~~~

aldehyde functional group

A

COH

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48
Q

phosphate group

A

PO4^3-

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49
Q

Glycosidic bond occurs in

A

Carbohydrates

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50
Q

Ester bond occurs in

A

Lipids

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51
Q

Phosphodiester bond occurs in

A

Nucleic acids

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52
Q

Peptide bond occurs in

A

Proteins

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53
Q

Sucrose

A

disaccharide — it’s composed of one unit of α glucose and one of fructose

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54
Q

sucrose is a monomer of

A

α glucosen and fructose

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55
Q

what glycosidic bond does sucrose have

A

α-1 2

1 carbon of glucose is connected to the 2 carbon of fructose

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56
Q

glycogen

A

polymer of alpha glucose
stores energy in animals
water insoluble

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57
Q

purine molecules

A

Adenine or Guanine

two-carbon nitrogen ring bases

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58
Q

Pyrimidine molecules

A

Thymine or Cytosine or Uracil

one carbon nitrogen ring base

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59
Q

What does an RNA nucleoside contain?

A

ribose sugar and AUGC bases

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60
Q

Primary protein structure consists of

A

a sequence of amino acids

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61
Q

α helix protein structure is

A

a coiled molecule

secondary protein structure
bonds form between every fourth amino acid and cause a twist in the amino acid chain

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62
Q

β pleated protein structure consists of

A

bonding between amino acids on two levels

secondary protein structure
hydrogen bonding between atoms on the backbone of the polypeptide chain

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63
Q

Tertiary protein structure results from

A

bending and folding of a polypeptide chain

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64
Q

Quaternary protein structure is

A

interaction between 2+ polypeptide chains

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65
Q

The overall nucleic acid synthesis reaction is energetically favorable because _ is converted to _ releasing _.

A

Triphosphate nucleoside, monophosphate nucleoside, pyrophosphate

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66
Q

change in G

A

arrow from products to reactants

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67
Q

exergonic

A

products below reactants

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68
Q

In what ways can enzymes lower activation change?

A

By inducing physical strain on the substrates.
By orienting two substrates so they can react more easily.
By adding charges to the substrate.

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69
Q

A reversible competitive inhibitor

A

Forms non-covalent attachment to the enzyme
at the active site

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70
Q

A reversible non-competitive inhibitor

A

Binds to the enzyme away from the active site

71
Q

An irreversible inhibitor

A

Forms covalent attachment to the enzyme

72
Q

An allosteric activator

A

Stabilizes the enzyme in active conformation

73
Q

A feedback inhibitor

A

involves an end product binding to an enzyme
at the front of the pathway

74
Q

an enzyme is said to be _ when the rate of product formation is maximal. The only way to increase the rate of product formation is to _ and _

A

saturated, synthesize new enzymes, activate already present enzyme molecules.

75
Q

mol in Kmol

A

1000 mol

76
Q

mmol in mol

A

1000 mmol

77
Q

uniport transport protein

A

transports one solute

78
Q

symport transport protien

A

transports two solutes on same side of membrane

79
Q

**

antiport transport protein

A

transports 2 solutes to opposite sides of membrane

80
Q

carbohydrates

A

outside of cell attached to proteins or lipids

81
Q

cholesterol

A

little balls within phospholipid bilayer that alters fluidity

82
Q

```

CaCl2

A

cannot pass through semipermeable membrane
breaks into Cl^- and Ca^2+
Chloride ion and calcium ion

83
Q

what can pass through semipermeable membrane?

A

water - not salts or ions

urea can

84
Q

```

hypertonic body

A

the net movement of water will be out of the body and into the solution

85
Q

hypotonic body

A

the net movement of water will be into the body and out of the solution

86
Q

For the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, place the following steps in the right order/sequence (i.e.,
provide a, b, etc. in the right order) (5 points)
a. Two K+ ions bind to the pump.
b. Three Na+ ions and 1 ATP binds to the pump.
c. The pump is dephosphorylated, causing K+ ions to leave the pump.
d. The pump is phosphorylated, causing Na+ ions to leave the pump.
e. ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP

A

b, e, d, a, c

87
Q

Diffusion is

A

Net movement of particles from areas of high to low concentrations

88
Q

Equilibrium is

A

Equal concentrations across the membrane barrier

89
Q

Osmosis is

A

Passive movement of water across a membrane

90
Q

Osmotic pressure is

A

Force applied to a solution to prevent osmosis

91
Q

Osmolarity is

A

Total number of solute particles per liter of water

92
Q

two major membrane proteins involved in facilitated diffusion

write!

A

channels and carriers

93
Q

active transport

A

used atp

94
Q

bonds in NaCl

A

ionic

95
Q

bonds in N2

A

non-polar covalent

96
Q

bonds in H2O

A

polar covalent

97
Q

bonds in CH4

A

non polar covalent

98
Q

Phagocytosis is

A

cellular eating

99
Q

Pinocytosis is

A

cellular drinking

100
Q

Exocytosis is

A

secretion of materials outside of cell

101
Q

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is

A

Intake of specific molecules into cell.

102
Q

cells prefer a larger surface area-to-volume ratio because it helps maintain the cell’s metabolic activity through efficient transport of materials into and out of cell. (T/F)

A

True

103
Q

Mitochondria

A

produce ATP

104
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Process and package materials for secretion

105
Q

Lysosome

A

Carry out digestion and autophagy

106
Q

Rough ER

A

Synthesize protein and adds carbohydrates to proteins

107
Q

Peroxisome

A

Break down toxic peroxide compounds

108
Q

Prokaryotes contain membrane-bound organelles (T/F)

A

False

109
Q

Write down three differences between plant and animal cells

A

Animal cells contain (or plant cells lack) centrosomes (centrioles), lysosomes, and numerous small vacuoles. Plant cells contain (or animal cells lack) cell wall, chloroplast,
and large central vacuoles. (6 differences mentioned).

110
Q

Cyanobacteria contain _ and are therefore _ . Archaea are mostly found in _ and have the characteristics of _.

A

chlorophyll, autotrophs, extreme conditions, both bacteria and eukaryotes

111
Q

_ does not permit movement of any materials between cells. _ permit some material movement while _ allows ions and small molecules to pass through.

A

Tight junctions, desmosomes, gap junctions

112
Q

Does microfilaments contain keratin, tubulin, or actin proteins?

A

actin

113
Q

Does intermediate filaments contain keratin, tubulin, or actin proteins?

A

keratin

114
Q

Does microtubules contain keratin, tubulin, or actin proteins?

A

tubulin

115
Q

Can monomers be removed in microfilaments?

A

yes

116
Q

Can monomers be removed in intermediate filaments?

A

no

117
Q

Can microtubules be removed in intermediate filaments?

A

yes

118
Q

Juxtacrine signaling

A

to touching cells

119
Q

autocrine signaling

A

to own cell

120
Q

Paracrine signaling

A

to nearby cell

121
Q

For ligand-gated ion channels, place the following steps in the right order/sequence
a. Ions flow into the cell.
b. Neurotransmitter binds to its appropriate receptor.
c. The cell responds.
d. The receptor changes shape and opens

A

b, d, a, c

122
Q

For G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs), place the following steps in the right order/sequence
a. The alpha subunit of the G protein dissociates.
b. The signal binds to the GPCR, changing the conformation of the receptor.
c. The alpha subunit of the G protein activates an effector protein.
d. The alpha subunit of the G protein replaces GDP with GTP

A

b, d, a, c

123
Q

enzyme involved in removal of phosphate groups

write!

A

phosphatase

123
Q

enzyme involved in addition of phosphate groups

write!

A

kinase

124
Q

enzyme involved in generation of cyclic AMP

write!

A

adenylyl cyclase

125
Q

enzyme involved in cessation of cyclic AMP activity (by conversion to AMP):

A

phosphodiesterase

126
Q

Removal of phosphate molecule activates an enzyme while addition of phosphate molecule inactivates an enzyme (T/F)

A

false

127
Q

functions of rRNA

A
  1. ensures proper alignment of tRNA anticodon and mRNA codon
  2. It breaks bond between amino acid and tRNA. It also catalyzes formation of bond between two amino acids
128
Q

In which organelle can already initiated protein translation continue?

A

rough ER

129
Q

For translation elongation, place the following steps in the right order/sequence
a. A newly charged tRNA enters A site, releasing uncharged tRNA from E site.
b. The peptidyl transferase enzyme adds methionine attached to tRNA in P site to the amino acid attached to tRNA in A site.
c. The ribosome shifts down one codon, moving the uncharged tRNA to E site and the tRNA carrying the two amino acids to P site.
d. The process continues until a stop codon reaches the A site.
e. At the A site, the anticodon of incoming tRNA binds to mRNA codon.

A

e, b, c, a, d

130
Q

anticodon

A

mRNA binding site

131
Q

For translation initiation and termination, place the following steps in the right order/sequence
a. The large ribosomal subunit joins the initiation complex.
b. Methionine-charged tRNA binds to AUG codon.
c. At the A ribosomal site, a release factor binds to the stop codon.
d. The small ribosomal unit binds to mRNA at the 5’ end.
e. The release factor disconnects the polypeptide chain from tRNA molecule.
f. The translation elongation steps occur.

A

d, b, a, f, c, e

132
Q

amino acid binding site

of tRNA

A

three nucleotides on the 3’-OH end

133
Q

mRNA attachment site

of tRNA

A

three nucleotides at the bottom loop

134
Q

What are the functional restrictions of DNA polymerase?

A

They can only copy single-stranded DNA.
They rely on an RNA primer to start synthesis of the daughter strand.
They can only add nucleotides to the 3’end.

135
Q

For telomere extension by telomerase, place the following steps in the right order/sequence)
a. The telomerase’s RNA template binds to the 3’ overhang.
b. Telomerase and its RNA template shift, elongating 5’-3’ DNA strand.
c. Telomerase RNA acts as a template for addition of DNA nucleotides to 3’ overhang.
d. RNA primer removal following lagging strand synthesis creates 3’ overhang.
e. DNA polymerase elongates the 3’-5’ strand through addition of nucleotides.

A

d, a, c, b, e

136
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

Fills gaps that arise during replication/repair

137
Q

DNA polymerase II

A

Undertakes proofreading and repair/editing

138
Q

DNA Polymerase III

A

Undertakes regular DNA synthesis

139
Q

Write down three reasons why the cell tolerates a higher level of transcription errors vs. replication errors

A
  1. Many RNAs are only a few thousand base pairs long & may have no or 1 error
  2. RNA errors are not passed to next generation of cells
  3. RNA has a short lifespan
140
Q

single strand binding proteins

A

stabilizes ssDNA and keeps strands open

141
Q

Primase

A

makes RNA primer

142
Q

RNA Primer

A

5-10 nucleotides long

143
Q

topoisomerase

A

relieves additional coiling
relieves tension caused by DNA supercoiling

144
Q

Helicase

A

unzips

145
Q

An RNA polymerase

A

adds complimentary nucleotides in 5’-3’ direction

146
Q

A promoter

A

sets the start site for transcription

147
Q

A transcription unit

A

is the DNA sequence being transcribed

148
Q

A transcription factor

A

regulates initiation of transcription

149
Q

why do eukaryote mRNA use 5’ cap

A

protect the 5’-phosphate groups of RNA from enzyme
degradation in the cytosol

150
Q

why do eukarayote mRNA use the addition of 3’-tail

A

makes RNA more stable and helps it get transported from
nucleus to cytosol

151
Q

why do eukaryotes use splicing

A

removes introns that are commonly found in eukaryotic genes and mRNA

152
Q

why do prokaryote mRNA not use 5’ cap

A

prokaryotes undergo simultaneous transcription and
translation and therefore enzymes often cannot break their RNA before translation

153
Q

why do prokaryote mRNA not use 3’ cap

A

prokaryotic RNA is already in the cytosol and does not need
transportation

154
Q

why does prokaryotic mRNA not use splicing

A

prokaryotic RNA rarely contains introns

155
Q

chromatin

A

condensed DNA - repeating units of nucleosomes

156
Q

histone

A

each nucleosome contains 8

157
Q

nucleosome

A

DNA wrapped around it

158
Q

heterochromatin

A

Most condensed chromatin
Genes inaccessible & transcriptionally silent

159
Q

euchromatin

A

Less condensed chromatin
Genes accessible & transcriptionally active

160
Q

what is histone modification a mechanism of

A

Acetylation

161
Q

what enzyme does histone modification use

A

Histone Acetyl Transferase (HAT)

162
Q

acetylation

A

Reduces positive charges on lysine AA in
histones (neutralizes) –> weakens binding to DNA
to open up condensed chromatin (transcription can occur)

163
Q

DNA methyltransferase

A
  • adds methyl group to modify C to methylcytosine
  • associated with gene inactivation and reduced transcriptional activity
164
Q

maintenance methylase

A

catylyzes methylization of Cs in new DNA strands during DNA replication

165
Q

demethylase

A

enzyme that removes methyl group from 5-mythylcytosine –> reactivates gene

166
Q

two reasons why mammalian females have X chromosome inactivation

A
  1. x chromosomes carry many more genes and males have one and females have two
  2. both sexes should express similar amount of proteins
167
Q

epigenetics

A

Study of how behaviors and
environment can cause changes to
gene expression

168
Q

epigenetic examples (2)

A

histone modification and DNA
methylation

169
Q

general (basal) transcription factores

A

rate of transcription low but is ready to transcribe RNA
TFIID binds to TATA, general trascription factor, RNA polymerase II

170
Q

regulatory transcription factors

A
  1. Sequences (like enhancers and silencers) that bind specific TFs (activators and repressors) may be far from transcription start site
  2. Mediator binds to basal transcription apparatus
  3. DNA bending allows mediator to interact with distant TFs and the basal transcription apparatus to alter transcription rate
171
Q

miRNA steps

A
  1. Single transcribed RNA molecule folds onto itself to form dsRNA
  2. The enzyme Dicer cleaves dsRNA to produce miRNA
  3. Ss miRNA combines with proteins to form RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC)
  4. RISC inhibits translation or causes degradation of complementary RNAs
  5. miRNA works on more RNA molecules than siRNA
172
Q

siRNA

A
  1. Both strands of DNA are transcribed to produce complimentary RNA molecules that combine to produce dsRNA
  2. The enzyme Dicer cleaves dsRNA to produce siRNA
  3. Ss siRNA combines with proteins to form RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC)
  4. RISC inhibits translation or causes degradation of complementary RNAs
  5. siRNA works on fewer RNA molecules thanmiRNA
173
Q

ferratin formation process (translational regulation)

A

protein that binds to and transports iron in the blood and cytoplasm
- translational repressor binds to ferritin mRNA when Fe low, prevents ribosome attachment
- when fe high, fe binds to repressor and ferrit mRNA detaches –> ribosome binding and translational process occurs

BSCI170 (3 decks)

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