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Human Biology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Starting at the apex of a medullary pyramid, what is the correct sequence of structures through which urine flows to reach the exterior of the body?

A

Calyces, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra

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2
Q

The process of micturition requires contraction of smooth muscle in the _______

A

wall of the urinary bladder

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3
Q

Which of the following are nitrogenous waste products?

  • Glucose
  • Urea
  • Amino acids
  • Uric acid
  • Creatinine
A

Urea, uric acid, creatinine

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4
Q

Which of the following would be considered normal characteristics of freshly voided urine from a healthy individual?

  • Ammonia smell
  • Yellow in color
  • Specific gravity near 6.0
  • Sterile
  • Cloudy
A

Yellow in color, sterile

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5
Q

The return of substances from the renal tubules of the nephrons to the blood is known as __________

A

tubular reabsorption

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6
Q

Which of the following describe cortical nephrons?

  • Most common type of nephron
  • Located near the junction of the renal cortex and renal medulla
  • Located almost completely within the renal cortex
  • Nephron loops extend deep into the renal medulla
A

Most common type of nephron, located almost completely within the renal cortex

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7
Q

Which of the following is normally present in the glomerular filtrate but not normally present in the urine?

  • Blood cells
  • Proteins
  • Glucose
  • Urea
A

Glucose

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8
Q

Ball shaped knot of capillaries

A

Glomerulus

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9
Q

Cup-shaped hollow structure that forms the outer wall of the renal corpuscle

A

Glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule

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10
Q

Coiled structure that is continuous with the renal corpuscle

A

Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

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11
Q

U-shaped structure that dips toward or into the renal medulla

A

Nephron loop (loop of Henle)

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12
Q

Coiled structure that extends to a collecting duct

A

Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

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13
Q

Which of the following is an organ that differs in males and females both structurally and functionally?

  • Urethra
  • Ureter
  • Urinary bladder
  • Kidney
A

Urethra

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14
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulates tubular reabsorption of __________.

A

water only

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15
Q

What is the most superficial region of the kidney?

A

Renal cortex

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16
Q

Which fluid compartment contains about two-thirds of total body fluid?

A

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

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17
Q

The triangular regions in the medulla of the kidney are called renal __________.

A

pyramids

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18
Q

What are all of the organs of the urinary system?

A

Kidneys, ureters, urethra, urinary bladder

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19
Q

In the process of tubular secretion, substances move from the __________.

A

peritubular capillaries to the renal tubule

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20
Q

What substance produced by the kidneys helps regulate blood pressure?

A

Renin

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21
Q

Physiological acidosis refers to which range of pH values for arterial blood?

A

7.0 to 7.35

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22
Q

Blood leaving an afferent arteriole would directly enter which of the following?

  • Interlobular artery
  • Glomerulus
  • Efferent arteriole
  • Arcuate artery
  • Peritubular capillaries
A

Glomerulus

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23
Q

Location of the kidneys in the body cavity (“behind the peritoneum”)

A

Retroperitoneal

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24
Q

This membrane encloses and protects the kidney.

A

Fibrous capsule

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25
Q

The kidney has an outer layer called the ___________,

A

cortex

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26
Q

The kidney has an inner layer (with pyramids) called the _____.

A

medulla

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27
Q

These two structures transport urine within the body (from the kidneys to the bladder)

A

Ureters

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28
Q

The process of micturition involves the emptying of this organ.

A

Bladder

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29
Q

These are the urine-forming microstructures of the kidneys

A

Nephrons

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30
Q

The __________ branch off the aorta and deliver blood to the kidneys

A

renal arteries

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31
Q

This central structure within the kidney collects urine to be transported out of the kidney by the ureters.

A

Renal pelvis

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32
Q

What type of epithelium lines the bladder?

A

Transitional

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33
Q

List the 3 processes of urine formation

A
  1. Glomerular filtration
  2. Tubular reabsorption
  3. Tubular secretion
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34
Q

List the parts of the nephron tube in order from the glomerular capillaries/capsule to the collecting duct.

A
  1. Glomerular capillaries
  2. Renal corpuscle
  3. Proximal tubule
  4. Loop of Henle
  5. Distal tubule
  6. Collecting duct
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35
Q

List 2 substances that are not normally found in urine and what pathology the presence of each might indicate.

A

Proteins and red blood cells are not normally found in urine. Their presence would indicate issues with the kidneys like kidney disease.

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36
Q

What hormone is released by the posterior pituitary when we are dehydrated? What is the target/effect of this hormone?

A

ADH; it prevents excessive water loss in the urine. Its main target is the kidney collecting ducts, which it causes/stimulates the duct cells to reabsorb more water.

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37
Q

What substances are quickly and abundantly reabsorbed by the PCT (list 4 here)?

A
  1. Glucose
  2. Amino acids
  3. Water
  4. Ions
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38
Q

How is the respiratory system related to the CVS?

A

Both are responsible for supplying the body with oxygen and disposing of carbon dioxide

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39
Q

What is/are the function(s) of the respiratory system?

A
  • Provides oxygen to the body
  • Disposes of carbon dioxide
  • Helps regulate blood pH
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40
Q

What are the pleural membranes associated with the lungs?

A
  • Pulmonary/visceral pleura: cover the surface of each lung
  • Parietal pleura: covers the cavity in which each lung resides
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41
Q

Describe the location of the respiratory organs

A
  • Nose: externally visible
  • Pharynx: posterior region of the throat
  • Larynx: located inferior to the pharynx
  • Trachea: inferior to larynx, between larynx and bronchi
  • Bronchi and their smaller branches:
  • Lungs: occupy entire thoracic cavity except for the mediastinum (where the heart is)
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42
Q

What are the structures of the URT and their functions?

A
  • Nose: allows for inhalation
  • Pharynx: serves as a common passageway for air and food
  • Larynx: routes air and food into the proper channels and plays a role in speech
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43
Q

What are the structures of the LRT and their functions?

A
  • Trachea: main function is to carry air in and out of the lungs, connects larynx and bronchi
  • Bronchi: carry air to and from lungs, moisturize and filter air
  • Lungs: organs of the respiratory system responsible for air exchange with the outside and gas exchange with the blood
  • Alveoli: air sac in the lung, where oxygen is delivered to blood
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44
Q

Trace the air through the respiratory conducting passageways

A

Air enters the superior portion, the nasopharynx, from the nasal cavity and then descends through the oropharynx and laryngopharynx to enter the larynx below.

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45
Q

Describe the protective structures of the respiratory tract

A
  • Hairs and mucus in the nasal cavity trap foreign particles and bacteria
  • Alveolar macrophage
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46
Q

What are the cell types making up the alveoli and their functions (as well as the function of surfactant)?

A
  • Simple squamous epithelial cells
  • Allows for simple diffusion of gas from alveolar air into capillary blood, and CO2 leaves the blood and enters the alveoli
  • There are also cuboidal surfactant secreting cells which produce a lipid (fat) molecule called surfactant, which coats the gas-exposed alveolar surfaces and is very important in lung function
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47
Q

Describe the structure of the respiratory membrane and the flow of gasses across the membrane

A
  • The respiratory membrane is composed of squamous epithelial cells of the alveoli, the capillary endothelium, and the scant basement membranes between
  • Oxygen diffuses from the alveolar air across this membrane into the pulmonary capillary blood; carbon dioxide diffuses from the pulmonary blood into the alveolus
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48
Q

Describe the processes of inspiration and expiration and how volume changes lead to pressure changes and gas flow

A
  • Volume changes lead to pressure changes, which lead to the flow of gases to equalize the pressure
  • Inspiration: when the inspiratory muscles, the diaphragm and external intercostals, contract, the size (volume) of the thoracic cavity increases. As the dome-shaped diaphragm contracts inferiorly, the superior-inferior dimension (height) of the thoracic cavity increases
  • Expiration: As the inspiratory muscles relax and resume their initial resting length, the rib cage descends, the diaphragm relaxes superiorly, and the lungs recoil. Thus, both the thoracic and intrapulmonary volumes decrease. As the intrapulmonary volume decreases, the gases inside the lungs are forced more closely together, and the intrapulmonary pressure rises to a point higher than atmospheric pressure
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49
Q

Explain what drives the movement of respiratory gases in the appropriate direction

A

Movement of gas obeys the law of diffusion: movement towards the area of lower concentration of the diffusing substance

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50
Q

Describe the pressure differences of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs and at the tissues and how/where the gases diffuse at each location

A
  • The partial pressure of oxygen is high in the alveoli and low in the blood of the pulmonary capillaries. As a result, oxygen diffuses across the respiratory membrane from the alveoli into the blood.
  • In contrast, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is high in the pulmonary capillaries and low in the alveoli.
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51
Q

Describe the ways that both oxygen and carbon dioxide gas are transported throughout the body

A
  • Oxygen is carried both physically dissolved in the blood and chemically combined to hemoglobin
  • Carbon dioxide is carried physically dissolved in the blood, chemically combined to blood proteins as carbamino compounds, and as bicarbonate
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52
Q

Why is CO (carbon monoxide) so dangerous?

A

It competes with oxygen for hemoglobin binding

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53
Q

How do the following neural controls function to control respiration: VRG, DRG, pontine center
o Where are each of the above located?

A
  • VRG: (medulla) contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons that alternately send impulses to control the rhythm of breathing. The inspiratory neurons stimulate the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles via the phrenic and intercostal nerves, respectively, during quiet breathing. Impulses from the expiratory neurons stop the stimulation of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles, allowing passive exhalation to occur. Impulses from the VRG maintain a normal quiet breathing rate of 12 to 15 respirations/minute, a rate called eupnea
  • DRG: (medulla) integrates sensory information from chemoreceptors and peripheral stretch receptors. The DRG communicates this information to the VRG to help modify breathing rhythms
  • Pontine center: (pons) also communicate with the VRG, help to smooth the transitions (modify timing) between inhalation and exhalation during activities such as singing, sleeping or exercising
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54
Q

Name and describe the 6 functions of the digestive system as it disassembles food into nutrients

A
  1. Ingest food
  2. Chewing
  3. Churning, mixing, transport
  4. Digestion (enzymatic)
  5. Absorption of nutrients
  6. Defecation
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55
Q

Name the parts of the GIT from oral cavity to anal canal

A
  • Mouth (oral cavity)
  • Pharynx
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small intestine
  • Large intestine
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56
Q

Name the accessory organs of digestion

A
  • Tongue
  • Salivary glands
  • Pancreas
  • Spleen
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Appendix
  • Anal canal
  • Anus
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57
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands? Where are each located?

A
  • Parotid gland: in front of the ear
  • Sublingual gland: beneath the tongue
  • Submandibular gland: beneath the mandible
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58
Q

Describe the composition and function of saliva

A
  • Mostly water but also has mucous and enzymes
  • Salivary amylase (starch digesting enzyme)
  • Lysozymes
  • Lubricates food
  • Dissolves food chemicals
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59
Q

Define mastication

A
  • The process by which food is crushed and ground by the teeth
  • It is the first step in the process of digestion, allowing a greater surface area for digestive enzymes to break down the foods
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60
Q

How do the following function in mastication: teeth, tongue, saliva, hard palate?

A
  • Teeth: chewing
  • Tongue: helps to position food
  • Saliva: help to get the food ready for digestion
  • Hard palate: helps in mechanical breakdown
61
Q

Where are the uvula and epiglottis located? Describe their functions

A
  • Uvula: closes off nasopharynx when swallowing, located at the back of the soft palate/throat
  • Epiglottis: closes off the trachea when swallowing, in the throat behind the tongue and in front of the larynx
62
Q

Contrast the hard and soft palate

A
  • Hard palate: roof of mouth formed by the fusion of the two maxillae bones, anterior roof
  • Soft palate: portion of the roof of the mouth that is not supported by bone, posterior roof
63
Q

Name the 3 divisions of the pharynx

A
  • Nasopharynx: part of the respiratory passageway
  • Oropharynx: posterior to the oral cavity
  • Laryngopharynx: continuous with the esophagus inferiorly
64
Q

What is the role of the esophagus?

A

Conducts food to stomach

65
Q

What serous membranes support and protect the abdominopelvic organs?

A
  • Parietal peritoneum: lines the cavity itself
  • Visceral peritoneum: covers all of the organs inside
66
Q

Know the histology of the GIT wall (including the details of each tissue type)

A
67
Q

What and where are the 2 mesenteries (extensions of the peritoneal membrane)?

A
  • Greater omentum
  • Lesser omentum
68
Q

Describe the parts of the stomach covered in lecture (include pyloric sphincter here); how do rugae function?

A
69
Q

What is a bolus?

A

A moistened ball of food

70
Q

What is chyme?

A

The semifluid stomach contents consisting of partially digested food and gastric secretions

71
Q

What type of tissue lines the stomach?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

72
Q

How many layers of smooth muscle are part of the stomach wall?

A

3

73
Q

Name the 4 gastric pit cell types discussed in lecture and what each of these cells secretes and the function of these secretions

A
  1. Mucous neck cells
    a. Make thin, acidic mucous
  2. Parietal cells
    a. Make HCl and intrinsic factor
  3. Chief cells
    a. Make pepsinogen
  4. Enteroendocrine cells/G cells
    a. Gastrin (hormone)
74
Q

Identify the ducts associated with the liver, gall bladder and pancreas

A
75
Q

What part of the GIT do the gall bladder and pancreas release their secretions into?

A
76
Q

Contrast mechanical breakdown and chemical (enzymatic) digestion.

A

The mechanical breakdown within the oral cavity is the chewing/physical breakdown of food into smaller pieces/larger surface area. The teeth, hard palate and the tongue are primarily responsible for the mechanical breakdown within the oral cavity. The chemical (enzymatic) digestion of food within the oral cavity includes salivary glands, saliva and salivary enzymes. Salivary enzymes take advantage of the increased surface area, which allows them to break down/dissolve the food better.

77
Q

Describe the modifications of the small intestines that increase its absorptive surface area.

A
  • The mucous membrane of the small intestine is folded circularly, increasing surface area
  • Villi within the folds increase the absorptive surface area
  • Microvilli (brush border), modifications of the plasma membrane, increase absorptive surface area
78
Q

What are the 3 parts of the small intestines?

A

The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

79
Q

Identify the parts of the large intestines; include the cecum and appendix here too.

A

The cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal

80
Q

Describe the regulation of the pancreatic secretions and bile

A
81
Q

Explain the absorption of nutrients broken down from carbohydrates, lipids and proteins

A
82
Q

Briefly state the functions of the urinary system

A
  • Removes waste from your blood, in the form of urine
  • It also helps regulate your blood volume and pressure and controls the level of chemicals and salts (electrolytes) in your body’s cells and blood
83
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A

Retroperitoneal, behind the peritoneum

84
Q

What does retroperitoneal mean?

A

Behind the peritoneum

85
Q

Identify the parts of the urinary tract

A
86
Q

Define/describe fibrous capsule

A
87
Q

Define/describe perirenal fat capsule

A
88
Q

Define/describe renal fascia

A
89
Q

What blood vessels deliver blood to and drain the kidneys?

A
90
Q

What are all of the parts of the kidney (longitudinal section)?

A
91
Q

Trace urine from its formation within the nephrons (located within the medullary pyramids) to the ureters

A
92
Q

What are the parts of the nephron. How do the nephrons function?

A
93
Q

Contrast cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons

A
94
Q

What is the relationship between the glomerular capillaries and the glomerular capsule?

A
95
Q

State and describe the details of each of the 3 stages/processes of urine formation (and where in the nephron each occurs)

A
96
Q

What makes up urine? List its normal characteristics; what constituents in urine would be considered abnormal?

A
97
Q

Define micturition

A
98
Q

Describe the structure of the bladder, including the tissue lining the bladder

A
99
Q

Contrast the structure/function of the internal and external urethral sphincters

A
100
Q

Distinguish among the fluid compartments of the body

A
101
Q

Describe the thirst mechanism (stimulus, what parts of the body respond and the result)

A
102
Q

When is ADH produced (and from where), what is its target cell, and what is the result of ADH acting on its target cells?

A
103
Q

What organ produces aldosterone and what are its effects?

A
104
Q

Describe the various controls over systemic blood pressure (flow chart)

A
105
Q

What is the set range of arterial blood pH?

A
106
Q

Briefly contrast how buffer system, respiratory mechanisms and renal mechanisms accomplish acid and base balance

A
107
Q

Contrast haploid and diploid; what are the haploid and diploid chromosome numbers in humans?

A

Diploid = 2n
^ 46 chromosomes
^ A cell with 2 complete sets of chromosomes (one from mom, one from dad)

Haploid = n
^ 23 pair
^ Gametes
^ A cell with 1 complete set of chromosomes (cell results from meiosis)

108
Q

Contrast mitosis and meiosis (general processes, end results)

A

Mitosis is the cell division process that maintains the chromosome number
^ Cell division process used by somatic (body) cells (growth, tissue/cell replacement, wound healing)
^ One cell divides into two cells, but those two cells are identical (diploid)

Meiosis
^ Cell division process used to create gametes (sperm and egg)
^ Produce specifically gametes
^ Reduces chromosome numbers by half
^ Haploid, single n

109
Q

What is the male gonad? Gamete?

A
  • Gonad: testes
  • Gamete: sperm
110
Q

What is the female gonad? Gamete?

A
  • Gonad: ovaries
  • Gametes: ova (eggs)
111
Q

Where do spermatogenesis and oogenesis occur? What do each of these processes produce?

A
112
Q

How does the timing of spermatogenesis differ from the timing of oogenesis in females?

A
113
Q

Explain why meiosis is necessary before fertilization (include haploid/diploid in your response)

A

In order for fertilization to occur, both the male and female gametes must be haploid in order to be compatible with one another. If the gametes did not undergo meiosis prior to fertilization, the chromosome number would not be reduced, resulting in a human zygote that is 4n (twice the normal number of chromosomes!), which would not result in a viable embryo.

114
Q

Know the parts of the testes (structure, function) and male reproductive duct system

A
115
Q

Contrast the seminal vesicles and prostate gland in terms of amounts of the seminal fluid produced and how each secretion supports the sperm

A

The seminal vesicles make 60% of the semen as well as things that nourish the sperm (fructose, vitamin c, prostaglandins). The prostate makes the remainder of the semen/seminal fluids as well as a sperm activating substance.

116
Q

How do the bulbourethral glands function? When is their secretion produced?

A

This gland neutralizes the acidity of the urethra before ejaculation

117
Q

Describe the structure of a sperm cell; provide the function of the acrosome, flagellum and mitochondria

A
118
Q

What do FSH and LH stimulate in males? What is the role of testosterone?

A
  • FSH: spermatogenesis
  • LH: release of testosterone from interstitial cells
  • Testosterone: spermatogenesis, secondary sex characteristics
119
Q

Describe the stages of an ovarian follicle – what do follicle/granulosa cells produce? What do corpus luteum cells produce?

A

Primary follicle
^ Follicle growth, estrogen production
^ Oocyte meiosis

Vesicular (Graafian) follicle
^ Ovulation

Corpus luteum
^ Progesterone production

Follicle cells produce estrogen

Luteum cells produce progesterone
^ Maintain lining of uterus (endometrium) just in case the secondary oocyte becomes fertilized

120
Q

List/describe the parts of the female reproductive duct system

A
  • Ovary
  • Uterine/fallopian tube
  • Ampulla is the most likely place for fertilization to occur
121
Q

Explain how the ovulated egg is drawn into the uterine tube

A

Fimbriae create current

122
Q

Contrast vagina, cervix and uterus

A
  • Vagina:
  • Cervix: the opening to the uterus, must dilate to 10 cm during labor
  • Uterus: where the fetus develops, the womb
123
Q

Describe the layers of the wall of the uterus (location/function)

A
124
Q

What do FSH and LH stimulate in females? What are the roles of estrogen and progesterone?

A

FSH: levels rise at the beginning of the menstrual cycle, govern follicle development, small increase with ovulation

LH: see a surge of LH mid cycle (day 14), occurring with ovulation/triggers ovulation

Estrogen: produced by follicle cells, establish menstrual cycle, is responsible for female sex characteristics

Progesterone: comes from corpus luteum, maintains endometrium

125
Q

What occurs during ovulation and what happens to the remaining follicle cells?

A
126
Q

Briefly describe the fluctuations in hormones and changes that occur in the uterine cycle

A
  • Only active in females once reproduction has taken place
  • Lobes and lobules radiate outward within the mammary gland
    -Lobules/lobes
127
Q

Describe the anatomy of the mammary gland

A
128
Q

Define pregnancy

A

the period from conception to birth

129
Q

Define conceptus

A

a pregnant woman’s developing offspring

130
Q

Define gestation period

A

when development occurs (280 days, extends from the last menstrual period until birth)

131
Q

Define embryo

A

an organism in its early stages of development; in humans, the first 2 months after conception

132
Q

Define fetus

A

the unborn young; in humans, the period from the third month of development until birth

133
Q

Describe what occurs during fertilization; how many sperm are needed and for what; the time of viability for each and how sperm find the ovum and what occurs during the acrosomal reaction; what is the result of fertilization?

A
  • Sperm must reach the ovulated secondary oocyte
  • Oocyte is viable for 12-24 hours after ovulation
  • Sexual intercourse must occur no more than 2 days before ovulation and no later than 24 hours after
  • Sperm are attracted to the oocyte by chemicals that act as “homing devices”
  • Takes 1-2 hours for sperm to complete the journey up the female duct system into the uterine tubes
  • Acrosomal reaction: process whereby the membranes surrounding the acrosomes break down to release enzymes that will digest through the oocyte membrane
  • Once a single sperm has penetrated the oocyte, the oocyte nucleus completes the second meiotic division, forming the ovum and a polar body
  • Zygote forms
134
Q

Define and describe the cleavage stages of development

A
135
Q

What stage implants and where?

A

Late blastocyst stage, into the endometrium

136
Q

Where is the usual location of fertilization?

A

Fallopian tube

137
Q

What cells produce hCG and how does this hormone function?

A
  • Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone produced primarily by syncytiotrophoblastic cells of the placenta during pregnancy
  • The hormone stimulates the corpus luteum to produce progesterone to maintain the pregnancy
138
Q

Contrast the trophoblast cells and the inner cell mass

A
  • The surface cells become the trophoblast (and give rise to extraembryonic structures, including the placenta)
  • The inner cell mass gives rise to the embryo
139
Q

What occurs during gastrulation; what tissues are derived from each of the 3 germ layers?

A
140
Q

Describe the structure/function of the amnion

A

The amnion contains a thin, transparent fluid in which the embryo is suspended, thus providing a cushion against mechanical injury. The amnion also provides protection against fluid loss from the embryo itself and against tissue adhesions

141
Q

Describe the structure/function of the chorionic villi

A

The chorionic villi form part of the placenta to allow the exchange of gases and nutrients between the fetal and maternal bloodstream

142
Q

Describe the structure/function of the placenta

A

Its principal function is to supply the fetus, and in particular, the fetal brain, with oxygen and nutrients

143
Q

Describe the structure/function of the umbilical cord

A
  • This structure allows for the transfer of oxygen and nutrients from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation while simultaneously removing waste products from fetal circulation to be eliminated maternally
  • A helical and tubular blood conduit
144
Q

Contrast the embryonic and fetal periods of development

A

Embryonic: all about the formation of important systems of the body. Think of it as your baby’s basic foundation and framework

Fetal: the major activities are growth and organ specialization, accompanied by changes in body proportions

145
Q

What are the 3 functions of the placenta?

A
  • Provides oxygen and nutrients
  • Removes harmful waste and carbon dioxide
  • Produces hormones that help the baby grow
146
Q

Describe the changes in the mother that occur during the course of her pregnancy

A
  • The ribs flare, causing the thorax to widen
  • Accentuated lumbar curvature (lordosis), often accompanied by backaches
  • Placental production of the hormone relaxin causes pelvic ligaments and the pubic symphysis to relax, widen, and become more flexible. This increases the width of the birth canal to ease birth passage, but it may also result in a waddling gait during pregnancy
  • Many women suffer nausea and heart burn
  • More urine is produced during pregnancy
  • The nasal mucosa responds to estrogens by becoming swollen and congested
  • Total blood volume increases by 25 to 40 percent to accommodate the additional needs of the fetus
  • Blood pressure and pulse typically rise and increase cardiac output by 20 to 40 percent
  • Swollen legs and feet
147
Q

How is labor initiated? Describe the role of oxytocin and positive feedback in labor

A
  • Oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary gland
  • The combined effects of rising levels of oxytocin and prostaglandins initiate the rhythmic, expulsive contractions of true labor
  • Once the hypothalamus is involved, a positive feedback mechanism is propelled into action: stronger contractions cause the release of more oxytocin, which causes even more vigorous contractions, forcing the baby ever deeper into the mother’s pelvis
148
Q

Name and describe the 3 stages of labor

A
  1. Dilation (of cervix): the time from the appearance of true contractions until the cervix is fully dilated by the baby’s head (about 10 cm in diameter)
  2. Expulsion (delivery of infant): the period from full dilation to delivery of the infant. In this stage, the infant passes through the cervix and vagina to the outside of the body
  3. Placental (delivery of placenta): the delivery of the placenta, is usually accomplished within 15 minutes after birth of the infant. The strong uterine contractions that continue after birth compress uterine blood vessels, limit bleeding, and cause the placenta to detach from the uterine wall. The placenta and its attached fetal membranes, collectively called the afterbirth, are then easily removed by a slight tug on the umbilical cord. All placental fragments must be removed to prevent continued uterine bleeding after birth

Human Biology (5 decks)

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