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Final Exam Flashcards

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Sports Trivia flashcards
1
Q

What are the traditional work settings for athletic trainers?

A

High school, College, professional team

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2
Q

What is strength?

A

Ability to generate force (how much weight you can move)

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3
Q

What are the non traditional work settings for athletic trainers?

A

Hospital/clinic, industrial/occupational, military, performing arts, physician extender, public safety, non traditional sports

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4
Q

What is power?

A

relationship between strength and time (how fast you can move heavy things)

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5
Q

What is endurance?

A

Repetitive muscular movement (how many times you can move a lighter thing)

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6
Q

What are isometrics? And some examples

A

Constant muscle length (stability)

Examples: Plank, Lunges, Squat hold

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7
Q

What is isotonic? And some examples

A

it includes an eccentric and concentric contraction

Examples: Hiking, running

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8
Q

What is eccentric contractions? And some examples

A

lengthening of the muscle

Examples: Lowering into a squat, or lowering into a bench press

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9
Q

What are slow twitch fibers used for? and what type are they?

A

(endurance) type 1

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10
Q

What is concentric contractions? And some examples

A

Shortening of the muscle

Examples: Pushing up in a bench press, Pushing up in a push up

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11
Q

What are fast twitch fibers used for? and what type are they?

A

(sprints) type 2

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12
Q

What is agonists?

A
  • Muscle causing joint movement
  • Biceps (elbow flexion)
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13
Q

What are antagonists?

A
  • Muscle opposing the joint movement
    Triceps (relax leads to flexion)
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14
Q

What is the overload principle?

A
  • The goal = hypertrophy
    • Muscle responds to stress
    • Gradually intensity (strength overtime)
      Get a 10% increase
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14
Q

What is periodization?

A
  • Traditional seasons no longer exist
    • Goal = achieve peak performance
      This lowers injuries and overtraining
  • they play multiple sports
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15
Q

What is cross training?

A

Training with alternative activities

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16
Q

How long is transition phase in sports and when does it happen?

A
  • 1-4 weeks
    • This happens right after the last competition
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17
Q

What is the definition of flexibility?

A

Ability to move a joint through full ROM

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17
Q

What is PNF stretching?

A

Contracting and releasing the muscle for stretching. It uses agonist and antagonist

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18
Q

Why are proteins, carbs, and fats an important macronutrient?

A

Proteins: It repairs and adapts the muscles

Carbs: They are the main source of energy, help replace depleted glycogen levels,

Fats: are energy, increases flavor in food, slows down digestion of nutrients

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19
Q

What are the best electrolytes to drink after exercise?

A

Sodium, Chloride, Potassium

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20
Q

Why is eating recovery protein important? And what nutrient is best to be paired with is?

A

it repairs the muscle and is best paired with carbs

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21
Q

How much grams of protein do you need for your body weight?

A

1.2-2.0 grams

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22
Q

What percentage of calories need to be carbs?

A

60-70%

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23
Q

What percentage of calories need to be fat?

A

20-35%

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24
Q

What are the benefits of post- game nutrition?

A

Maximizes recovery of your body, like muscles, ligaments all of that.

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25
Q

What are the benefits of during-game nutrition?

A

It rapidly replaces depleted glycogen levels, keeps your hydration levels up as well

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26
Q

What are the benefits of pre-game nutrition?

A

It prevents hypoglycemia, settles the stomach, and fuels muscles

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27
Q

How can EHI be prevented?

A

Identify “at risk” individuals, where loos wicking clothing, do heat acclimatization to sports equipment (put it on little by little), never use rubberized suits

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28
Q

What are the causes of stress fractures?

A

You made a change too soon. essentially it is
- Abnormal stress on a normal bone
- And normal stress on abnormal bone
- abnormal muscle contractions
- repetitive stress

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29
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

When an injury causes a tendon or bone breaks off a small piece of bone that it’s attached to

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30
Q

What is the definition of a bursa?

A

A fluid filled sac surrounding joints

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31
Q

What is the definition of a muscle?

A

A body tissue that constricts and does motion

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32
Q

What is the definition of bone?

A

A hard, dense, calcified tissue

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33
Q

What is the definition of Cartilage?

A

Tough flexible tissue that lines the joints and gives structure to noes, ear, pharynx

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34
Q

What is the definition of ligaments?

A

Bands of tissue that provide support to a joint. They connect bone to bone

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35
Q

Compare and contrast the course of healing in cartilage, ligaments, muscle

A

Cartilage- Cannot heal well due to the lack of blood supply (the stages)
Ligaments- heal the same way as regular tissue
Muscle- bleeding occurs, then edema forms (inflammation), then it begins to heal immediately (the stages)

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35
Q

How do these things in the body heal?

Ligament
Cartilage
Muscle

A

Cartilage
- Limited capacity to heal due to little to no blood supply

Ligament
- Similar to other vascular tissue

Muscle
- Bleeding, edema and immediately begins healing

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36
Q

What are examples of contractile and non-contractile tissues?

A

Contractile: Muscles, and Tendons

Non-contractile: Bone, joints, cartilage, Ligaments, Bursa

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37
Q

What does osis mean?

A

Without inflammation

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37
Q

What does itis mean?

A

Inflammation

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38
Q

What does synovitis mean?

A

inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon

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39
Q

What is the difference between tendinosis, tendinitis, and tenosynovitis?

A

Tendinosis- degeneration of tendon

Tendinitis- inflammation of a tendon

tenosynovitis- inflammation of the sheath surrounding a tendon

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40
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A
  1. Heat
    2, Redness
  2. Swelling
  3. Pain
  4. loss of function
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41
Q

What is the order of the acute inflammatory response? (how it heals) (6 steps)

A
  1. Injury to cell
  2. Chemical mediators liberated (histamine, leukotrienes)
  3. Vascular reaction (vasoconstriction, Vasodilation, Exudate creates stasis)
  4. Platelets and leukocytes adhere to vascular wall
  5. Phagocytosis
  6. Clot formation
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42
Q

How do you check if someone is conscious or not conscious? (adult vs infant)

A

Adult you ask if they are okay or tap their shoulder.

For infant you tickle their foot

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43
Q

What is the primary survey

A

It is where you check the parsons level of consciousness, ABCs, severe bleeding, and shock

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44
Q

Define the ABC assessment

A

ABCs
- State of cardio-respiratory system
- Airway must be open
- Look for chest rising
- Listen for breathing sounds
- Feel for breath on cheek
- Feel for carotid pulse
- LOOK LISTEN FEEL
Take out thing in throat if you can

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45
Q

If someone is unconscious what injury should be assumed?

A

Cervical spine injury

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46
Q

How do you know if the bleeding is - Venous, Capillary, and Arterial?

A
  • Venous (dark red continuous flow)
    • Capillary (reddish seeps from tissue)
  • Arterial (bright red, flows in spurts)
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47
Q

What happens when you are in shock?

A

Decreased blood to circulatory system (decreases oxygen through the body)

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47
Q

What is valgus?

A

Is medial stress

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48
Q

What is varus?

A

It is lateral stress

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49
Q

What are the sunshine ligaments of the ankle? (the lateral side) (3)

A
  1. Anterior talofibular ligament
  2. Posterior talofibular ligament
  3. Calcaneofibular ligament
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50
Q

What type of ROM does the ankle joint can do?

A
  • dorsiflexion
  • Plantarflexion
  • inversion
    -Eversion
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50
Q

What are the deltoid (medial) ligaments of ankle? (medial side) (4)

A
  1. posterior tibiofibular ligament
  2. Tibiocalcaneal ligament
  3. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
  4. Tibionavicular ligament
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51
Q

What type of ROM does the foot do?

A

-inversion
- eversion
- supination
- pronation
- dorsiflexion
- plantarflexion

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52
Q

What type of ROM does the toes do?

A
  • Flexion
  • extension
  • abduction
  • adduction
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53
Q

What causes a talus fracture?

A

Severe inversion/dorsiflexion of the foot.

Or inversion/plantarflexion with tibial external rotation

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54
Q

What causes a calcaneus fracture?

A

Fall or jump from height

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55
Q

What is a jones fracture? And what is the cause?

A

A fracture of the metatarsal bones.

Caused by inversion, plantar flexion, direct force, or repetitive trauma.

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56
Q

What is Retrocalcaneal bursitis (pump bump)?

A

Inflammation of bursal beneath achilles tendon

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57
Q

What is Tarsal tunnel syndrome? What does it cause?

A

Any condition that effects the tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum, tibial nerve, tibial artery, tibial vein.

It causes pain and paresthesia

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58
Q

What is morton’s toe? What can it cause?

A

Abnormal short 1st metatarsal bone.

It can cause a stress fracture to develop

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59
Q

What is the cause of toe sprains?

A

By kicking non yielding objects

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59
Q

What is plantar fasciitis?

A

It is increased tension and stress on fascia (bottom of foot)

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60
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of plantar fasciitis?

A

Pain in anterior medial heel, along medial arch, increased pain in morning, looses after a few steps

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61
Q

What are phalangeal factures caused by?

A

Stubbing toe, being stepped on, kicking non yielding objects

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62
Q

What are great toe hyperextension? And the cause?

A

It causes hyperextension leading to 1st metatarsophalangeal sprain.

Also known as turf toe

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63
Q

What causes hammer toe?

A

Flexion contracture in PIP joint

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64
Q

What causes mallet toe?

A

Flexion contracture of DIP joint

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65
Q

What causes claw toe?

A

Flexion contracture of DIP joint

Hyperextension at MP joint

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66
Q

What are the causes of subungual hematoma?

A

Direct pressure on toenail, dropping object on toe, kicking another object

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67
Q

What are the causes of lateral ankle sprains?

A

forced inversion, and plantar flexion

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68
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of lateral ankle sprains?

A

Depends on degree of sprains

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69
Q

Which ankle sprain is more common. Lateral or medial?

A

Lateral

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70
Q

What are the causes of medial ankle sprains? And complications

A

Eversion force

Complications: ligament impingement, may cause fibular fracture

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71
Q

What is the cause of the syndesmotic ankle sprain?

A

Forced eversion and dorsiflexion

or forced plantarflexion and inversion

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72
Q

What is a syndesmotic ankle sprain?

A

Where it tears the tibiofibular syndesmosis and the anterior/ posterior tibiofibular ligaments

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73
Q

What are sign and symptoms of tibia fibula fractures?

A
  • pain
  • swelling
  • discoloration
  • deformity
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74
Q

What are the causes of medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)?

A
  • Repetitive micro trauma
  • weak/tight muscles
  • improper footwear
  • training errors
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74
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of stress fractures?

A
  • Pain with activity
  • point tenderness
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75
Q

What are the sign and symptoms of medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints)?

A

Diffuse pain

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76
Q

What are the causes of compartment syndrome?

A

Injury or excessive exercise.

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77
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A
  • deep aching pain
  • tightness excessive swelling
  • weakness with foot and toe extension
  • shiny skin
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78
Q

What are the causes of achilles tendonitits?

A

Tendon overload
- heel-cord tightness

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79
Q

What are the sign and symptoms of achilles tendonitits?

A

Generalized pain and stiffness, may become thickened

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80
Q

What are the causes of achilles tendon rupture?

A

Sudden stop and go
- forceful plantar flexion with knee in full extension

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81
Q

What type of ROM does the knee do?

A
  • flexion
  • extension
  • internal rotation
  • external rotation
  • extensor mechanism
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81
Q

Signs and symptoms of achilles tendon rupture

A
  • Gun shot
  • sudden snap
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82
Q

What are the causes and sign and symptoms of MCL sprain?

A

Causes: Valgus force (outside of knee)

Signs and symptoms: Pain along medial aspect, instability, edema, possible lateral meniscus injury

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83
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms for a LCL sprain?

A

Causes: varus force

Signs and symptoms: Pain and swelling over LCL

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84
Q

What are the causes and sign and symptoms of a PCL sprain?

A

Causes: Fall on bent knee or dashboard injury or tibial external rotation

Signs and symptoms: feel a pop in popliteal area, tenderness, mild swelling

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84
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of a meniscus tear?

A

Causes: Rotation while weight bearing (torsional and valgus or varus forces

Signs and symptoms: Edema, joint line pain, loss of motion, pain with squatting

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84
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of a ACL sprain?

A

Causes: Deceleration with foot planted (valgus force + tibial internal rotation)

Signs and symptoms: Hear a pop, instability, pain in knee

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85
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Plica?

A

Causes: Twisting knee with foot fixed, sitting for long periods of time

Signs and symptoms: Pain with stairs, pseudo-locking

86
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of bursitis?

A

Causes: acute, chronic swelling, continued kneeling, patella tendon overuse

Signs and symptoms: inflammation and swelling

87
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of iliotibial band friction syndrome?

A

Causes: Repeated knee flexion and extension, TIght IT band

Signs and symptoms: inflammation, pain with activity

88
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of patella subluxation/dislocation?

A

Causes: Deceleration with valgus force

Signs and symptoms: pain and swelling, loss of function

89
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of patellar tendonitis?

A

Causes: Repetitive extension

Signs and symptoms: Pain at inferior patella

90
Q

What are the types of ROM the hio can do?

A
  • Flexion
  • extension
  • abduction
  • adduction
  • external/internal rotation
91
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Acute pelvic fracture?

A

Causes: Direct blow to pelvic area or blunt trauma

Signs and symptoms: Severe pain, loss of function

92
Q

What are the causes of avulsion fractures?

A

Causes: Sudden accelerations and decelerations

93
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of acute femoral fractures?

A

Causes: force to the femur bone

Signs and symptoms: Shock, pain, swelling, deformity, loss of function

94
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of femoral stress fractures?

A

Causes: Overuse

Signs and symptoms: persistent pain in thigh and groin

95
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of hip dislocation?

A

Causes: posterior displacement of femoral head, traumatic force along the long axis of femur

Signs and symptoms: deformity, hip will present

96
Q

What are the causes and symptoms of hip labral tears?

A

Causes: usually repetitive overuse

Signs and symptoms: groin pain, clicking, locking or catching, stiffness

97
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of iliac crest contusion?

A

Causes: Direct blow

Signs and symptoms: Pain, spasms, discoloration

97
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of adductor strain?

A

Causes: Running, jumping, twistin with hip external rotation

Signs and symptoms: sudden tearing during movement, pain and adductor weakness

98
Q

What are the causes and symptoms of piriformis syndrome

A

Causes: Piriformis impinges sciatic nerve

Signs and symptoms: Pain, numbness, and tingling in gluteus

99
Q

What are the different throwing phases (in order)? (5)

A
  • windup
  • Cocking
  • acceleration
  • deceleration
  • follow- through
100
Q

What are the types of ROM that the wrist can do?

A
  • supination
  • pronation
  • flexion
  • extension
    -ulnar deviation
  • radial deviation
    -abduction
  • adduction
    -opposition
101
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Colles’ fracture

A

Causes: FOOSH

Signs and symptoms: anterior displacement of radius and ulna, pain, swelling, bleeding

101
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Causes: Compressed median nerve

Signs and symptoms: tingling, numbness, weakness in thumb

102
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of wrist sprain (MOST COMMON)

A

Causes: FOOSH, violent flexion or torsion

Signs and symptoms: pain, swelling, difficulty moving

103
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of interphalangeal joint sprains

A

Causes: Valgus/varus force to collateral ligament, axial force

Signs and symptoms: Pain, swelling, instability

104
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of scaphoid fracture

A

Causes: FOOSH

Signs and symptoms: swelling, severe pain in anatomical snuff box

105
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Hamate fracture

A

Causes: FOOSH

Signs and symptoms: Pain and weakness, ulnar nerve damage

106
Q

What are the causes of mallet finger

A

Causes: extensor tendon avulsion

107
Q

What are the causes of trigger finger

A

Causes: Thickening of tendon sheath

107
Q

What are the causes of claw hand

A

Causes: Ulnar and median nerve damage

108
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of metacarpal dislocations

A

Causes: twisting or shearing force

Signs and symptoms: proximal phalanx angulated

109
Q

What are the causes of metacarpal fractures

A

Causes: Direct axial compressive force

110
Q

What are the causes of swan neck

A

Causes: Volar plate rupture

110
Q

What are the causes of ape hand

A

Causes: Inability to oppose thumb (move it)

111
Q

What are the causes of Boutonniere deformity

A

Causes: Extensor rupture

112
Q

What are the causes of Jersey finger

A

Causes: Flexor digitorum profundus rupture

113
Q

What are the causes of bishops hand

A

Causes: Flexion of 4th and 5th phalanges

114
Q

Which way does the bones dislocate in Colles fracture and smith’s fracture?

A

Smith’s = posterior

Colles’ = anterior

115
Q

What ligaments are on the lateral side of the elbow?

A

Annular ligament and radial collateral ligament

116
Q

What are the types of ROM of the elbow?

A
  • flexion
  • extension
  • pronation
  • supination
117
Q

What ligaments are on the medial side of the elbow?

A

Annular ligament, ulnar collateral ligament

118
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Ulnar collateral ligament sprain

A

Causes: Valgus force, deceleration of throwing

Signs and symptoms: Pain, tenderness, ulnar nerve damage

119
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Olecranon bursitis

A

Causes: Direct blow, chronic pressure

Signs and symptoms: pain, point tenderness, swelling

120
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Ruptured biceps tendon

A

Causes: sudden rapid contraction

Signs and symptoms: Pain, point tenderness, visible deformity

121
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Lateral epicondylitis

A

Causes:Repetitive wrist extension

Signs and symptoms: aching pain, weakness in wrist and hand

122
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Medial epicondylitis

A

Causes: Repetitive wrist flexion, extreme valgus force

Signs and symptoms: Point tenderness, swelling, pain with flexion

123
Q

What are the causes of Little league elbow

A

Causes: Repetitive trauma throwing

124
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Cubital tunnel syndrome

A

Causes: Valgus force, ulnar nerve subluxation

Signs and symptoms: pain, tenderness

125
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Elbow dislocations

A

Causes: FOOSH, severe twist while flexed

Signs and symptoms: swelling, severe pain, deformity, numbness and tingling

126
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of elbow fractures

A

Causes: Fall on flexed elbow, FOOSH
Signs and symptoms: Pain, swelling, discoloration, deformity

127
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of

A

Causes:

Signs and symptoms:

128
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of

A

Causes:

Signs and symptoms:

129
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of clavicle fractures

A

Causes: FOOSH, direct impact

Signs and symptoms: supporting arm, head tilted towards injured side, chin turned away

130
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Humeral fractures?

A

Causes: FOOSH, direct blow

Signs and symptoms: pain, swelling, possible shock

131
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Sternoclavicular sprain (the grades for signs and symptoms)

A

Causes: Indirect force

Signs and symptoms: GRADE 1: pain and slight disability
GRADE 2: Subluxation with deformity

GRADE 3: dislocation

132
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Acromioclavicular sprain (grades for signs and symptoms)

A

Causes: FOOSH, direct blow

Signs and symptoms: Grades 1-3 refers to damage and Grades 4-6 refers to displacement

133
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Glenohumeral dislocations

A

Causes: Humeral head forced out of glenoid fossa, anterior dislocation most common

Signs and symptoms: flattened deltoid, humeral head in armpit

134
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Impingement syndrome

A

Causes: decreased space under coracoacromial arch

Signs and symptoms: diffuse pain, decreased strength

135
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of Rotator cuff tear

A

Causes: High velocity rotation, acute trauma

Signs and symptoms: Pain, weakness, loss of function, swelling

136
Q

What type of mobility and stability does the shoulder complex have?

A

High mobility and low stability

137
Q

What types of ROM does the shoulder have?

A
  • flexion
  • extension
  • adduction
    -abduction
  • internal/medial rotation
  • external/lateral rotation
  • horizontal adduction
  • horizontal abduction
138
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of bicipital tenosynovitis

A

Causes: Repeated stretching of biceps tendon

Signs and symptoms: Pain, tenderness

139
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of skull fracture

A

Causes: Blunt trauma

Signs and symptoms: severe headache, nausea

140
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of concussion

A

Causes: direct blow to the head

Signs and symptoms dizziness, confusion, disorientation, headache, amnesia

141
Q

What are the causes and signs and symptoms of post-concussion syndrome?

A

Causes: By premature return to activity

Signs and symptoms: poor academic performance, fatigue, depression, impaired memory

141
Q

What is the difference between epidural hematoma and subdural hematoma?

A

Epidural hematoma is arterial bleeding

Subdural hematoma: is venous bleeding

142
Q

What is post-concussion syndrome?

A

Prolonged symptoms following a concussion

143
Q

What is the difference between off the shelf and custom equipment and bracing?

A

Off the shelf: premade and packaged by manufacturer, can be used without modifications

Custom: Made specifically for the patient

144
Q

What do football helmets NEED to protect against?

A

Concussive forces

145
Q

What do baseball/softball helmets NEED to protect against?

A

High velocity impacts, thrown or batted balls

145
Q

What do Hockey helmets NEED to protect against?

A

High velocity impacts stick or puck

146
Q

What to lacrosse helmets NEED to protect against?

A

Repeated high velocity blows

147
Q

What is the purpose of bandages?

A

Hold dressing over a wound

147
Q

What do cycling helmets NEED to protect against?

A

Protect against impact and disperse force by breaking apart

148
Q

what is the definition of non- elastic adhesive tape?

A

sticky but does not conform to the body easily

149
Q

What is the definition of adhesive tape?

A

It conforms to the body part really well

150
Q

What objects are used for direct transmission?

A

Contact body surface (touching, sexual intercourse),

Droplet spread (inhalation or air)

Fecal-oral spread (feces on hands then you touch your face)

150
Q

What is the prophylactic vs supportive taping/wrapping?

A

Prophylactic: Is to prevent or reduce the risk of injury (preventing another injury)

Supportive: Is to support the structure and give it more strength

151
Q

What objects are used for indirect transmission?

A

Inanimate object (food, water, towels, clothing, utensils)

Vectors (insects, birds, animals)

Airborne (infected particles in air)

152
Q

What is the incubation stage as one of the stages of infection?

A
  • pathogen enters body to sign and symptoms appear
  • few hours to months
153
Q

What is the prodromal stage as one of the stages of infection?

A
  • watery eyes, runny nose, slight fever
  • host can transfer pathogen to other host
154
Q

What is the acute stage as one of the stages of infection?

A

disease reaches its greatest development

155
Q

What is the decline stage as one of the stages of infection?

A

First signs of recovery
- relapse if patient becomes overextended

156
Q

What is the recovery stage as one of the stages of infection?

A

Where the patient is better and my a build up immunity to the infection

157
Q

What is the Innate response? and what is the goal?

A

It is the EMT/911 call of the body. It does the initial things to try and kill the infection.

The goal is to attract more immune system cells

158
Q

What do macrophages do in the innate response?

A

(Attack foreign stuff from the body, and break down)

159
Q

What do neutrophils do in the innate response?

A

(recognizes the pathogen and releases antimicrobial stuff) (Attack foreign stuff from the body, break down)

160
Q

What do dendritic cells do in the innate response?

A

(engulf the pathogen and present the pathogen)

161
Q

What do phagocytes do in the innate response?

A

Cut stuff

162
Q

What is the adaptive response?

A

It is the hospital and it is where they do the rest of the work and kill off the infection. The body gets acquired immunity in this stage from the memory of antibodies

163
Q

What do B cells do in the adaptive response?

A

(gain memory against that pathogen, so it goes faster in acting)

164
Q

What do T cells do in the adaptive response?

A

(recognize the pathogen that is being presented and tells the Helper and Cytotoxic cells to kill that specific pathogen)

165
Q

What do Helper cells do in the adaptive response?

A

(Break off of T cells) (targets the response, and stimulate the B cells)

165
Q

What do Cytotoxic cells do in the adaptive response?

A

(Break off of T cells) (Kill pathogens)

166
Q

What are the different classifications of therapeutic modalities? (7)

A
  1. Thermotherapy
  2. Cryotherapy
  3. Electrical
  4. Sound
  5. Light
  6. Magnetic
  7. Mechanical
167
Q

What are some indications for thermotherapy and some examples?

A

Indications: Increase collagen extensibility, decrease joint stiffness, reduce pain, increase blood flow

Example: Hydrocollator packs, warm whirlpool

168
Q

What are some indications for Cryotherapy and some examples

A

Indications: Decrease pain, inflammation, protect healthy cells

Example: Ice packs, Ice massage

169
Q

What are some indications for electrical therapy and some examples?

A

Indications: Decrease pain, break muscle spasms, muscle contractions

Example: Electrical STIM, Electromagnetic shortwave diathermy

170
Q

What are some indications for sound therapy and some examples?

A

Indications: Collagen synthesis, promote healing, reduce pain and inflammation

Example: Ultrasounds

171
Q

What are some indications for magnetic therapy and some examples?

A

Indications:

Example:

171
Q

What are some indications for light therapy and some examples?

A

Indications: reduce pain and promote tissue healing, increase collagen extensibility

Example: Low level laser therapy

172
Q

What are some indications for mechanical therapy and some examples?

A

Indications: increase blood flow, relax muscles

Example: Massage, traction

173
Q

What are the initial goals/ considerations in rehab?

A

Swelling and pain control

174
Q

What are the three main goals to rehab?

A
  1. Restore full range of motion
  2. Restore and increase strength, endurance, and power
  3. Re-establish neuromuscular control and balance
175
Q

How do you restore range of motion in rehab?

A

Do dynamic, static, and PNF stretching (improve flexibility)

176
Q

When should isometrics be used in rehab? What is it? and what are the goals?

A
  • be performed in early rehab
  • used when resistance through full ROM could make injury worse
  • increase static strength, and decrease atrophy
177
Q

When should progressive resistance be used in rehab? and how should it be done?

A
  • Mid rehab
  • to maintain proper form to limit injury
178
Q

When should Isokinetic exercises be used in rehab? and What is it used for?

A
  • In the later stages
  • uses fixed speeds with accommodating resistance
179
Q

When should Isokinetic exercises be used in rehab? and What is it used for?

A
  • Later rehab stages
  • produce dynamic movements
180
Q

What is neuromuscular control in rehab? What needs to happen to be successful?

A
  • The minds attempt to teach the body conscious control of a specific movement.
  • It needs to be repetition of the same movement
181
Q

Why is regaining balance essential in rehab? And what does it challenge?

A

Because if failed to do so you can get re injured really easily. It challenges reflexes

182
Q

What region of the body are you strengthening in restore core stability?

A

The lumbar-pelvic region

183
Q

Why is restore core stability so essential? and when should it be done in the rehab process?

A
  • it is critical for dynamic functional strength and movement
  • in the early rehab stages
184
Q

When should you put in cardiorespiratory fitness in the rehab process?

A

Very early on if possible

185
Q
A
186
Q

How do intradermal drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is like a shot, it is quick to effect that specific area and the target organ is in the skin

186
Q

How should you determine when an individual is ready to return back to play?

A
  • when they are fully reconditioned
  • achieved full ROM. strengthe, neuromuscular control, cardiovascular ability
  • mentally prepared
187
Q

What are the three factors of pharmacokinetics and explain them

A

What the body does to the drug: Dose dependent

Bioavailability: Drug dependent

Half-life: Determines dose/interval

187
Q

Who makes the decision for an individual to return back to play?

A

THE WHOLE SPORTS MED TEAM

187
Q

How do inhalation drugs work as an internal administration?

A

The person inhales the drug by aromatics/water vapor/ Oxygen. And the target organ is the respiratory tract

187
Q

How do Intramuscular drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is a shot that goes into the gluteal/deltoid muscles

188
Q

How do Intranasal drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is something that goes in the nose by water vapor/Oxygen/aromatics. And the target organ is the respiratory tract

189
Q

How do IV drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is an IV and the target organ is systemic

190
Q

How do Sublingual/Buccal drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is a drug that dissolves on the tongue or cheek. The target organ is the tongue or cheek

191
Q

How do ointment drugs work as an internal administration?

A

They are water suspended oil + the drug so it can create an occlusive dressing on the skin.

192
Q

How do Pastes drugs work as an internal administration?

A

They are like ointments but with NO OIL OR FAT. It gets absorbed easily. Example is biofreeze

193
Q

How do Plasters drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is counter irritant and the goal is to reduce pain and increase blood flow

194
Q

How do Patches drugs work as an internal administration?

A

It is placed on the skin and the patch slowly releases the drug

195
Q

What are the examples of the external pharmacokinetics?

A
  • inunctions
  • ointments
  • pastes
  • plasters
  • patches
  • solutions
196
Q

What are the different classifications of pharmacodynamics?

A
  • Chemical structure
  • mechanism of action
  • Therapeutic effect
  • legal or not legal
197
Q

What is the difference between generic name and generic drug?

A

Generic name: Not owned by a company

Generic drug: Company owned, when drug patent expires (20 years) other companies can market the drug

198
Q

What is the difference between administration and dispensing?

A

Administration: It is when you are giving someone that drug physically. Like injections, shots, etc.

Dispensing: It is when you are packaging or giving someone their drug like a pharmacy giving someone their pain killers.

199
Q

What is exertional hyponatremia?

A
  • Water intake is greater than the output not having enough sodium in the body
  • Water intoxication
200
Q

What are symptoms of exertional hyponatremia?

A

Fat fingers, delusional, nausea and vomiting

201
Q

How do you manage hyponatremia?

A

Increase sodium intake

202
Q

What is environmental cold injuries?

A

Heat loss is greater than heat production

203
Q

What is frost nip and what is superficial frost bite and deep frostbite?

A

Frostnip (skin appears firm with cold painless areas

Superficial Frostbite (superficial, top skin layers appear pale hard cold and waxy)

Depp frostbite (deep, completely frozen and requires hospitalization)

204
Q

How do you manage exertional heat stroke?

A

Cool the individual first then transport them to the hospital (do a cool water immersion)

205
Q

Does your core temp need to be above 40.5 celsius to be exertional heat stroke?

A

No it isn’t but if it goes about that then it is bad and life threatening

206
Q

What is passive exertional heat stroke?

A

Where the skin is dry

207
Q

What is exertional heat stroke?

A
  • Core temperature rises
    • Central nervous system dysfunctions
    • Severe life threatening medical emergency
      -Heat gain is greater than heat loss
208
Q

What is passive and exertional heat illness?

A
  • Passive- just not moving and getting heat stroke or heat illness (example sitting in a hot car like a crock pot)
    Exertional- moving and exercising getting heat stroke or heat illness
209
Q

What is exertional heat illness?

A

Heat loss is less than heat production. the person cannot thermoregulate

210
Q

What are muscle cramps? ANd how do you manage it?

A

visible involuntary painful contraction

To manage you need to remove the muscle from activity and heat and restrictive clothing, gentle stretch and drink sport drink

211
Q

What is exertional heat exhaustion?

A

Inability to sustain cardiovascular demands of exercise. You remain coherent and core temp increases.

Usually under 40.5 Celsius you are okay

212
Q

How do you manage exertional heat exhaustion?

A
  • Recognize symptoms early
    • Remove or loosen excess clothing
    • Move to cool area
    • Elevate the legs
213
Q

What are the 2 organizations athletic trainers can be involved with?

A

BOC and caATe

Sports Med (3 decks)

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