Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What does a pathogen use to attach to host cells
A
Pili or fimbriae
2
Q
Ocean viruses contribute to carbon cycling by _____ ocean bacteria and algae
A
Lysing
3
Q
Which of the following ‘fix’ carbon and increase biomass
A
A corn field
4
Q
_____ phage genes code for protein that take over host functions. _____ phage genes include structure components of the virus
A
Early, late
5
Q
a community of bacteria which coordinate their activities to colonize a surface is called
A
Biofilm
6
Q
lactose intolerance in humans is due to the lack of an _____ necessary to split a _____
A
Enzyme, disaccharide
7
Q
True or False: vaccination was invented by a British doctor in 18th century London
A
False
8
Q
A streak plate is used to isolate single colonies from a mixture of bacteria. The equivalent technique when working with viruses is called
A
Plaque assay
9
Q
True or false: living genetically modified humans walk the Earth
A
True
10
Q
all of the following are natural polymers except: cellulose, glucose, chitin, glycogen
A
Glucose
11
Q
True or false: most bacteria from environmental samples can be cultured in a lab
A
False
12
Q
sugars are used by living systems for
A
Energy storage & building materials
13
Q
True or false: ATP synthase ‘run backwards’ will consume ATP
A
True
14
Q
True or false: bacteriophage and animal viruses are capable of lysogeny
A
True
15
Q
All life can be sorted into three domains. The best evidence of this comes from
A
rRNA sequence analysis
16
Q
which of the following is an emerging disease in our area: influenza, malaria, lyme
A
No correct answer
17
Q
according to our present understanding, mitochondiral and chloroplasts are of _____ origin
A
Bacterial
18
Q
In bacteria and mitochondria, a concentration of protons builds on one side of a _____. These protons can only travel through a channel in a protein called an _____, which functions as a “turbine” to make _____
A
Membrane, ATPase, ATP
19
Q
You have streaked to single colonies, a sample from a dead animal. The results show several different types of colonies. This result indicated a _____ and does/does not clearly indicate a cause of the animal’s death
A
Mixed population, does not
20
Q
True or false: smallpox has killed hundred of millions of people since the 1900s. Smallpox infections no longer occur due to vaccination
A
True, true
21
Q
True or false: endospore production is a bacterial response to rapid environmental change
A
True
22
Q
recent increases in Whooping cough are due to: anti-vaxxers, weakened vaccine immunity, changes in the bacteria
A
All of the above
23
Q
True or false: enveloped viruses code for their own envelope
A
False
24
Q
Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane, a portion of which is toxic to humans and causes fever. This molecule is made of_____
A
Sugars & lipids
25
True or false: water is a waste product of cellular respiration
True
26
Magnetosomes are _____ structures used by some bacteria to _____
Iron, escape oxygen
27
The Calvin cycle is the process which plants use to _____ and _____
Fix CO2, build biomass
28
Suppose you treat an exponentially growing culture of bacteria with a potential antimicrobial compound. Over the next few hours, cell doubling stops (untreated, control culture continues doubling) but the cells remain metabolically active. This antimicrobial compound is _____
Bacteriostatic
29
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to minimum _____
Amount of a chemical required to kill all the microorganisms
30
Electrons captured from the breaking of glucose in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are carried to the _____ by _____.
Mitochondria, NADH
31
True or false: Persistent HPV infection requires viral integration in superficial/surface epithelia layers
False
32
Analyzing an antibiotic you notice microscopic and viable cell counts of treated cells both drop to zero. What type of antibiotic are you looking at?
Bacteriolytic
33
Hydrothermal vent tube worms harbor _____ bacterial (symbiotes), which in turn obtain _____ from the worms' blood stream
Chemolithotrophic / carbon dioxide
34
Restriction enzymes cut DNA in a _____ manner. They were originally isolated as _____.
Sequence dependent, antiviral proteins
35
One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____
Viruses use host processes to multiply
36
Cellular respiration requires _____ which is used to collect/neutralize _____ in the mitochondria
Oxygen, electrons
37
Human pathogenic bacteria are _____
Mesophiles
38
Transferring electrons between proteins in the mitochondrial membrane is a type of _____
Redox reaction
39
Pathogenic staphylococci can be differentiated by plating on blood agar plates. What allows you to tell them apart?
The extent of hemolysis
40
What protein is made by bacteriophage and humans
Lysozyme
41
Lysogenic bacteria exposed to UV light will _____
Accumulate DNA damage
42
Glycolysis is a series of _____ leading to _____ molecules
Enzymatic reactions, three carbon
43
True or false: Tamiflu prevents influenza virus from binding to host cells
False
44
What microorganisms use light as their energy source
Phototrophs
45
The terms "run" and "tumble" are used to describe _____
Movement of bacteria
46
Pasteurization is now a common procedure to ensure food safety. Pasteur's flasks disproved _____
'Bad' air causes diseases
47
True or false: all viruses isolated so far have double stranded DNA genomes
False
48
Robert Koch is best known for a set of rules he created, now commonly known as Koch's postulates. What is the purpose of Koch's postulates
They help to determine if a particular infectious agent causes a specific disease
49
Three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: light, organic molecules and _____
Inorganic molecules
50
What microorganisms use inorganic compounds like hydrogen sulfide as their energy source
Chemolithotrophs
51
Adding the amino acid Arginine to a bacterial culture _____
Represses the synthesis of the enzymes required for the production of arginine
52
What do Texiobactin and Vancomycin have in common
Both are relatively resistance proof
53
You have added the following to your PCR reaction tube: template DNA, primers, DNA polymerase, reaction buffer. Will the reaction produce product?
No
54
Prokaryotic genes as an _____ are transcribed as _____
Operon, a polycistron
55
"Glowfish" are not naturally occurring. They are a product of _____ and contain _____ genes
Genetic engineering, jellyfish
56
What technique allows you to rapidly copy/amplify DNA?
Polymerase chain reaction
57
Which of the following does not lead to more antibiotic resistance bacteria: antibiotics in animal feed, false positive Strep throat (antibody) tests, over prescription, taking the entire prescription
Taking the entire prescription
58
Certain bacteria, when under stress produce transducing particle-like gene transfer agents (GTAs). These particles contain _____ pieces of bacterial DNA and the portion of the population that produces GTAs is determined _____.
Random, stochastically
59
Calico cats have three colors of fur. This is due to inactivation of _____ and ultimately is controlled by _____.
One X chromosome, a guide RNA
60
When plating maltose operon mutants on MacConkey media (which contains maltose and a purple pH indicator). What color should the media surrounding the mutant bacteria ba?
Yellow
61
In PCR reactions, the purpose of heating to 100 C (212 F) is to _____
Separate DNA strands
62
In the experiment that established that DNA replication occurs semi-conservatively, newly synthesized strands could be distinguished from parental strands by?
Density
63
Some bacteriophage use a protein called Qtip to control entry into the lytic cycle. Qtip expression is regulated through a protein that is a: transcription factor, repressor, receptor
Transcription factor & repressor
64
Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as _____
Conjugative
65
When testing antibiotic resistance using "paper disc test", you find the cleaning around the disc is larger in the presence of EDTA. You conclude the bacteria is _____.
Using a metalloprotease to inactivate the antibiotic
66
Insertion or deletion of sequences within an open reading frame can cause _____ mutations
Frameshift
67
True or false: crops can be protected from insects by treating with an organic pesticide or using the same protein in a GMO
True
68
When _____ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon
cAMP/ cAMP response protein (CRP)
69
Cipro is a _____ antibiotic. This is because it _____.
Broad spectrum, prevents DNA unwinding
70
True or false: transcription and translation can occur at the same time in human cells allowing cell division to occur quicker
False
71
A b-lactamase/penicillinase provides resistance to penicillin by _____.
Destroying the ring structure of penicillin
72
The acronym ORF stands for _____
Open reading frame
73
To be activated a quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an _____
Auto inducer
74
True or false: a phage particle can be infectious even if all its DNA has been replaced by bacterial DNA
True
75
Operons _____.
Allow coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes
76
Bacterial heat shock response requires expression of many proteins including _____, which prevent misfolding/denaturation. Coordinate expression of these different genes is controlled by _____
Chaperons, a unique sigma factor
77
Competence refers to the ability of bacterial population to _____
Be transformed by foreign DNA
78
True or false: there is no evidence that GMO foods are toxic to humans
True
79
True or false: synthetic DNAs have escaped into the environment
True
80
Insertion sequences are the simplest mobile genetic element. They code for a single protein. What does this protein do?
It can cut & reseal DNA strands
81
What do exposure to Cipro, Covid-19, and the Lyme's disease bacteria have in common?
All are associated with post treatment disease/ symptoms
82
The promoter site of an operon is the site at which _____ initiates
RNA polymerase
83
In a gel-shift assay, free DNA runs _____ than protein::DNA complexes
Faster
84
In the absence of lactose, the lac _____ will _____
operator, be bound by repressor
85
Two populations of bacteria have recently acquired resistance to Mitchomycin. Population 1 did so in three generations (60 minutes). Population 2 acquired this resistance over the course of several months. The most likely mechanism for resistance in Population 1 is?
Horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid
86
Which of the following would cause a stringent response in a bacterial population: antibiotic treatment, rapid change in available nutrients, rapid increase in temperature
All are correct
87
You are running a PCR test for Hepatitis C Virus on patient's blood samples. How can you be sure that your test would detect the virus if it were there and what is this step called?
Use purified viral RNA as template, positive control
88
The first enzyme in a metabolic pathway has a second binding pocket for a product many steps down the metabolic pathway. This is likely an example of _____
Allosteric regulation
89
You have cloned the promoter from your favorite retinal gene upstream (in front of) GFP (green fluorescent protein) and then made a transgenic fish. What would you expect to see when the fish grow up?
Only the eyes of the fish glow green
90
A genomic DNA library is a collection of plasmids each of which contains a unique _____ and a _____.
human DNA fragment, drug resistance gene
91
Antibiotics that damage host cells have a low therapeutic index. Colistin is often used as the last line of defense. Colistin is _____.
An old antibiotic with a low therapeutic index
92
A bacterial gene (gene A) ordinarily makes a protein that binds to DNA. A nonsense mutation of gene A causes an increase in the expression of gene B. We can conclude that _____
Gene A is a negative regulator of gene B
93
The Penicillin family of antibiotics bind to the active site of _____
Enzymes that form peptide crosslinks
94
The function of RNA polymerase is to _____
Catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides
95
The total information coded in an organism's DNA is called its _____
Genome
96
The process by which a fragment of DNA is placed into a vector where it can be replicated is called _____
Molecular cloning
97
What are sigma factors responsible for?
Bonding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences
98
Which of the following would allow you to determine whether a gene was expressed under certain conditions: Northern blotting, Southern blotting, DNA sequencing, colony hybridization
Northern blotting
99
Certain amino acids can be coded for by more than one tRNA. This explains which of the following types of mutations?
Silent
100
The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and human insert DNA in molecular cloning is _____
DNA ligase
101
Which of the following methods of gene transfer has the potential to transfer more unique regions of the bacterial chromosome: specialized transduction, generalized transduction
Generalized transduction
102
What is CRISPR
An antiviral defense mechanism
103
What do opsonins do
Increase phagocytosis
104
Irritable Bowl Disease (IDB) is an overreaction of the immune system to _____
Gut microbiota
105
Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane
All are correct
106
What do natural killer cells do
Kill cells that lack MHC molecules
107
What do the two types of MHC molecules do
Process self & foreign antigens
108
True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement
False
109
The variable region of an antibody is _____. The constant region signals _____ by changing shape.
A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound
110
True or false: human genome edits using CRISPR can be vertically transmitted
True
111
Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, 'presenter' molecules/antigen holders
MArkers of self & presenter molecules
112
The 'older', _____ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The _____ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections
Innate, adaptive
113
True or false: wounds that release pus arw a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells
True
114
True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure
False
115
Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies are caused by a _____ version of a _____ protein that eventually leads to _____.
Misfolded, normal, holes in the brain
116
True or false: Prion-like disease can affect humans who eat deer meat
Unclear
117
True or false: Bacteria have immunologic memory
True
118
The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____
Cytokine, brain
119
The presence of a genomic island in a bacterial species suggests: orthologous genes, horizontal gene transfer, genomes evolve
Horizontal gene transfer & genomes evolve
120
The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions
Endotoxin
121
Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.
Lysosome, reactive oxygen species
122
One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____
double stranded RNA, commit suicide
123
True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants
True
124
Akkermansia munciphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____
Mucus
125
Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?
Endotoxin
126
Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions
Neurotoxin, vesicle fusion
127
The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin
2025 influenza proteins
128
Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water
A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water
129
Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus
Cytotoxic T cells
130
Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells
Increasing the flow of ions out of
131
The human microbiome contains all _____
Organisms present in & on the body
132
True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface
True
133
True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics
False
134
A viroid: is a small, circular ssRNA molecule, usually has no capsid, lacks protein-encoding genes
All are correct
135
Metagenomics ('over/above genetics') has been used to survey the human skin and environmental samples for microorganisms. Advances in which techniques have made this possible?
PCR and DNA sequencing
136
True or false: prion disease affect only humans
False
137
True or false: human prion disease can be inherited
True
138
The complement system is considered part of the _____ immune system because it is activated by _____
Innate, any bacteria
139
Which of the following demonstrate an interaction between gut microbiota and the host: gnotobiotic mice, streptokinase, intestinal M cells
Gnotobiotic mice, intestinal M cells
140
Which property of viroids is most responsible for their ability to infect an entire plant
Their size
141
True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream
False
142
Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____
Bacterial, escape immune detection
143
Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.
Colon cancer
144
Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?
DNA
145
True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza
True
146
Cholera toxin is an _____
Enterotoxin
147
Which of the following might a pathogen use to prevent phagocytosis: hemolysin, transposes, streptokinase, capsule
Capsule
148
The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____
Memory cells
149
Failure to remove immature T cells that react too strongly to MHC molecules can lead to _____
Autoimmune disease
150
Treating Ebola patients with hyper-immune sera from an infected patient is classified as _____
Artificially acquired passive immunity
151
The 'a' in the DTaP vaccine refers to?
The type of vaccine
152
What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common: both block viral fusion, both inhibit the viral protease, both are nucleotide analogs
Both inhibit the viral protease
153
Why are most domesticated turkeys recently being raised indoors
To prevent viral infection
154
During the Phase III trials for the Covid mRNA vaccine, the majority of side effects were reported in the vaccine arm of the trial
False
155
Most virus-infected cells are identified and destroyed by _____
Cytotoxic T cells
156
The Flu vaccine is not always effective in preventing severe disease. This can be due to _____
Variants that arise after production starts
157
Monoclonal antibodies are made by immortalizing mouse _____ cells from the _____ with cancer cells
B, spleen
158
The original Whooping cough vaccine used in the US was more effective than the one currently being used. Which of the following explains why: original vaccine was a subunit vaccine, current vaccine is whole agent vaccine, original vaccine induced more memory cells
The Original vaccine induced more memory cells
159
True or false: Tick bites have been shown to cause a delayed allergic reaction to a mammalian carbohydrate
True
160
True or false: recent experiments have shown gut bacteria can reduce the prevalence of type II diabetes in mice
True
161
_____ refers to the process by which B cell populations are expanded to produce a specific antibody producing cell.
Clonal selection
162
B cells are activated by interacting with _____ T cells to produce _____
Helper, antibodies
163
Antibody-mediated immunity is particularly effective against _____
Extracellular pathogens
164
Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection: florescent antibody staining, selective culture media, agglutination
All are correct
165
Identify the viral infection that is transmitted by aerosol droplets: Influenza, HPV, West Nile, Lyme disease
Influenza
166
HPV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells, This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____
Stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production
167
Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of a co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by _____
MHC, TCR, & antigen
168
True or false: there is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter
False
169
We all hope that COVID-19 will become an endemic disease worldwide. When this happens what will be different?
New variants will be less infectious
170
True or false: the Tuberculosis skin test is a type of immediate inflammatory response
False
171
True or false: a ring that causes a rash in your finger involves Mast cell activation
True
172
The main habitat (reservoir) of Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus is _____
Soil
173
PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an _____ based treatment which can _____ the number of T cells attacking a tumor
Antibody, increase
174
The control line in a rapid test tells you _____
You have added enough sample
175
Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are both caused by _____
Bacterial parasites
176
The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to: activate T cells & macrophage, process antigens, display antigen
All are correct
177
Which of the following is NOT able to act as an antigen presenting cell: dendritic cells, immature B cells, plasma cells, macrophage
Plasma cells
178
True or false: over 300,000 people die every year worldwide due to under-treated Strep throat
True
179
One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____
Viruses use host processes to multiply
180
True or false: PreP is a form of antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection, that when taken daily, reduces viral load to the point where the person cannot transmit the virus
True
181
True or false: 'Cytokine storms' can be caused by infections and/or cancer treatment
True
182
Antibodies present in a newborn are considered _____
Naturally acquired passive immunity
183
Thymic education refers to the process by which _____ are selected for their ability to recognize _____ properly
T cells, host/self antigen
184
Novel Chicken Virus 7 has a high mortality rate (~80%). What kind of evidence would be the most concerning in terms of pandemic risk?
Poultry worker family deaths
185
HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____
Stimulate antibody & cytotoxic T cell production
186
True or false: HPV vaccination can be be effective after having sex
True
187
True or false: cancer progression requires prophage integration into a stem cell
True
188
True or false: a test for anti-Covid 19 antibodies on the day of infection would be negative
True
189
After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become _____
Antibodies
190
Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV & others)
They produce a more complex banding pattern
191
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which: affects antibody production, results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells, affects T cell production
Affects antibody production & affects T cell production
192
True or false: Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated
False
193
True or false: Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region
False
194
True or false: there is an antibody for every allergen
True
195
Which of the following are established reservoirs for Influenza: domesticated turkeys, wild turkeys, pigs
All are correct
196
_____ refers to the protective effect for all, including unvaccinated people, that comes from immunizing as many people as possible
Herd immunity
197
What do BCG treatmeant, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common
All suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer
198
True or false: Smallpox is an endemic disease in parts of Africa
False
199
True or false: Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests
False
