Final Exam Flashcards
What does a pathogen use to attach to host cells
Pili or fimbriae
Ocean viruses contribute to carbon cycling by _____ ocean bacteria and algae
Lysing
Which of the following ‘fix’ carbon and increase biomass
A corn field
_____ phage genes code for protein that take over host functions. _____ phage genes include structure components of the virus
Early, late
a community of bacteria which coordinate their activities to colonize a surface is called
Biofilm
lactose intolerance in humans is due to the lack of an _____ necessary to split a _____
Enzyme, disaccharide
True or False: vaccination was invented by a British doctor in 18th century London
False
A streak plate is used to isolate single colonies from a mixture of bacteria. The equivalent technique when working with viruses is called
Plaque assay
True or false: living genetically modified humans walk the Earth
True
all of the following are natural polymers except: cellulose, glucose, chitin, glycogen
Glucose
True or false: most bacteria from environmental samples can be cultured in a lab
False
sugars are used by living systems for
Energy storage & building materials
True or false: ATP synthase ‘run backwards’ will consume ATP
True
True or false: bacteriophage and animal viruses are capable of lysogeny
True
All life can be sorted into three domains. The best evidence of this comes from
rRNA sequence analysis
which of the following is an emerging disease in our area: influenza, malaria, lyme
No correct answer
according to our present understanding, mitochondiral and chloroplasts are of _____ origin
Bacterial
In bacteria and mitochondria, a concentration of protons builds on one side of a _____. These protons can only travel through a channel in a protein called an _____, which functions as a “turbine” to make _____
Membrane, ATPase, ATP
You have streaked to single colonies, a sample from a dead animal. The results show several different types of colonies. This result indicated a _____ and does/does not clearly indicate a cause of the animal’s death
Mixed population, does not
True or false: smallpox has killed hundred of millions of people since the 1900s. Smallpox infections no longer occur due to vaccination
True, true
True or false: endospore production is a bacterial response to rapid environmental change
True
recent increases in Whooping cough are due to: anti-vaxxers, weakened vaccine immunity, changes in the bacteria
All of the above
True or false: enveloped viruses code for their own envelope
False
Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane, a portion of which is toxic to humans and causes fever. This molecule is made of_____
Sugars & lipids
True or false: water is a waste product of cellular respiration
True
Magnetosomes are _____ structures used by some bacteria to _____
Iron, escape oxygen
The Calvin cycle is the process which plants use to _____ and _____
Fix CO2, build biomass
Suppose you treat an exponentially growing culture of bacteria with a potential antimicrobial compound. Over the next few hours, cell doubling stops (untreated, control culture continues doubling) but the cells remain metabolically active. This antimicrobial compound is _____
Bacteriostatic
Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to minimum _____
Amount of a chemical required to kill all the microorganisms
Electrons captured from the breaking of glucose in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are carried to the _____ by _____.
Mitochondria, NADH
True or false: Persistent HPV infection requires viral integration in superficial/surface epithelia layers
False
Analyzing an antibiotic you notice microscopic and viable cell counts of treated cells both drop to zero. What type of antibiotic are you looking at?
Bacteriolytic
Hydrothermal vent tube worms harbor _____ bacterial (symbiotes), which in turn obtain _____ from the worms’ blood stream
Chemolithotrophic / carbon dioxide
Restriction enzymes cut DNA in a _____ manner. They were originally isolated as _____.
Sequence dependent, antiviral proteins
One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____
Viruses use host processes to multiply
Cellular respiration requires _____ which is used to collect/neutralize _____ in the mitochondria
Oxygen, electrons
Human pathogenic bacteria are _____
Mesophiles
Transferring electrons between proteins in the mitochondrial membrane is a type of _____
Redox reaction
Pathogenic staphylococci can be differentiated by plating on blood agar plates. What allows you to tell them apart?
The extent of hemolysis
What protein is made by bacteriophage and humans
Lysozyme
Lysogenic bacteria exposed to UV light will _____
Accumulate DNA damage
Glycolysis is a series of _____ leading to _____ molecules
Enzymatic reactions, three carbon
True or false: Tamiflu prevents influenza virus from binding to host cells
False
What microorganisms use light as their energy source
Phototrophs
The terms “run” and “tumble” are used to describe _____
Movement of bacteria
Pasteurization is now a common procedure to ensure food safety. Pasteur’s flasks disproved _____
‘Bad’ air causes diseases
True or false: all viruses isolated so far have double stranded DNA genomes
False
Robert Koch is best known for a set of rules he created, now commonly known as Koch’s postulates. What is the purpose of Koch’s postulates
They help to determine if a particular infectious agent causes a specific disease
Three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: light, organic molecules and _____
Inorganic molecules
What microorganisms use inorganic compounds like hydrogen sulfide as their energy source
Chemolithotrophs
Adding the amino acid Arginine to a bacterial culture _____
Represses the synthesis of the enzymes required for the production of arginine
What do Texiobactin and Vancomycin have in common
Both are relatively resistance proof
You have added the following to your PCR reaction tube: template DNA, primers, DNA polymerase, reaction buffer. Will the reaction produce product?
No
Prokaryotic genes as an _____ are transcribed as _____
Operon, a polycistron
“Glowfish” are not naturally occurring. They are a product of _____ and contain _____ genes
Genetic engineering, jellyfish
What technique allows you to rapidly copy/amplify DNA?
Polymerase chain reaction
Which of the following does not lead to more antibiotic resistance bacteria: antibiotics in animal feed, false positive Strep throat (antibody) tests, over prescription, taking the entire prescription
Taking the entire prescription
Certain bacteria, when under stress produce transducing particle-like gene transfer agents (GTAs). These particles contain _____ pieces of bacterial DNA and the portion of the population that produces GTAs is determined _____.
Random, stochastically
Calico cats have three colors of fur. This is due to inactivation of _____ and ultimately is controlled by _____.
One X chromosome, a guide RNA
When plating maltose operon mutants on MacConkey media (which contains maltose and a purple pH indicator). What color should the media surrounding the mutant bacteria ba?
Yellow
In PCR reactions, the purpose of heating to 100 C (212 F) is to _____
Separate DNA strands
In the experiment that established that DNA replication occurs semi-conservatively, newly synthesized strands could be distinguished from parental strands by?
Density
Some bacteriophage use a protein called Qtip to control entry into the lytic cycle. Qtip expression is regulated through a protein that is a: transcription factor, repressor, receptor
Transcription factor & repressor
Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as _____
Conjugative
When testing antibiotic resistance using “paper disc test”, you find the cleaning around the disc is larger in the presence of EDTA. You conclude the bacteria is _____.
Using a metalloprotease to inactivate the antibiotic
Insertion or deletion of sequences within an open reading frame can cause _____ mutations
Frameshift
True or false: crops can be protected from insects by treating with an organic pesticide or using the same protein in a GMO
True
When _____ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon
cAMP/ cAMP response protein (CRP)
Cipro is a _____ antibiotic. This is because it _____.
Broad spectrum, prevents DNA unwinding
True or false: transcription and translation can occur at the same time in human cells allowing cell division to occur quicker
False
A b-lactamase/penicillinase provides resistance to penicillin by _____.
Destroying the ring structure of penicillin
The acronym ORF stands for _____
Open reading frame
To be activated a quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an _____
Auto inducer
True or false: a phage particle can be infectious even if all its DNA has been replaced by bacterial DNA
True
Operons _____.
Allow coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes
Bacterial heat shock response requires expression of many proteins including _____, which prevent misfolding/denaturation. Coordinate expression of these different genes is controlled by _____
Chaperons, a unique sigma factor
Competence refers to the ability of bacterial population to _____
Be transformed by foreign DNA
True or false: there is no evidence that GMO foods are toxic to humans
True
True or false: synthetic DNAs have escaped into the environment
True
Insertion sequences are the simplest mobile genetic element. They code for a single protein. What does this protein do?
It can cut & reseal DNA strands
What do exposure to Cipro, Covid-19, and the Lyme’s disease bacteria have in common?
All are associated with post treatment disease/ symptoms
The promoter site of an operon is the site at which _____ initiates
RNA polymerase
In a gel-shift assay, free DNA runs _____ than protein::DNA complexes
Faster
In the absence of lactose, the lac _____ will _____
operator, be bound by repressor
Two populations of bacteria have recently acquired resistance to Mitchomycin. Population 1 did so in three generations (60 minutes). Population 2 acquired this resistance over the course of several months. The most likely mechanism for resistance in Population 1 is?
Horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid
Which of the following would cause a stringent response in a bacterial population: antibiotic treatment, rapid change in available nutrients, rapid increase in temperature
All are correct
You are running a PCR test for Hepatitis C Virus on patient’s blood samples. How can you be sure that your test would detect the virus if it were there and what is this step called?
Use purified viral RNA as template, positive control
The first enzyme in a metabolic pathway has a second binding pocket for a product many steps down the metabolic pathway. This is likely an example of _____
Allosteric regulation
You have cloned the promoter from your favorite retinal gene upstream (in front of) GFP (green fluorescent protein) and then made a transgenic fish. What would you expect to see when the fish grow up?
Only the eyes of the fish glow green
A genomic DNA library is a collection of plasmids each of which contains a unique _____ and a _____.
human DNA fragment, drug resistance gene
Antibiotics that damage host cells have a low therapeutic index. Colistin is often used as the last line of defense. Colistin is _____.
An old antibiotic with a low therapeutic index
A bacterial gene (gene A) ordinarily makes a protein that binds to DNA. A nonsense mutation of gene A causes an increase in the expression of gene B. We can conclude that _____
Gene A is a negative regulator of gene B
The Penicillin family of antibiotics bind to the active site of _____
Enzymes that form peptide crosslinks
The function of RNA polymerase is to _____
Catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides
The total information coded in an organism’s DNA is called its _____
Genome
The process by which a fragment of DNA is placed into a vector where it can be replicated is called _____
Molecular cloning
What are sigma factors responsible for?
Bonding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences
Which of the following would allow you to determine whether a gene was expressed under certain conditions: Northern blotting, Southern blotting, DNA sequencing, colony hybridization
Northern blotting
Certain amino acids can be coded for by more than one tRNA. This explains which of the following types of mutations?
Silent
The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and human insert DNA in molecular cloning is _____
DNA ligase
Which of the following methods of gene transfer has the potential to transfer more unique regions of the bacterial chromosome: specialized transduction, generalized transduction
Generalized transduction
What is CRISPR
An antiviral defense mechanism
What do opsonins do
Increase phagocytosis
Irritable Bowl Disease (IDB) is an overreaction of the immune system to _____
Gut microbiota
Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane
All are correct
What do natural killer cells do
Kill cells that lack MHC molecules
What do the two types of MHC molecules do
Process self & foreign antigens
True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement
False
The variable region of an antibody is _____. The constant region signals _____ by changing shape.
A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound
True or false: human genome edits using CRISPR can be vertically transmitted
True
Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, ‘presenter’ molecules/antigen holders
MArkers of self & presenter molecules
The ‘older’, _____ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The _____ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections
Innate, adaptive
True or false: wounds that release pus arw a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells
True
True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure
False
Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies are caused by a _____ version of a _____ protein that eventually leads to _____.
Misfolded, normal, holes in the brain
True or false: Prion-like disease can affect humans who eat deer meat
Unclear
True or false: Bacteria have immunologic memory
True
The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____
Cytokine, brain
The presence of a genomic island in a bacterial species suggests: orthologous genes, horizontal gene transfer, genomes evolve
Horizontal gene transfer & genomes evolve
The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions
Endotoxin
Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.
Lysosome, reactive oxygen species
One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____
double stranded RNA, commit suicide
True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants
True
Akkermansia munciphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____
Mucus
Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?
Endotoxin
Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions
Neurotoxin, vesicle fusion
The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin
2025 influenza proteins
Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water
A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water
Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus
Cytotoxic T cells
Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells
Increasing the flow of ions out of
The human microbiome contains all _____
Organisms present in & on the body
True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface
True
True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics
False
A viroid: is a small, circular ssRNA molecule, usually has no capsid, lacks protein-encoding genes
All are correct
Metagenomics (‘over/above genetics’) has been used to survey the human skin and environmental samples for microorganisms. Advances in which techniques have made this possible?
PCR and DNA sequencing
True or false: prion disease affect only humans
False
True or false: human prion disease can be inherited
True
The complement system is considered part of the _____ immune system because it is activated by _____
Innate, any bacteria
Which of the following demonstrate an interaction between gut microbiota and the host: gnotobiotic mice, streptokinase, intestinal M cells
Gnotobiotic mice, intestinal M cells
Which property of viroids is most responsible for their ability to infect an entire plant
Their size
True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream
False
Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____
Bacterial, escape immune detection
Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.
Colon cancer
Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?
DNA
True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza
True
Cholera toxin is an _____
Enterotoxin
Which of the following might a pathogen use to prevent phagocytosis: hemolysin, transposes, streptokinase, capsule
Capsule
The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____
Memory cells
Failure to remove immature T cells that react too strongly to MHC molecules can lead to _____
Autoimmune disease
Treating Ebola patients with hyper-immune sera from an infected patient is classified as _____
Artificially acquired passive immunity
The ‘a’ in the DTaP vaccine refers to?
The type of vaccine
What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common: both block viral fusion, both inhibit the viral protease, both are nucleotide analogs
Both inhibit the viral protease
Why are most domesticated turkeys recently being raised indoors
To prevent viral infection
During the Phase III trials for the Covid mRNA vaccine, the majority of side effects were reported in the vaccine arm of the trial
False
Most virus-infected cells are identified and destroyed by _____
Cytotoxic T cells
The Flu vaccine is not always effective in preventing severe disease. This can be due to _____
Variants that arise after production starts
Monoclonal antibodies are made by immortalizing mouse _____ cells from the _____ with cancer cells
B, spleen
The original Whooping cough vaccine used in the US was more effective than the one currently being used. Which of the following explains why: original vaccine was a subunit vaccine, current vaccine is whole agent vaccine, original vaccine induced more memory cells
The Original vaccine induced more memory cells
True or false: Tick bites have been shown to cause a delayed allergic reaction to a mammalian carbohydrate
True
True or false: recent experiments have shown gut bacteria can reduce the prevalence of type II diabetes in mice
True
_____ refers to the process by which B cell populations are expanded to produce a specific antibody producing cell.
Clonal selection
B cells are activated by interacting with _____ T cells to produce _____
Helper, antibodies
Antibody-mediated immunity is particularly effective against _____
Extracellular pathogens
Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection: florescent antibody staining, selective culture media, agglutination
All are correct
Identify the viral infection that is transmitted by aerosol droplets: Influenza, HPV, West Nile, Lyme disease
Influenza
HPV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells, This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____
Stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production
Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of a co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by _____
MHC, TCR, & antigen
True or false: there is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter
False
We all hope that COVID-19 will become an endemic disease worldwide. When this happens what will be different?
New variants will be less infectious
True or false: the Tuberculosis skin test is a type of immediate inflammatory response
False
True or false: a ring that causes a rash in your finger involves Mast cell activation
True
The main habitat (reservoir) of Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus is _____
Soil
PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an _____ based treatment which can _____ the number of T cells attacking a tumor
Antibody, increase
The control line in a rapid test tells you _____
You have added enough sample
Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are both caused by _____
Bacterial parasites
The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to: activate T cells & macrophage, process antigens, display antigen
All are correct
Which of the following is NOT able to act as an antigen presenting cell: dendritic cells, immature B cells, plasma cells, macrophage
Plasma cells
True or false: over 300,000 people die every year worldwide due to under-treated Strep throat
True
One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____
Viruses use host processes to multiply
True or false: PreP is a form of antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection, that when taken daily, reduces viral load to the point where the person cannot transmit the virus
True
True or false: ‘Cytokine storms’ can be caused by infections and/or cancer treatment
True
Antibodies present in a newborn are considered _____
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Thymic education refers to the process by which _____ are selected for their ability to recognize _____ properly
T cells, host/self antigen
Novel Chicken Virus 7 has a high mortality rate (~80%). What kind of evidence would be the most concerning in terms of pandemic risk?
Poultry worker family deaths
HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____
Stimulate antibody & cytotoxic T cell production
True or false: HPV vaccination can be be effective after having sex
True
True or false: cancer progression requires prophage integration into a stem cell
True
True or false: a test for anti-Covid 19 antibodies on the day of infection would be negative
True
After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become _____
Antibodies
Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV & others)
They produce a more complex banding pattern
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which: affects antibody production, results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells, affects T cell production
Affects antibody production & affects T cell production
True or false: Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated
False
True or false: Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region
False
True or false: there is an antibody for every allergen
True
Which of the following are established reservoirs for Influenza: domesticated turkeys, wild turkeys, pigs
All are correct
_____ refers to the protective effect for all, including unvaccinated people, that comes from immunizing as many people as possible
Herd immunity
What do BCG treatmeant, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common
All suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer
True or false: Smallpox is an endemic disease in parts of Africa
False
True or false: Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests
False
