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Microbio 310 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does a pathogen use to attach to host cells

A

Pili or fimbriae

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2
Q

Ocean viruses contribute to carbon cycling by _____ ocean bacteria and algae

A

Lysing

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3
Q

Which of the following ‘fix’ carbon and increase biomass

A

A corn field

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4
Q

_____ phage genes code for protein that take over host functions. _____ phage genes include structure components of the virus

A

Early, late

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5
Q

a community of bacteria which coordinate their activities to colonize a surface is called

A

Biofilm

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6
Q

lactose intolerance in humans is due to the lack of an _____ necessary to split a _____

A

Enzyme, disaccharide

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7
Q

True or False: vaccination was invented by a British doctor in 18th century London

A

False

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8
Q

A streak plate is used to isolate single colonies from a mixture of bacteria. The equivalent technique when working with viruses is called

A

Plaque assay

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9
Q

True or false: living genetically modified humans walk the Earth

A

True

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10
Q

all of the following are natural polymers except: cellulose, glucose, chitin, glycogen

A

Glucose

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11
Q

True or false: most bacteria from environmental samples can be cultured in a lab

A

False

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12
Q

sugars are used by living systems for

A

Energy storage & building materials

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13
Q

True or false: ATP synthase ‘run backwards’ will consume ATP

A

True

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14
Q

True or false: bacteriophage and animal viruses are capable of lysogeny

A

True

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15
Q

All life can be sorted into three domains. The best evidence of this comes from

A

rRNA sequence analysis

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16
Q

which of the following is an emerging disease in our area: influenza, malaria, lyme

A

No correct answer

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17
Q

according to our present understanding, mitochondiral and chloroplasts are of _____ origin

A

Bacterial

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18
Q

In bacteria and mitochondria, a concentration of protons builds on one side of a _____. These protons can only travel through a channel in a protein called an _____, which functions as a “turbine” to make _____

A

Membrane, ATPase, ATP

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19
Q

You have streaked to single colonies, a sample from a dead animal. The results show several different types of colonies. This result indicated a _____ and does/does not clearly indicate a cause of the animal’s death

A

Mixed population, does not

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20
Q

True or false: smallpox has killed hundred of millions of people since the 1900s. Smallpox infections no longer occur due to vaccination

A

True, true

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21
Q

True or false: endospore production is a bacterial response to rapid environmental change

A

True

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22
Q

recent increases in Whooping cough are due to: anti-vaxxers, weakened vaccine immunity, changes in the bacteria

A

All of the above

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23
Q

True or false: enveloped viruses code for their own envelope

A

False

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24
Q

Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane, a portion of which is toxic to humans and causes fever. This molecule is made of_____

A

Sugars & lipids

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25
Q

True or false: water is a waste product of cellular respiration

A

True

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26
Q

Magnetosomes are _____ structures used by some bacteria to _____

A

Iron, escape oxygen

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27
Q

The Calvin cycle is the process which plants use to _____ and _____

A

Fix CO2, build biomass

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28
Q

Suppose you treat an exponentially growing culture of bacteria with a potential antimicrobial compound. Over the next few hours, cell doubling stops (untreated, control culture continues doubling) but the cells remain metabolically active. This antimicrobial compound is _____

A

Bacteriostatic

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29
Q

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to minimum _____

A

Amount of a chemical required to kill all the microorganisms

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30
Q

Electrons captured from the breaking of glucose in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are carried to the _____ by _____.

A

Mitochondria, NADH

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31
Q

True or false: Persistent HPV infection requires viral integration in superficial/surface epithelia layers

A

False

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32
Q

Analyzing an antibiotic you notice microscopic and viable cell counts of treated cells both drop to zero. What type of antibiotic are you looking at?

A

Bacteriolytic

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33
Q

Hydrothermal vent tube worms harbor _____ bacterial (symbiotes), which in turn obtain _____ from the worms’ blood stream

A

Chemolithotrophic / carbon dioxide

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34
Q

Restriction enzymes cut DNA in a _____ manner. They were originally isolated as _____.

A

Sequence dependent, antiviral proteins

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35
Q

One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____

A

Viruses use host processes to multiply

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36
Q

Cellular respiration requires _____ which is used to collect/neutralize _____ in the mitochondria

A

Oxygen, electrons

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37
Q

Human pathogenic bacteria are _____

A

Mesophiles

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38
Q

Transferring electrons between proteins in the mitochondrial membrane is a type of _____

A

Redox reaction

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39
Q

Pathogenic staphylococci can be differentiated by plating on blood agar plates. What allows you to tell them apart?

A

The extent of hemolysis

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40
Q

What protein is made by bacteriophage and humans

A

Lysozyme

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41
Q

Lysogenic bacteria exposed to UV light will _____

A

Accumulate DNA damage

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42
Q

Glycolysis is a series of _____ leading to _____ molecules

A

Enzymatic reactions, three carbon

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43
Q

True or false: Tamiflu prevents influenza virus from binding to host cells

A

False

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44
Q

What microorganisms use light as their energy source

A

Phototrophs

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45
Q

The terms “run” and “tumble” are used to describe _____

A

Movement of bacteria

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46
Q

Pasteurization is now a common procedure to ensure food safety. Pasteur’s flasks disproved _____

A

‘Bad’ air causes diseases

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47
Q

True or false: all viruses isolated so far have double stranded DNA genomes

A

False

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48
Q

Robert Koch is best known for a set of rules he created, now commonly known as Koch’s postulates. What is the purpose of Koch’s postulates

A

They help to determine if a particular infectious agent causes a specific disease

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49
Q

Three options by which an organism may obtain energy are: light, organic molecules and _____

A

Inorganic molecules

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50
Q

What microorganisms use inorganic compounds like hydrogen sulfide as their energy source

A

Chemolithotrophs

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51
Q

Adding the amino acid Arginine to a bacterial culture _____

A

Represses the synthesis of the enzymes required for the production of arginine

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52
Q

What do Texiobactin and Vancomycin have in common

A

Both are relatively resistance proof

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53
Q

You have added the following to your PCR reaction tube: template DNA, primers, DNA polymerase, reaction buffer. Will the reaction produce product?

A

No

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54
Q

Prokaryotic genes as an _____ are transcribed as _____

A

Operon, a polycistron

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55
Q

“Glowfish” are not naturally occurring. They are a product of _____ and contain _____ genes

A

Genetic engineering, jellyfish

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56
Q

What technique allows you to rapidly copy/amplify DNA?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

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57
Q

Which of the following does not lead to more antibiotic resistance bacteria: antibiotics in animal feed, false positive Strep throat (antibody) tests, over prescription, taking the entire prescription

A

Taking the entire prescription

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58
Q

Certain bacteria, when under stress produce transducing particle-like gene transfer agents (GTAs). These particles contain _____ pieces of bacterial DNA and the portion of the population that produces GTAs is determined _____.

A

Random, stochastically

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59
Q

Calico cats have three colors of fur. This is due to inactivation of _____ and ultimately is controlled by _____.

A

One X chromosome, a guide RNA

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60
Q

When plating maltose operon mutants on MacConkey media (which contains maltose and a purple pH indicator). What color should the media surrounding the mutant bacteria ba?

A

Yellow

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61
Q

In PCR reactions, the purpose of heating to 100 C (212 F) is to _____

A

Separate DNA strands

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62
Q

In the experiment that established that DNA replication occurs semi-conservatively, newly synthesized strands could be distinguished from parental strands by?

A

Density

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63
Q

Some bacteriophage use a protein called Qtip to control entry into the lytic cycle. Qtip expression is regulated through a protein that is a: transcription factor, repressor, receptor

A

Transcription factor & repressor

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64
Q

Plasmids that govern their own transfer are known as _____

A

Conjugative

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65
Q

When testing antibiotic resistance using “paper disc test”, you find the cleaning around the disc is larger in the presence of EDTA. You conclude the bacteria is _____.

A

Using a metalloprotease to inactivate the antibiotic

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66
Q

Insertion or deletion of sequences within an open reading frame can cause _____ mutations

A

Frameshift

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67
Q

True or false: crops can be protected from insects by treating with an organic pesticide or using the same protein in a GMO

A

True

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68
Q

When _____ interacts with RNA polymerase, it increases the rate of transcription initiation of the lac operon

A

cAMP/ cAMP response protein (CRP)

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69
Q

Cipro is a _____ antibiotic. This is because it _____.

A

Broad spectrum, prevents DNA unwinding

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70
Q

True or false: transcription and translation can occur at the same time in human cells allowing cell division to occur quicker

A

False

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71
Q

A b-lactamase/penicillinase provides resistance to penicillin by _____.

A

Destroying the ring structure of penicillin

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72
Q

The acronym ORF stands for _____

A

Open reading frame

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73
Q

To be activated a quorum-sensing gene system requires the accumulation of a secreted small molecule called an _____

A

Auto inducer

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74
Q

True or false: a phage particle can be infectious even if all its DNA has been replaced by bacterial DNA

A

True

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75
Q

Operons _____.

A

Allow coordinated expression of multiple related genes in prokaryotes

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76
Q

Bacterial heat shock response requires expression of many proteins including _____, which prevent misfolding/denaturation. Coordinate expression of these different genes is controlled by _____

A

Chaperons, a unique sigma factor

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77
Q

Competence refers to the ability of bacterial population to _____

A

Be transformed by foreign DNA

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78
Q

True or false: there is no evidence that GMO foods are toxic to humans

A

True

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79
Q

True or false: synthetic DNAs have escaped into the environment

A

True

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80
Q

Insertion sequences are the simplest mobile genetic element. They code for a single protein. What does this protein do?

A

It can cut & reseal DNA strands

81
Q

What do exposure to Cipro, Covid-19, and the Lyme’s disease bacteria have in common?

A

All are associated with post treatment disease/ symptoms

82
Q

The promoter site of an operon is the site at which _____ initiates

A

RNA polymerase

83
Q

In a gel-shift assay, free DNA runs _____ than protein::DNA complexes

A

Faster

84
Q

In the absence of lactose, the lac _____ will _____

A

operator, be bound by repressor

85
Q

Two populations of bacteria have recently acquired resistance to Mitchomycin. Population 1 did so in three generations (60 minutes). Population 2 acquired this resistance over the course of several months. The most likely mechanism for resistance in Population 1 is?

A

Horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid

86
Q

Which of the following would cause a stringent response in a bacterial population: antibiotic treatment, rapid change in available nutrients, rapid increase in temperature

A

All are correct

87
Q

You are running a PCR test for Hepatitis C Virus on patient’s blood samples. How can you be sure that your test would detect the virus if it were there and what is this step called?

A

Use purified viral RNA as template, positive control

88
Q

The first enzyme in a metabolic pathway has a second binding pocket for a product many steps down the metabolic pathway. This is likely an example of _____

A

Allosteric regulation

89
Q

You have cloned the promoter from your favorite retinal gene upstream (in front of) GFP (green fluorescent protein) and then made a transgenic fish. What would you expect to see when the fish grow up?

A

Only the eyes of the fish glow green

90
Q

A genomic DNA library is a collection of plasmids each of which contains a unique _____ and a _____.

A

human DNA fragment, drug resistance gene

91
Q

Antibiotics that damage host cells have a low therapeutic index. Colistin is often used as the last line of defense. Colistin is _____.

A

An old antibiotic with a low therapeutic index

92
Q

A bacterial gene (gene A) ordinarily makes a protein that binds to DNA. A nonsense mutation of gene A causes an increase in the expression of gene B. We can conclude that _____

A

Gene A is a negative regulator of gene B

93
Q

The Penicillin family of antibiotics bind to the active site of _____

A

Enzymes that form peptide crosslinks

94
Q

The function of RNA polymerase is to _____

A

Catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides

95
Q

The total information coded in an organism’s DNA is called its _____

A

Genome

96
Q

The process by which a fragment of DNA is placed into a vector where it can be replicated is called _____

A

Molecular cloning

97
Q

What are sigma factors responsible for?

A

Bonding of RNA polymerase to promoter sequences

98
Q

Which of the following would allow you to determine whether a gene was expressed under certain conditions: Northern blotting, Southern blotting, DNA sequencing, colony hybridization

A

Northern blotting

99
Q

Certain amino acids can be coded for by more than one tRNA. This explains which of the following types of mutations?

A

Silent

100
Q

The enzyme that covalently links both strands of a vector and human insert DNA in molecular cloning is _____

A

DNA ligase

101
Q

Which of the following methods of gene transfer has the potential to transfer more unique regions of the bacterial chromosome: specialized transduction, generalized transduction

A

Generalized transduction

102
Q

What is CRISPR

A

An antiviral defense mechanism

103
Q

What do opsonins do

A

Increase phagocytosis

104
Q

Irritable Bowl Disease (IDB) is an overreaction of the immune system to _____

A

Gut microbiota

105
Q

Activation of complement leads to which of the following: increased inflammation, increased phagocytosis, holes in the bacterial membrane

A

All are correct

106
Q

What do natural killer cells do

A

Kill cells that lack MHC molecules

107
Q

What do the two types of MHC molecules do

A

Process self & foreign antigens

108
Q

True or false: pathogens with heavily glycosylated outer membranes cannot activate complement

A

False

109
Q

The variable region of an antibody is _____. The constant region signals _____ by changing shape.

A

A region for binding antigen, antigen is bound

110
Q

True or false: human genome edits using CRISPR can be vertically transmitted

A

True

111
Q

Major histocompatibility complex proteins are types in organ transplant cases. They are: markers of self, viral antigens, ‘presenter’ molecules/antigen holders

A

MArkers of self & presenter molecules

112
Q

The ‘older’, _____ portion of the human immune system includes receptors that detect double-stranded RNA. The _____ makes specific tools (antibodies/T cells) to fight specific pathogens/infections

A

Innate, adaptive

113
Q

True or false: wounds that release pus arw a sign that the bacteria is able to kill white blood cells

A

True

114
Q

True or false: Swelling is caused by the release of solutes by the bacteria that increase osmotic pressure

A

False

115
Q

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies are caused by a _____ version of a _____ protein that eventually leads to _____.

A

Misfolded, normal, holes in the brain

116
Q

True or false: Prion-like disease can affect humans who eat deer meat

A

Unclear

117
Q

True or false: Bacteria have immunologic memory

A

True

118
Q

The inflammatory response includes spiking a fever. This is done by the release of a _____ which travels to the _____

A

Cytokine, brain

119
Q

The presence of a genomic island in a bacterial species suggests: orthologous genes, horizontal gene transfer, genomes evolve

A

Horizontal gene transfer & genomes evolve

120
Q

The Limulus (horseshoe crab) amebocyte lysate assay can be used to detect _____ in intravenous solutions

A

Endotoxin

121
Q

Bacteria that are phagocytosed are destroyed in the _____ by a combination of enzymes and _____.

A

Lysosome, reactive oxygen species

122
Q

One type of interferon is expressed when _____ is detected in a cell. Its absorption into neighboring cells prepares them to _____

A

double stranded RNA, commit suicide

123
Q

True or false: In humans, specific bacterial infections have been treated successfully with fecal transplants

A

True

124
Q

Akkermansia munciphilia is a human gut bacteria that metabolizes _____

A

Mucus

125
Q

Certain types of E coli can cause bloody diarrhea. Which type of toxin do they use to accomplish this?

A

Endotoxin

126
Q

Botulinum toxin is a _____ which prevents _____ at neuromuscular junctions

A

Neurotoxin, vesicle fusion

127
Q

The following foreign antigens would be detected by the innate immune system except: viral RNA, 2025 influenza proteins, proteoglycan, flagellin

A

2025 influenza proteins

128
Q

Studies using a mouse model of autism have shown which of the following can lessen the autistic behavior: antibiotics in their water, a single species of bacteria in their water, a bacterial metabolite in their water

A

A single species of bacteria & a bacterial metabolite in their water

129
Q

Identify the component that is not part of innate immune defenses: skin, cytotoxic T cells, toll-like receptors, mucus

A

Cytotoxic T cells

130
Q

Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by _____ colonic endothelial cells

A

Increasing the flow of ions out of

131
Q

The human microbiome contains all _____

A

Organisms present in & on the body

132
Q

True or false: bacterial adhesions refer to a species-specific interaction between the pathogen and molecules on the host cell surface

A

True

133
Q

True or false: fermented foods and yogurt are good sources of prebiotics

A

False

134
Q

A viroid: is a small, circular ssRNA molecule, usually has no capsid, lacks protein-encoding genes

A

All are correct

135
Q

Metagenomics (‘over/above genetics’) has been used to survey the human skin and environmental samples for microorganisms. Advances in which techniques have made this possible?

A

PCR and DNA sequencing

136
Q

True or false: prion disease affect only humans

A

False

137
Q

True or false: human prion disease can be inherited

A

True

138
Q

The complement system is considered part of the _____ immune system because it is activated by _____

A

Innate, any bacteria

139
Q

Which of the following demonstrate an interaction between gut microbiota and the host: gnotobiotic mice, streptokinase, intestinal M cells

A

Gnotobiotic mice, intestinal M cells

140
Q

Which property of viroids is most responsible for their ability to infect an entire plant

A

Their size

141
Q

True or false: Colonic epithelial cells get most of their energy from the blood stream

A

False

142
Q

Coagulase is a _____ protein used to _____

A

Bacterial, escape immune detection

143
Q

Certain types of E coli produce a chemical mutagen called Colibactin. Studies have shown that it causes mutations consistent with _____ in humans.

A

Colon cancer

144
Q

Neutrophil expressed traps (NETS) are made of?

A

DNA

145
Q

True or false: live virus can be used to vaccinate against influenza

A

True

146
Q

Cholera toxin is an _____

A

Enterotoxin

147
Q

Which of the following might a pathogen use to prevent phagocytosis: hemolysin, transposes, streptokinase, capsule

A

Capsule

148
Q

The ability to make antibody quickly after a second exposure to antigen is ultimately due to _____

A

Memory cells

149
Q

Failure to remove immature T cells that react too strongly to MHC molecules can lead to _____

A

Autoimmune disease

150
Q

Treating Ebola patients with hyper-immune sera from an infected patient is classified as _____

A

Artificially acquired passive immunity

151
Q

The ‘a’ in the DTaP vaccine refers to?

A

The type of vaccine

152
Q

What do treatment for Covid with Paxlovid and certain types of HIV ART have in common: both block viral fusion, both inhibit the viral protease, both are nucleotide analogs

A

Both inhibit the viral protease

153
Q

Why are most domesticated turkeys recently being raised indoors

A

To prevent viral infection

154
Q

During the Phase III trials for the Covid mRNA vaccine, the majority of side effects were reported in the vaccine arm of the trial

A

False

155
Q

Most virus-infected cells are identified and destroyed by _____

A

Cytotoxic T cells

156
Q

The Flu vaccine is not always effective in preventing severe disease. This can be due to _____

A

Variants that arise after production starts

157
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are made by immortalizing mouse _____ cells from the _____ with cancer cells

A

B, spleen

158
Q

The original Whooping cough vaccine used in the US was more effective than the one currently being used. Which of the following explains why: original vaccine was a subunit vaccine, current vaccine is whole agent vaccine, original vaccine induced more memory cells

A

The Original vaccine induced more memory cells

159
Q

True or false: Tick bites have been shown to cause a delayed allergic reaction to a mammalian carbohydrate

A

True

160
Q

True or false: recent experiments have shown gut bacteria can reduce the prevalence of type II diabetes in mice

A

True

161
Q

_____ refers to the process by which B cell populations are expanded to produce a specific antibody producing cell.

A

Clonal selection

162
Q

B cells are activated by interacting with _____ T cells to produce _____

A

Helper, antibodies

163
Q

Antibody-mediated immunity is particularly effective against _____

A

Extracellular pathogens

164
Q

Which of the following can be used as a diagnostic test for a suspected infection: florescent antibody staining, selective culture media, agglutination

A

All are correct

165
Q

Identify the viral infection that is transmitted by aerosol droplets: Influenza, HPV, West Nile, Lyme disease

A

Influenza

166
Q

HPV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells, This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____

A

Stimulate antibody and cytotoxic T cell production

167
Q

Activation of a naive cytotoxic T cell (Tc) requires engagement of a co-receptor pair CD28/B7. Antigen Presenting Cells and cytotoxic T cells are originally brought together by _____

A

MHC, TCR, & antigen

168
Q

True or false: there is a single antibody gene for every antigen your body will ever encounter

A

False

169
Q

We all hope that COVID-19 will become an endemic disease worldwide. When this happens what will be different?

A

New variants will be less infectious

170
Q

True or false: the Tuberculosis skin test is a type of immediate inflammatory response

A

False

171
Q

True or false: a ring that causes a rash in your finger involves Mast cell activation

A

True

172
Q

The main habitat (reservoir) of Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus is _____

A

Soil

173
Q

PDL1, immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy is an _____ based treatment which can _____ the number of T cells attacking a tumor

A

Antibody, increase

174
Q

The control line in a rapid test tells you _____

A

You have added enough sample

175
Q

Typhus and Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are both caused by _____

A

Bacterial parasites

176
Q

The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to: activate T cells & macrophage, process antigens, display antigen

A

All are correct

177
Q

Which of the following is NOT able to act as an antigen presenting cell: dendritic cells, immature B cells, plasma cells, macrophage

A

Plasma cells

178
Q

True or false: over 300,000 people die every year worldwide due to under-treated Strep throat

A

True

179
Q

One reason there are far fewer antiviral drugs is _____

A

Viruses use host processes to multiply

180
Q

True or false: PreP is a form of antiretroviral treatment for HIV infection, that when taken daily, reduces viral load to the point where the person cannot transmit the virus

A

True

181
Q

True or false: ‘Cytokine storms’ can be caused by infections and/or cancer treatment

A

True

182
Q

Antibodies present in a newborn are considered _____

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity

183
Q

Thymic education refers to the process by which _____ are selected for their ability to recognize _____ properly

A

T cells, host/self antigen

184
Q

Novel Chicken Virus 7 has a high mortality rate (~80%). What kind of evidence would be the most concerning in terms of pandemic risk?

A

Poultry worker family deaths

185
Q

HIV specifically attacks and kills helper T cells. This drastically weakens the immune system because helper T cells _____

A

Stimulate antibody & cytotoxic T cell production

186
Q

True or false: HPV vaccination can be be effective after having sex

A

True

187
Q

True or false: cancer progression requires prophage integration into a stem cell

A

True

188
Q

True or false: a test for anti-Covid 19 antibodies on the day of infection would be negative

A

True

189
Q

After activation, B cell receptors (BCR) become _____

A

Antibodies

190
Q

Why are Western blots used to confirm rapid diagnostic tests (HIV & others)

A

They produce a more complex banding pattern

191
Q

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease (SCID) is a genetic condition which: affects antibody production, results in a lack of Natural Killer T cells, affects T cell production

A

Affects antibody production & affects T cell production

192
Q

True or false: Chimeric Antigen Receptor T cell therapy (CART) does not always work. Antigen-positive relapse means the cancer antigen has mutated

A

False

193
Q

True or false: Mast cells have receptors for an antibody variable region

A

False

194
Q

True or false: there is an antibody for every allergen

A

True

195
Q

Which of the following are established reservoirs for Influenza: domesticated turkeys, wild turkeys, pigs

A

All are correct

196
Q

_____ refers to the protective effect for all, including unvaccinated people, that comes from immunizing as many people as possible

A

Herd immunity

197
Q

What do BCG treatmeant, halo nevi, and spontaneous remission have in common

A

All suggest a role for the immune system in fighting cancer

198
Q

True or false: Smallpox is an endemic disease in parts of Africa

A

False

199
Q

True or false: Type O blood reacts with anti-Type B antibodies in serologic agglutination tests

A

False

Microbio 310 (6 decks)

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