Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

what is a synapse?

A

site of communication between a neuron and another cell

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2
Q

types of synapses

A

1) electrical
2) chemical

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3
Q

how do electrical synapses work?

A
  • direct physical contact between cells
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4
Q

how do chemical synapses work?

A
  • signal transmitted across a gap (synaptic cleft) by chemical neurotransmitters
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5
Q

what does the production of action potential depend on in chemical synapses?

A
  • amount and type of neurotransmitter released
  • sensitivity of postsynaptic cell
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6
Q

what are the steps of action potential in chemical synpases?

A

1) action potential arrives & depolarizes synaptic knob
2) synaptic vesicles are exocytosed & neurotransmitter molecules are released
3) neurotransmitter crosses synaptic cleft & binds to receptor
4) ion channels open, depolarizing membrane & producing a graded potential
5) neurotransmitter removed & depolarization ends

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7
Q

what are cholinergic synapses?

A
  • synapses that use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter
  • most common type of synapse
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8
Q

how does a cholinergic synapse work?

A

1) AP depolarizes synaptic knob
2) Ca2+ channels open
- Ca2+ enter
- Ach exocytosed
3) Ach binds to receptor
- Na+ enters
- depolarize membrane
4) AchE breaks down Ach (acetate + choline)

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9
Q

what are the 2 types of neurotransmitters?

A

1) excitatory
2) inhibitory

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10
Q

how do excitatory neurotransmitters work?

A
  • cause depolarization of post-synaptic membranes
    (excitatory postsynaptic potential = EPSP)
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11
Q

how do inhibitory neurotransmitters work?

A
  • cause hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membranes
    (inhibitory postsynaptic potential = IPSP)
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12
Q

effect on postsynaptic membrane depends on what?

A

the RECEPTOR

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13
Q

what are the 2 types of summation of postsynaptic potential (PSPs)?

A

1) spatial
2) temporal

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14
Q

do fewer synapses mean faster response?

A

yes

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15
Q

what is synaptic fatigue?

A
  • occurs when neurotransmitter cannot be recycled fast enough to meet demands of intense stimuli
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16
Q

what are some major neurotransmitters?

A
  • norepinephrine (NE)
  • dopamine
  • serotonin
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17
Q

what are some characteristics of norepinephrine?

A
  • released by adrenergic synapses
  • excitatory & depolarizing effect
  • brain & portions of ANS
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18
Q

what are some characteristics of dopamine?

A
  • CNS neurotransmitter
  • excitatory or inhibitory
  • involved in Parkinson’s diseases, cocaine use
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19
Q

what are some characteristics of serotonin?

A
  • CNS neurotransmitter
  • affects attention & emotional states
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19
Q

what are the 2 types of electrical signals?

A

1) graded potentials
2) action potentials

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19
Q

what are graded potentials?

A
  • affect only a small portion of a cell membrane
  • allows communication over short distances
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20
Q

how do action potentials work?

A
  • affect the entire surface of a cell membrane
  • allow communication over long distances
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21
Q

what are the 3 phases of graded potentials?

A

1) resting
2) stimulation
3) depolarization

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22
Q

what are the 5 phases of action potentials?

A

1) resting
2) threshold
3) activation/depolarization
4) inactivation/repolarization
5) return to resting

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23
Q

how do signals work in graded potentials?

A
  • vary with stimulus
  • # of channels opened/closed
  • time channel remains opened/closed
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24
Q

how do signals work in action potentials?

A
  • all or none principle
  • if depolarization reaches threshold, ion channels open & action potential occurs
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25
Q

what is the refractory period?

A

period of time during which another action potential cannot be generated
- begins with depolarization
- ends when repolarization is “almost” complete

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26
Q

what are the 2 types of action potential propagation?

A

1) continuous
2) saltatory

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27
Q

what are characteristics of continuous action potential propagation?

A
  • unmyelinated axons
  • slower
  • every portion of axon membrane must depolarize
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28
Q

what are the 4 steps of continuous propagation?

A

1) AP produced in initial segment
2) Local current depolarizes segment 2
3) AP produced in segment 2
4) Local current produced in segment 3
Cycle repeats

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29
Q

what are the 4 steps in saltatory propagation?

A

1) AP produced in initial segment
2) Local current depolarizes node 1
3) AP produced at node 1
4) Local current depolarizes node 2
Cycle repeats

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30
Q

what is the action potential frequency?

A

the greater the number of action potentials per second, the “stronger” the stimulus “feels”

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31
Q

what is transmembrane potential?

A

difference in electrical charge between the inside & outside of a cell membrane
- outside = POSITIVE
- inside = NEGATIVE

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32
Q

what is the difference in concentration levels of ions between the ECF vs ICF?

A

Outside
- high sodium (Na+)
- high chloride (Cl-)
Inside
- high potassium (K+)
- high proteins (-)

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33
Q

how does the Na+/K+ exchange pump work?

A
  • moves 3 Na+ ions out for every 2 K+ in
  • inside gets “less positive” or “more negative”
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34
Q

what are ion channels?

A

protein tunnels for specific ions

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35
Q

what are the major sections and subsections of the human brain?

A

1) Brainstem
- midbrain
- pons
- medulla oblongata

2) Diencephalon
- epithalamus
- thalamus
- hypothalamus

3) Cerebrum

4) Cerebellum

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36
Q

True or False: organs contain 2 or more tissues that work together to perform specific complex functions

A

True

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37
Q

True or false: a molecule is made up of a combination of 2 or more atoms

A

True

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38
Q

A(n) ____ plane separates the body into superior and inferior parts.

A

transverse

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39
Q

The word ____ implies an imaginary flat surface passing through the body

A

plane

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40
Q

A plane that passes through the structure at an angle is called

A

oblique

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41
Q

what best defines “superficial”?

A

On the outside

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42
Q

The directional term that means “in back of” or “toward the back surface” is

A

posterior

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43
Q

which system is responsible for providing protection, regulating body temperature, and being the site of cutaneous receptors?

A

Integumentary

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44
Q

the category of reactions in which larger molecules are broken down into smaller ones is known as

A

catabolism

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45
Q

at what level of organization is a tooth, which contains multiple tissue types?

A

organ level

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46
Q

how to accurately describe the organization of structures?

A

organs are made up of tissues, which are made up cells, which are made up of organelles and molecules

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47
Q

with the subject in anatomical position, one can best see the dorsum of the manus from a(n) ___ view

A

posterior

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48
Q

what is the anatomic term for the hip region?

A

coxal

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49
Q

an inguinal hernia is in the region of the…

A

groin

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50
Q

“Pollex” refers to the…

A

thumb

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51
Q

the bones of the vertebral column form a cavity called the…

A

vertebral canal

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52
Q

the anatomic term for the cheek is…

A

buccal

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53
Q

The limbs of the body are attached to the axis and make up the…

A

appendicular region

54
Q

the axillary region is ___ to the pectoral region

A

lateral

55
Q

the various chemical reactions that organisms carry out are collectively called…

A

metabolism

56
Q

True or false: the central nervous system acts as the control center for the regulation of blood calcium & blood glucose

A

False

57
Q

If carbon dioxide levels rise in the body, negative feedback mechanisms will trigger…

A

an increase in breathing so that carbon dioxide levels decline to the set point

58
Q

the normal level at which a physiological variable is known as its…

A

set point

59
Q

True or false: if your body temperature starts to decline, your body responds by exciting skeletal muscles so that you shiver and your temperature returns to normal. This is an example of negative feedback.

A

True

60
Q

what is the correct order of the components of a homeostatic control system in proper order?

A

Stimulus, receptor, control center, effector

61
Q

when you are exposed to bright light, cells in the retina detect the stimulus and send it to the brain for processing. The brain commands the iris to constrict and decrease pupil size. Which structure serves as a receptor in this system?

A

the retina

62
Q

the primary function of serous fluid is…

A

to serve as a lubricant

63
Q

the pleural cavity is the…

A

potential space between the 2 serous membranes surrounding a lung

64
Q

the pericardium is a 2-layered serous membrane that…

A

encloses the heart

65
Q

the serous fluid that helps in cardiac function is located…

A

in the pericardial cavity, between the parietal and visceral pericardial layers

66
Q

with a specimen in anatomic position, you can best see the mediastinum with a ____ view

A

frontal

67
Q

True or false: the antecubital region is proximal to the carpal region

A

True

68
Q

which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective?

A

simple squamous

69
Q

when a small, polar solute binds to a membrane protein that then changes shape and transports the solute across the membrane, the process is known as…

A

carrier protein mediated diffusion

70
Q

the sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing…

A

primary active transport

71
Q

the most abundant lipid of the membrane consists of a head and 2 tails. this type of lipid is…

A

a phospholipid

72
Q

proteins that assist the movement of a substances across the membrane are called ____

A

transport

73
Q

glycolipids are found on the…

A

outer layer of the cell membrane, and they help make the sticky sugar coating on its surface

74
Q

consider a cell with a total internal solute concentration of 0.9%. Placing the cell in which bath solution would result in creation of the greatest osmotic pressure in the cell?

A

0.5% NaCl

75
Q

movement of a substance from an area of higher concentration to one where it is less concentrated is known as…

A

diffusion

76
Q

the sodium-potassium pump moves…

A

sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell

77
Q

which type of pump uses active transport process?

A

ion pump

78
Q

Diffusion rate is fastest when the concentration gradient is…

A

steepest and temperature is highest

79
Q

what is a type of a passive transport process?

A

osmosis

80
Q

the uptake of cholesterol into cells is an example of…

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

81
Q

coupled transport that involves the moving of one substance against its concentration gradient by using energy from a second substance moving down its concentration gradient is known as…

A

secondary active transport

82
Q

the release of neurotransmitter from a neuron is an example of…

A

exocytosis and it requires expenditure of ATP

83
Q

what are the types of non-membrane-bound organelles?

A
  • microtubule
  • cytoskeleton
  • centrioles
  • ribosomes
  • cilia
  • microvilli
  • proteasomes
84
Q

what are the 3 general functions that cells must perform?

A

1) maintain shape
2) obtain nutrients
3) dispose of wastes

85
Q

another name for intracellular fluid is…

A

cytosol

86
Q

if the nutrient glycogen is found stored inside a cell, it is considered a(n)…

A

inclusion

87
Q

the ____ is responsible for forming the outer, limiting barrier of a cell

A

plasma membrane

88
Q

True or false: over time diffusion results in the even distribution of a substance throughout an area

A

True

89
Q

True or false: materials tend to move less rapidly when their concentrations are significantly different between 2 compartments

A

False

90
Q

True or false: most cells perform pinocytosis

A

True

91
Q

True or false: all cells must obtain nutrients, form new chemical structures, and dispose of waste molecules

A

true

92
Q

True or false: one example of a membrane-bound organelle is a ribosome

A

False

93
Q

True or false: the centrosome is considered to be an inclusion

A

False

94
Q

The folds of the internal membrane of a mitochondrion are called…

A

cristae

95
Q

Removal of old organelles is via a process called…

A

autophagy

96
Q

mucus is moved along the lining of the trachea by extensions from cell membrane known as…

A

cilia

97
Q

Identify the organelle that provides enzymes for autolysis

A

Lysosomes

98
Q

the ____ are responsible for synthesizing most of a human body cell’s ATP

A

mitochondria

99
Q

in humans, the only cell that bears a flagellum is the ___ cell

A

sperm

100
Q

which is NOT a membrane-bound organelle?
- nucleus
- mitochondria
- endoplasmic reticulum
- Golgi apparatus
- lysosomes
- peroxisomes

A

all of the choices are membrane-bound organelles

101
Q

the term “codon” refers to

A

3 nucleotides that encode for a specific amino acid

102
Q

the E site of a ribosome is where…

A

the tRNA exits the ribosome

103
Q

During transcription…

A

an RNA molecule is formed as a DNA sequence is read

104
Q

what is a required enzyme for the process of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase

105
Q

True or false: DNA is the control center of the cell because it directs the synthesis of proteins, which are responsible for most cellular functions

A

True

106
Q

The function of the nucleolus is to make…

A

the subunits of ribosomes

107
Q

the nuclear envelope consists primarily of…

A

2 phospholipid bilayers

108
Q

True or false: A little over 50% of the total amount of DNA in a human cell consists of genes

A

False

109
Q

Because they produce ribosome subunits, one would expect to find large numbers of nucleoli in cells that synthesize…

A

proteins

110
Q

what is NOT secreted by glands?

A

DNA

111
Q

A ____ epithelium consists of a single layer of flattened cells attached directly to a basement membrane

A

simple squamous

112
Q

the type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and may include some binucleated cells is called ____ epithelium

A

transitional

113
Q

the lining of the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) is comprised of what epithelium?

A

simple squamous

114
Q

which type of epithelial tissue would be the least protective?

A

simple squamous

115
Q

which type of epithelium is composed of multiple layers, including an apical layer containing tall, slender cells?

A

stratified columnar

116
Q

which tissue type covers body surfaces and lines the inside of organs and body cavities?

A

epithelial

117
Q

microscopic folds that extend from the apical surface of certain epithelia to increase the surface area for absorption and secretion are called…

A

microvilli

118
Q

if you gently rub your thumb and forefinger together, each finger is contacting…

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

119
Q

you would most likely find goblet cells in what type of tissue?

A

epithelial tissue

120
Q

what feature is NOT characteristic of epithelial tissue?

A

large amount of extracellular matrix

121
Q

in what tissue would you expect to find very little, if any, extracellular matrix?

A

epithelial tissue

122
Q

True or false: tight junctions provide direct passageways for substances to travel between neighboring cells

A

false

123
Q

true or false: the lysosome is an example of a membrane-bound organelle

A

true

124
Q

true or false: lysosome functions range from the digestion of materials ingested by the cell to the self-destruction of the cell

A

true

125
Q

some bone interiors contain hemopoietic tissue, which functions in…

A

producing blood cells

126
Q

in connective tissue, the extracellular matrix consists of…

A

protein fibers and ground substance

127
Q

what feature of your ear accounts for its ability to regain its shape after it has been deformed or compressed?

A

the elastic fibers present in the ear’s cartilage

128
Q

what is the most abundant protein in the body, forming about 25% of all body protein?

A

collagen

129
Q

what unit of bone consists of a central canal (containing blood vessels, nerves, and lymph vessels) surrounded by concentric rings of calcified matrix?

A

osteon

130
Q

which cellular feature is found both cartilage and bone?

A

lacuna

131
Q

which type of connective tissue is found in the papillary layer of the dermis and contains all of the cell types of connective tissue proper?

A

areolar

132
Q

where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium?

A

covering cartilage

133
Q

which primary tissue type would be represented by blood, body fat, ligaments and tendons, dermis of the skin, and the cartilage of some joints?

A

connective tissue

134
Q

Plasma is…

A

a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins

135
Q

True or false: the anatomic position allows all observers to have a common point of reference

A

true