final exam Flashcards

1
Q

Slower than normal pulse rate

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False
Typically, adults’ height are measured once a year (annually)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Heart starting w/ tapping sound which represents systolic pressure & ends when the sound disappears (diastole)

A

Korotkoff Sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Number of breaths taken in 1 minute are known as _______ and the normal range for adults is _________

A

Respirations, 12-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The top number of a blood pressure is called ______ and is defined as_____________

A

Systolic, pressure in arteries when heart beats & pushes blood out to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pauses in breathing during sleep

A

sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Excessive rate and depth of breathing is known as

A

Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which term is used when there is a drop in body temp below 95 degrees F

A

Hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True of False
Taking a rectal temperature is the most accurate method for children under the age of 4

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Helps assess general Physical health of person, gives clues to possible diseases, & shows progress towards recovery

A

Vital Signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False
Head circumference is usually measured on an infant up to age 1

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This type of temperature taking method measures arterial blood temperature

A

Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The condition for blood pressure at 140/90 mm Hg or higher is known as ______

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Measurements of pressure or force of blood against the walls of arteries is ______ & a healthy reading is _________

A

Blood pressure , 120/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Low blood oxygen saturation (lower than 95%)

A

Hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Respiration rate under 12

A

Bradypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false
A rectal temperature is typically 1 degree F lower than oral temperatures

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A faster than normal pulse rate is known as

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Deep snoring or rattling sounds associated with asthma, acute bronchitis, or other partial lung obstruction

A

Rhonchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Amplifies body sound, consists of earpieces, tubing, & a chest piece consisting of a diaphragm & bell

A

Stethoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false
An axillary temperature is usually 1 to 2 degrees F lower than rectal temperature

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Used to Measure blood pressure and has a circular gauge

A

Sphygmomanometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pulse is the ________ & the normal range for adults is ______

A

Number of heart beats in a minute, 60-100 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or false Height and weight on adults should be measured to the nearest 1/4 inch and 1/2 pound
False
26
Calculated based on height and weight and calculated using the CDC chart or with a calculator
BMI (Body Mass Index)
27
True or False Weight, length and head circumference are the usual measurements on an infant
false ( because it’s missing chest circumference)
28
Which word means " without fever"
Afebrile
29
Another word for low blood pressure is _______ and means any BP reading under__________________________
Hypotension, 90/60
30
Height, weight, head circumference (waist, hip, limbs), skinfold thickness
Anthropometric measurements
31
The bottom number of a blood pressure reading is known as _____ and is defined as _______
Diastolic, pressure in the arteries when the heart rest between beats
32
True or false Absence of respiration is known as hypoxemia
False
33
Crackling sounds indicating fluid in patients' w/ pneumonia, atelectasis, pulmonary edema
Rales
34
A systolic BP that is 120 to 139 & a diastolic BP is called _____ and should be ______
Prehypertensive, monitored closely
35
A Pulse oximeter measures what? and can be placed where on the body?
Can be used on the bridge of the nose, finger, toe and ear lobe measured the pulse and blood oxygen saturation
36
This word is used to describe all equipment being appropriately validated and checked regularly
Calibrated
37
Factors that affect blood pressure include...
Disease, exercise and stress
38
True or false factors affecting temperatures include illness, infection, stress, exercise, drinking hot and cold beverages and dehydration
True
39
Mood disorder that presents as sadness on various levels and loss of interest in every day activities
Depression
40
True or false  when converting Fahrenheit to Celsius, you must subtract 30 and then divide by 2
True
41
A ROS is known as __________and is performed by the ______________.
Review of systems, physicians
42
True or false women, children, and the elderly are more likely to be abused
True
43
A feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease typically about an eminent event or something with an uncertain outcome
Anxiety
44
WNL means
Within normal limits
45
In a SOAP note, The A stands for ____ which means ___ and the P stands for ___ which means ____.
Assessment, exam and data, plan, treatment
46
True or false when interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST method, the P stands for provoking factors
True
47
True or false psychological abuse is usually very easy to detect
False
48
What is the first step in the patient exam process
Patient interview
49
Right ear abbreviation
AD
50
True or false When interviewing a patient while using the PQRST method the R stands for repeating
False
51
True or false it’s important not to pay attention to the relationship between the child and the caregiver, as it may make them uneasy
False
52
HPI means ________________and you can typically follow the ______________ method to get detailed information from the patient
History of present illness, PQRST
53
This may cause a person to behave erratically
Substance Abuse
54
True or False When interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST methods, the T stands for Timing and triggers
True
55
____________means eliciting a yes or no response while ____________allows the patient to give more details
Closed ended questions, Opened ended questions
56
True or False Objective data is lab results, vital signs or anything else that is raw data
True
57
what does the letters in PQRST stand for?
- provokes - quality/quantity - radiates - severity - time
58
True or False The 6 C’s of charting included clients words, clarity, completeness, conciseness, chronological orders & confidentiality
True
59
The reason a patient has been seen is known as _____________and is also considered ____________.
Chief complaint ,subjective data
60
True or false Addiction usually only involve psychological dependence
False
61
May be detected with telltale signs such as head injuries and skull fractures, burns, broken bones, and bruises
Physical abuse
62
Information is arranged according to who supplied the data
SOMP
63
A way patient records can be stored with all recent information is on top is known as
Reverse chronological order
64
Patient history includes
- Medical - surgical - family - social
65
Revolves around patients problems or conditions (medical history)
POMR (problem oriented medical record)
66
True or false The word “subjective” indicates a test result has proven something
False
67
True or false when interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST method, the Q stands for quality and quantity
True
68
True or false the elderly are often dependent on a caregiver &/or are unable to communicate to report abuse
True
69
True or false Abuse of a child can be physical, emotional, or sexual but there is typically no neglect involved
False
70
True or false when converting Celsius to Fahrenheit, you must multiply by 1.8 and subtract 32
False
71
Abbreviation of “both eyes"
OU
72
Which word means exceptionally high fever
hyperpyrexia
73
Enforces patient’s confidentiality must be posted in patient area
HIPPA
74
True or false Women ages 20 through 24 are at the greater risk of being abused and may stay in abusive relationships for a variety of reasons
True
75
SOAP stands for
Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
76
True or false the abbreviation for chief complaint is CC
True
77
 True or false court cannot request a patient’s chart because of HIPPA
False
78
what should an MA wear to follow contact precautions
gloves and a gown
79
A technique that prevents or reduces the spread of microorganisms from one site to another
standard precautions
80
what do droplet precautions require
- distancing - mask - goggles
81
this patient position requires no support and allows examination of the head, neck, chest, heart, back, and arms
sitting
82
when a patient is in the sitting position, the doctor can listen to ___ to identify ___
breathing patterns, lung conditions
83
true or false supine position is good for patients who are experiencing SOB or are in late pregnancy
false
84
if a patient is having back pain, you can ___ or change them to the lithotomy or ___ position
place a pillow under knees, dorsal recumbent
85
true or false the dorsal recumbent position may be uncomfortable for patients with leg diabilities
true
86
true or false the lithotomy position is good for those with back or hip issues
false
87
true or false in fowlers position, a patients head is at a 45 degree angle, is good for patients who are SOB or LBP
true
88
the position when patients lie on their left side with their right knee bent towards the chest
sims
89
process of identifying a disease, condition, or injury based on the signs, symptoms, and history is known as
clinical diagnosis
90
Branch of medicine specializing in the anatomy, function and disease of the eye
Ophthalmology 
91
subjective information provided by the patient is known as
symptoms
92
determining the correct diagnosis when 2 or more diagnoses are possible
differential diagnosis
93
forecast of the probable course and outcome of the disorder and the prospects of recovery
prognosis
94
Chronic inflammation of the eyelids edges, common in older people
Blepharitis
95
protects employees and ensures the workplace is safe
OSHA
96
establishes guidelines to protect both patients and healthcare workers in medical office and hospital settings
CDC
97
true or false wear gloves when you may come in contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, or moist surfaces
true
98
when preparing a patient for a phyisical exam, it is important to
- be aware of their needs and assist if needed - have patient empty their bladder - make sure they have a gown/drapes
99
pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that shapes the way people think and act
culture
100
making judgements about a person or group of people on the basis of experiences
stereotyping
101
moving from place to place
ambulate
102
visual exam of patients body (size, shape, color, position, symmertry)
inspection
103
listening to body sounds
ausculation
104
feeling with fingers or hands during a physical exam
palpation
105
tapping or striking body to hear sounds or feel vibrations
percussion
106
the extent or limit to which a part of the body can be moved around a joint or fixed point
ROM (range of motion)
107
overly deep breathing that leads to a loss of carbon dioxide in the blood
hyperventilation
108
humpback (excessive outward curvature of the spine)
kyphosis
109
inward curve of the lumbar spine
lordosis
110
extreme lordosis is known as
swayback
111
abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
scoliosis
112
the abdominal area is divided into how many quadrents?
4
113
palpation of the rectum for lesions or irregularities
digital examination
114
yearly exam to confirm patients health or diagnose a physical problem
physical exam
115
ease a which people can move in and out of a space
accessibility
116
broadens definition of disability, makes it easier for individuals seeking protection to show that they have a disability
ADA amendments act of 2008
117
the absence of viruses, bacteria, or other microorganisms
asepsis
118
scrubbing instruments and equipment, uses brushes and detergent to remove blood, mucus, and other contaminants
sanitization
119
complete destruction of all living microorganisms
sterilization
120
process that kills most (but not all) microorganisms
disinfection
121
thick walled reproductive bodies capable of resisting harsh conditions and can only be destroyed through sterilization
spores
122
cleaning products applied to objects to reduce or eliminate infectious microorganisms are known as
Disinfectant
123
cleaning products used on human tissues as anti-infection agents
antiseptics
124
used to open anus for an exam
anoscope
125
reflects light inside of the mouth and throat for exams
laryngeal mirror
126
enlarges an opening for viewing
speculum
127
lighted instrument used to examine inner structures of the eye
ophthalmoscope
128
Drooping of upper eyelid in which lid partially covers the eye
Ptosis
129
used to examine ear canal and tympanic membrane
otoscope
130
small flashlight used when additional light is necessary in small areas, also to check pupil response
pen light
131
has a hard triangular rubber head and is used to check patient reflexes
reflex hammer
132
handheld device used to test patient hearing
tuning fork
133
Eyelash follicle infection usually caused from staph bacteria
Stye
134
Lesions on cornea from injury, infections and a scratch on cornea that can become infected with bacteria, viruses
Corneal ulcers and abrasions
135
Cloudy or opaque area and normally clear lens of eye that leads to progressive loss of vision
Cataracts
136
Condition in which fluid (aqueous humor) pressure builds up inside the eye
Glaucoma
137
Retina separates from underlying choroid layer which damages vision
Retina detachment
138
Damage to small blood vessels that supply retina resulting in loss of vision
Diabetic retinopathy
139
Loss of vision in the center of an image, leading cause of blindness among a elderly in the US
Macular degeneration
140
Deviation of one eye (such as misalignment or imbalance of eyes in children)
Strabismus
141
Refers to the way light from object is focus through the eye to form an image on the retina
Refraction
142
Farsightedness caused by loss of Elasticity of the lens of the eye, occurring typically in middle and old age
Presbyopia
143
Vision distorted because cornea is on evenly curved or the lens has an abnormal shape, makes driving at night difficult
Astigmatism
144
Hand held instrument with a light to view the inner eyes structures
Ophthalmoscope
145
One of the most common color vision test that uses a system of colored dots to test for color blind list
Ishihara color test
146
Treats diseases and disorders of the ears
Otologist
147
Condition when outer ear canal becomes blocked by a buildup of earwax
Cerumen impaction
148
Also known as swimmers ear
Otitis externa
149
what is Pruritis
severe sensation of itching
150
Inflammation of middle ear, most common ear infection and children and is caused by fluid build up
Otitis media
151
Infection from middle ear spreads to mastoid bone through air , rare and serious
Mastoiditis
152
Bone tissue grows abnormally around stapes or stirrups, Results in hearing lost, condition is hereditary
Otosclerosis
153
Caused by sharp objects, and explosion, below to ear or server middle ear infection resulting in discharge and bleeding
Ruptured ear drum
154
Sensorineural hearing lost more common in older men
Presbycusis
155
Infection of the labyrinth of ear caused by virus
Labyrinthitis
156
Increased fluid and liberated affecting sense of balance, vertigo, nausea, vomiting distorted hearing
Meniere’s Disease
157
Ringing in the ears (buzzing, whistling, hissing)
Tinnitus
158
Caused by an interruption in transmission of sound waves to inner ear caused from impaction infection or sclerosis
Conductive hearing loss
159
Caused from damage to inner ear, to the nerve that leads from ear to brain and then the brain itself
Sensorineural hearing loss
160
Prolonged exposure to loud noises-construction workers, aircraft personnel and machine operators causes damage to hearing
Noise pollution
161
True or false When communicating with patients and coworkers with hearing loss it’s important to speak very loud so they can hear you
False
162
Hearing test with tuning fork to test sound conduction and patient
Rinne Test
163
Electronic device that measures hearing acuity by producing sounds in specific frequencies and intensities 
Audiometer
164
Number of complete fluctuations (waves) of energy that pass a specific point in 1 second
Frequency
165
Unit of measuring the relative intensity or loudness of sound on a scale from 0 to 130
Decibels
166
Measures the eardrums ability to move
Tympanometry
167
Specialist who focuses on evaluating and correcting hearing problems
Audiologist
168
Chart of letters used to test visions of people who can read
Snellen letter chart
169
Used to test visions of children and non-reading adults
Snellen tumbling E chart