final exam Flashcards

1
Q

Slower than normal pulse rate

A

Bradycardia

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2
Q

True or False
Typically, adults’ height are measured once a year (annually)

A

True

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3
Q

Heart starting w/ tapping sound which represents systolic pressure & ends when the sound disappears (diastole)

A

Korotkoff Sounds

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4
Q

Number of breaths taken in 1 minute are known as _______ and the normal range for adults is _________

A

Respirations, 12-20

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5
Q

The top number of a blood pressure is called ______ and is defined as_____________

A

Systolic, pressure in arteries when heart beats & pushes blood out to body

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6
Q

Pauses in breathing during sleep

A

sleep apnea

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7
Q

Excessive rate and depth of breathing is known as

A

Hyperventilation

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8
Q

Which term is used when there is a drop in body temp below 95 degrees F

A

Hypothermia

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9
Q

True of False
Taking a rectal temperature is the most accurate method for children under the age of 4

A

True

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10
Q

Helps assess general Physical health of person, gives clues to possible diseases, & shows progress towards recovery

A

Vital Signs

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11
Q

True or False
Head circumference is usually measured on an infant up to age 1

A

True

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12
Q

This type of temperature taking method measures arterial blood temperature

A

Temporal

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13
Q

The condition for blood pressure at 140/90 mm Hg or higher is known as ______

A

Hypertension

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14
Q

Measurements of pressure or force of blood against the walls of arteries is ______ & a healthy reading is _________

A

Blood pressure , 120/80

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15
Q

Low blood oxygen saturation (lower than 95%)

A

Hypoxemia

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16
Q

Difficulty breathing

A

Dyspnea

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17
Q

Respiration rate under 12

A

Bradypnea

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18
Q

True or false
A rectal temperature is typically 1 degree F lower than oral temperatures

A

False

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19
Q

A faster than normal pulse rate is known as

A

Tachycardia

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20
Q

Deep snoring or rattling sounds associated with asthma, acute bronchitis, or other partial lung obstruction

A

Rhonchi

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21
Q

Amplifies body sound, consists of earpieces, tubing, & a chest piece consisting of a diaphragm & bell

A

Stethoscope

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22
Q

True or false
An axillary temperature is usually 1 to 2 degrees F lower than rectal temperature

A

True

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23
Q

Used to Measure blood pressure and has a circular gauge

A

Sphygmomanometers

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24
Q

Pulse is the ________ & the normal range for adults is ______

A

Number of heart beats in a minute, 60-100 bpm

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25
Q

True or false
Height and weight on adults should be measured to the nearest 1/4 inch and 1/2 pound

A

False

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26
Q

Calculated based on height and weight and calculated using the CDC chart or with a calculator

A

BMI (Body Mass Index)

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27
Q

True or False
Weight, length and head circumference are the usual measurements on an infant

A

false ( because it’s missing chest circumference)

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28
Q

Which word means “ without fever”

A

Afebrile

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29
Q

Another word for low blood pressure is _______ and means any BP reading under__________________________

A

Hypotension, 90/60

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30
Q

Height, weight, head circumference (waist, hip, limbs), skinfold thickness

A

Anthropometric measurements

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31
Q

The bottom number of a blood pressure reading is known as _____ and is defined as _______

A

Diastolic, pressure in the arteries when the heart rest between beats

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32
Q

True or false
Absence of respiration is known as hypoxemia

A

False

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33
Q

Crackling sounds indicating fluid in patients’ w/ pneumonia, atelectasis, pulmonary edema

A

Rales

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34
Q

A systolic BP that is 120 to 139 & a diastolic BP is called _____ and should be ______

A

Prehypertensive, monitored closely

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35
Q

A Pulse oximeter measures what? and can be placed where on the body?

A

Can be used on the bridge of the nose, finger, toe and ear lobe
measured the pulse and blood oxygen saturation

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36
Q

This word is used to describe all equipment being appropriately validated and checked regularly

A

Calibrated

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37
Q

Factors that affect blood pressure include…

A

Disease, exercise and stress

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38
Q

True or false
factors affecting temperatures include illness, infection, stress, exercise, drinking hot and cold beverages and dehydration

A

True

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39
Q

Mood disorder that presents as sadness on various levels and loss of interest in every day activities

A

Depression

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40
Q

True or false
 when converting Fahrenheit to Celsius, you must subtract 30 and then divide by 2

A

True

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41
Q

A ROS is known as __________and is performed by the ______________.

A

Review of systems, physicians

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42
Q

True or false
women, children, and the elderly are more likely to be abused

A

True

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43
Q

A feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease typically about an eminent event or something with an uncertain outcome

A

Anxiety

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44
Q

WNL means

A

Within normal limits

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45
Q

In a SOAP note, The A stands for ____ which means ___ and the P stands for ___ which means ____.

A

Assessment, exam and data, plan, treatment

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46
Q

True or false
when interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST method, the P stands for provoking factors

A

True

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47
Q

True or false
psychological abuse is usually very easy to detect

A

False

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48
Q

What is the first step in the patient exam process

A

Patient interview

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49
Q

Right ear abbreviation

A

AD

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50
Q

True or false
When interviewing a patient while using the PQRST method the R stands for repeating

A

False

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51
Q

True or false
it’s important not to pay attention to the relationship between the child and the caregiver, as it may make them uneasy

A

False

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52
Q

HPI means ________________and you can typically follow the ______________ method to get detailed information from the patient

A

History of present illness, PQRST

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53
Q

This may cause a person to behave erratically

A

Substance Abuse

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54
Q

True or False
When interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST methods, the T stands for Timing and triggers

A

True

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55
Q

____________means eliciting a yes or no response while ____________allows the patient to give more details

A

Closed ended questions, Opened ended questions

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56
Q

True or False
Objective data is lab results, vital signs or anything else that is raw data

A

True

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57
Q

what does the letters in PQRST stand for?

A
  • provokes
  • quality/quantity
  • radiates
  • severity
  • time
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58
Q

True or False
The 6 C’s of charting included clients words, clarity, completeness, conciseness, chronological orders & confidentiality

A

True

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59
Q

The reason a patient has been seen is known as _____________and is also considered ____________.

A

Chief complaint ,subjective data

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60
Q

True or false
Addiction usually only involve psychological dependence

A

False

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61
Q

May be detected with telltale signs such as head injuries and skull fractures, burns, broken bones, and bruises

A

Physical abuse

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62
Q

Information is arranged according to who supplied the data

A

SOMP

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63
Q

A way patient records can be stored with all recent information is on top is known as

A

Reverse chronological order

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64
Q

Patient history includes

A
  • Medical
  • surgical
  • family
  • social
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65
Q

Revolves around patients problems or conditions (medical history)

A

POMR (problem oriented medical record)

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66
Q

True or false
The word “subjective” indicates a test result has proven something

A

False

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67
Q

True or false
when interviewing a patient, while using the PQRST method, the Q stands for quality and quantity

A

True

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68
Q

True or false
the elderly are often dependent on a caregiver &/or are unable to communicate to report abuse

A

True

69
Q

True or false
Abuse of a child can be physical, emotional, or sexual but there is typically no neglect involved

A

False

70
Q

True or false
when converting Celsius to Fahrenheit, you must multiply by 1.8 and subtract 32

A

False

71
Q

Abbreviation of “both eyes”

A

OU

72
Q

Which word means exceptionally high fever

A

hyperpyrexia

73
Q

Enforces patient’s confidentiality must be posted in patient area

A

HIPPA

74
Q

True or false
Women ages 20 through 24 are at the greater risk of being abused and may stay in abusive relationships for a variety of reasons

A

True

75
Q

SOAP stands for

A

Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

76
Q

True or false
the abbreviation for chief complaint is CC

A

True

77
Q

 True or false
court cannot request a patient’s chart because of HIPPA

A

False

78
Q

what should an MA wear to follow contact precautions

A

gloves and a gown

79
Q

A technique that prevents or reduces the spread of microorganisms from one site to another

A

standard precautions

80
Q

what do droplet precautions require

A
  • distancing
  • mask
  • goggles
81
Q

this patient position requires no support and allows examination of the head, neck, chest, heart, back, and arms

A

sitting

82
Q

when a patient is in the sitting position, the doctor can listen to ___ to identify ___

A

breathing patterns, lung conditions

83
Q

true or false
supine position is good for patients who are experiencing SOB or are in late pregnancy

A

false

84
Q

if a patient is having back pain, you can ___ or change them to the lithotomy or ___ position

A

place a pillow under knees, dorsal recumbent

85
Q

true or false
the dorsal recumbent position may be uncomfortable for patients with leg diabilities

A

true

86
Q

true or false
the lithotomy position is good for those with back or hip issues

A

false

87
Q

true or false
in fowlers position, a patients head is at a 45 degree angle, is good for patients who are SOB or LBP

A

true

88
Q

the position when patients lie on their left side with their right knee bent towards the chest

A

sims

89
Q

process of identifying a disease, condition, or injury based on the signs, symptoms, and history is known as

A

clinical diagnosis

90
Q

Branch of medicine specializing in the anatomy, function and disease of the eye

A

Ophthalmology 

91
Q

subjective information provided by the patient is known as

A

symptoms

92
Q

determining the correct diagnosis when 2 or more diagnoses are possible

A

differential diagnosis

93
Q

forecast of the probable course and outcome of the disorder and the prospects of recovery

A

prognosis

94
Q

Chronic inflammation of the eyelids edges, common in older people

A

Blepharitis

95
Q

protects employees and ensures the workplace is safe

A

OSHA

96
Q

establishes guidelines to protect both patients and healthcare workers in medical office and hospital settings

A

CDC

97
Q

true or false
wear gloves when you may come in contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, or moist surfaces

A

true

98
Q

when preparing a patient for a phyisical exam, it is important to

A
  • be aware of their needs and assist if needed
  • have patient empty their bladder
  • make sure they have a gown/drapes
99
Q

pattern of assumptions, beliefs, and practices that shapes the way people think and act

A

culture

100
Q

making judgements about a person or group of people on the basis of experiences

A

stereotyping

101
Q

moving from place to place

A

ambulate

102
Q

visual exam of patients body (size, shape, color, position, symmertry)

A

inspection

103
Q

listening to body sounds

A

ausculation

104
Q

feeling with fingers or hands during a physical exam

A

palpation

105
Q

tapping or striking body to hear sounds or feel vibrations

A

percussion

106
Q

the extent or limit to which a part of the body can be moved around a joint or fixed point

A

ROM (range of motion)

107
Q

overly deep breathing that leads to a loss of carbon dioxide in the blood

A

hyperventilation

108
Q

humpback (excessive outward curvature of the spine)

A

kyphosis

109
Q

inward curve of the lumbar spine

A

lordosis

110
Q

extreme lordosis is known as

A

swayback

111
Q

abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

scoliosis

112
Q

the abdominal area is divided into how many quadrents?

A

4

113
Q

palpation of the rectum for lesions or irregularities

A

digital examination

114
Q

yearly exam to confirm patients health or diagnose a physical problem

A

physical exam

115
Q

ease a which people can move in and out of a space

A

accessibility

116
Q

broadens definition of disability, makes it easier for individuals seeking protection to show that they have a disability

A

ADA amendments act of 2008

117
Q

the absence of viruses, bacteria, or other microorganisms

A

asepsis

118
Q

scrubbing instruments and equipment, uses brushes and detergent to remove blood, mucus, and other contaminants

A

sanitization

119
Q

complete destruction of all living microorganisms

A

sterilization

120
Q

process that kills most (but not all) microorganisms

A

disinfection

121
Q

thick walled reproductive bodies capable of resisting harsh conditions and can only be destroyed through sterilization

A

spores

122
Q

cleaning products applied to objects to reduce or eliminate infectious microorganisms are known as

A

Disinfectant

123
Q

cleaning products used on human tissues as anti-infection agents

A

antiseptics

124
Q

used to open anus for an exam

A

anoscope

125
Q

reflects light inside of the mouth and throat for exams

A

laryngeal mirror

126
Q

enlarges an opening for viewing

A

speculum

127
Q

lighted instrument used to examine inner structures of the eye

A

ophthalmoscope

128
Q

Drooping of upper eyelid in which lid partially covers the eye

A

Ptosis

129
Q

used to examine ear canal and tympanic membrane

A

otoscope

130
Q

small flashlight used when additional light is necessary in small areas, also to check pupil response

A

pen light

131
Q

has a hard triangular rubber head and is used to check patient reflexes

A

reflex hammer

132
Q

handheld device used to test patient hearing

A

tuning fork

133
Q

Eyelash follicle infection usually caused from staph bacteria

A

Stye

134
Q

Lesions on cornea from injury, infections and a scratch on cornea that can become infected with bacteria, viruses

A

Corneal ulcers and abrasions

135
Q

Cloudy or opaque area and normally clear lens of eye that leads to progressive loss of vision

A

Cataracts

136
Q

Condition in which fluid (aqueous humor) pressure builds up inside the eye

A

Glaucoma

137
Q

Retina separates from underlying choroid layer which damages vision

A

Retina detachment

138
Q

Damage to small blood vessels that supply retina resulting in loss of vision

A

Diabetic retinopathy

139
Q

Loss of vision in the center of an image, leading cause of blindness among a elderly in the US

A

Macular degeneration

140
Q

Deviation of one eye (such as misalignment or imbalance of eyes in children)

A

Strabismus

141
Q

Refers to the way light from object is focus through the eye to form an image on the retina

A

Refraction

142
Q

Farsightedness caused by loss of Elasticity of the lens of the eye, occurring typically in middle and old age

A

Presbyopia

143
Q

Vision distorted because cornea is on evenly curved or the lens has an abnormal shape, makes driving at night difficult

A

Astigmatism

144
Q

Hand held instrument with a light to view the inner eyes structures

A

Ophthalmoscope

145
Q

One of the most common color vision test that uses a system of colored dots to test for color blind list

A

Ishihara color test

146
Q

Treats diseases and disorders of the ears

A

Otologist

147
Q

Condition when outer ear canal becomes blocked by a buildup of earwax

A

Cerumen impaction

148
Q

Also known as swimmers ear

A

Otitis externa

149
Q

what is Pruritis

A

severe sensation of itching

150
Q

Inflammation of middle ear, most common ear infection and children and is caused by fluid build up

A

Otitis media

151
Q

Infection from middle ear spreads to mastoid bone through air , rare and serious

A

Mastoiditis

152
Q

Bone tissue grows abnormally around stapes or stirrups, Results in hearing lost, condition is hereditary

A

Otosclerosis

153
Q

Caused by sharp objects, and explosion, below to ear or server middle ear infection resulting in discharge and bleeding

A

Ruptured ear drum

154
Q

Sensorineural hearing lost more common in older men

A

Presbycusis

155
Q

Infection of the labyrinth of ear caused by virus

A

Labyrinthitis

156
Q

Increased fluid and liberated affecting sense of balance, vertigo, nausea, vomiting distorted hearing

A

Meniere’s Disease

157
Q

Ringing in the ears (buzzing, whistling, hissing)

A

Tinnitus

158
Q

Caused by an interruption in transmission of sound waves to inner ear caused from impaction infection or sclerosis

A

Conductive hearing loss

159
Q

Caused from damage to inner ear, to the nerve that leads from ear to brain and then the brain itself

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

160
Q

Prolonged exposure to loud noises-construction workers, aircraft personnel and machine operators causes damage to hearing

A

Noise pollution

161
Q

True or false
When communicating with patients and coworkers with hearing loss it’s important to speak very loud so they can hear you

A

False

162
Q

Hearing test with tuning fork to test sound conduction and patient

A

Rinne Test

163
Q

Electronic device that measures hearing acuity by producing sounds in specific frequencies and intensities 

A

Audiometer

164
Q

Number of complete fluctuations (waves) of energy that pass a specific point in 1 second

A

Frequency

165
Q

Unit of measuring the relative intensity or loudness of sound on a scale from 0 to 130

A

Decibels

166
Q

Measures the eardrums ability to move

A

Tympanometry

167
Q

Specialist who focuses on evaluating and correcting hearing problems

A

Audiologist

168
Q

Chart of letters used to test visions of people who can read

A

Snellen letter chart

169
Q

Used to test visions of children and non-reading adults

A

Snellen tumbling E chart