Final Exam Flashcards by Eve Dial

Which of these is TRUE of a mutualistic relationship?
- both members are harmed by the relationship
- one member benefits and the other member does not receive any benefit
- neither organism benefits nor is harmed by the relationship
- one member benefits and the other member is harmed
- both organisms benefit

both organisms benefit

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What is an endophyte?
- a symbiont that lives inside plant cells
- a member of the intestinal tract microbial community
- a member of the plant root rhizosphere
- a parasite of an animal
- a parasite of a plant

a symbiont that lives inside plant cells

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Which of these is characteristic of the nitrogenase enzyme?
- it converts dinitrogen to nitrate
- it requires hydrogen gas for activity
- it is found in all plant symbionts
- it is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen
- it is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

it is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen

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The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen-binding protein.
- menaquinone
- leg hemoglobin
- flavoprotein
- cytochrome c
- nitrate reductase

leg hemoglobin

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One rhizobia enter the plant cell through the infection thread, they undergo rapid multiplication and differentiation into pleomorphic nitrogen-fixing cells called __.
- bacteroids
- reticulate forms
- elementary bodies
- schizonts
- nitromorphs

bacteroids

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The relationship between rhizobia and their host plants is best described as:
- symbiotic
- parasitic
- mutualistic
- commencal
- endosymbiotic

mutualistic

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Select the choice with the chronologically correct sequence of events occurring in nodule formation:
- bacterium attached to root hair, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up the infection thread, root hair curls
- bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread, root hair curls, bacterium attaches to root hair, infection thread forms
- root hair curls, bacterium proliferate and move up infection thread
- bacterium attaches to root hair, root hair curls, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread
- infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread, root hair curls, bacterium attaches to root hair

bacterium attaches to root hair, root hair curls, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread

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Select the choice describing the earliest event in the endosymbiosis between plants and nitrogen-fixing bacteroids:
- bacteria move up the infection thread
- bacteroids release ammonium and amino acids to plants
- plant TCA cycle releases C4-dicarboxylic acid to bacteroid
- bacterial cells differentiate into bacteroids
- infection thread enters root cortex

bacteria move up the infection thread

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What is the human microbiome composed of?
- microbes that live on human skin
- all microbes that live on or within the human body
- all microbes that cause disease in humans
- microbes that live in the intestinal tract of humans
- microbes that contribute to the health of humans

all microbes that live on or within the human body

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The vagina of women of childbearing age has an acidic pH. This is due to the colonization of which organisms?
- staphylococci
- candida sp.
- micrococci
- Bacteroides sp.
- lactobacilli

lactobacilli

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Which of these is the MOST abundant bacterial group in the colon?
- lactobacilli
- facultative anaerobes
- obligate anaerobes
- the family enterobacteriaceae
- members of the phylum proteobacteria

obligate anaerobes

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The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are __.
- halobacteria
- fermenters
- sulfate-reducing bacteria
- sulfide-oxidizing bacteria
- methanogens

methanogens

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Flossing and brushing achieve which of the following?
- maintenance of an anaerobic environment for streptococcus growth
- aeration of the environment for Fusobacterium growth
- removal of viridans streptococci from tooth and gum surfaces
- increase of nutrients in the oral cavity
- maintenance of an anaerobic environment for fusobacterium growth

removal of viridans streptococci from tooth and gum surfaces

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Which of the following has the greatest potential to cause intestinal disease due to its resilience in the face of hostile conditions?
- lactobacillus
- vibro
- bifidobacterium
- pathogenic e coli
- shigella

shigella

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Probiotics are defined as live organisms in food that are capable of:
- fermentation
- reducing the growth of pathogens
- producing metabolites that are needed for the nutrition of the host
- increasing the growth of other beneficial microorganisms
- a beneficial health effect when consumed

a beneficial health effect when consumed

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Helicobacter pylori survive in the stomach because it is:
- capable of neutralizing acid during its transit to the stomach wall
- an alkaliphile
- capable of lowering pH in its local niche
- encapsulated and protected by intestinal mucus
- an acidophile

capable of neutralizing acid during its transit to the stomach wall

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Herbivores require microorganisms to help them with the digestion of this compound.
- starch
- nucleic acids
- proteins
- cellulose
- glycogen

cellulose

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Some herbivore’s cecal fermenters obtain additional nutrients from their food sources by this method.
- retaining the food in their large intestine for long periods of time
- moving the cecal-digested food back to the small intestine for absorption
- eating their feces
- regurgitating their food and chewing it again
- selectively eating certain plants

eating their feces

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Which of these is TRUE of ruminants?
- they obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms
- they often consume their own feces
- they are inefficient in the digestion of plant material
- they are considered to be hind-gut fermenters
- they possess a single stomach chamber and long cecum

they obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms

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Many of the rumen bacteria specialize in the breakdown of these macromolecules:
- nucleic acids
- cellulose polymers
- proteins
- peptidoglycans
- fatty acids

cellulose polymers

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Microbes in the rumen are very efficient at converting _- and __ into amino acids.
- pyruvate and lactase
- ammonia and urea
- glucose and pyruvate
- starch and cellulose
- fatty acids and acetate

ammonia and urea

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An example of a rumen fermenter is the :
- sheep
- rabbit
- human
- horse
- koala

sheep

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The correct order of structures that ingested grass will pass through in a cecal fermenter is:
- reticulum, omasum, abomasum, rumen
- stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon
- stomach, small intestine, colon, cecum
- reticulum, rumen, omasum, colon
- abomasum, colon, rumen, cecum

stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon

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The correct order of structures that ingested grass will pass through in a colonic fermenter is:
- stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon
- reticulum, rumen, omasum, colon
- reticulum, cecum, abomasum, small intestine
- abomasum, colon, stomach, cecum
- stomach, small intestine, colon, cecum

stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon

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Most microbial symbionts of invertebrates are in this group: - bacteria - protozoa - yeast - algae - archaea

bacteria

Lower termites feed primarily on wood and contain symbiotic: - protozoa, bacteria, and archaeans in their intestine - fungi in their intestine - bacteria in this intestine - bacteria and archaeans in their intestine - protozoa in their intestine

protozoa, bacteria, and archaeans in their intestine

How do termites obtain nitrogen in their diet? - from urea - from nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their gut - from nitrogen-fixing protozoa - from digestion of nucleic acids - from digestion of proteins

from nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their gut

Which of these contains zooxanthellae as photosynthetic symbionts? - coral - shipworms - lichens - termites - tube worms

coral

Which part of the lichen provides photosynthetic capability? (Select all that apply) - algal cells - photobiont - fungal cells - mycobiont - cyanobacterial cells

algal cells, photobiont, and cyanobacterial cells

T/F: Most microbe-host relationships are harmful.

False

T/F: Plaque on human teeth is considered a biofilm.

True

T/F: Intestinal microorganisms are important for the proper functioning of the immune system.

True

T/F: Most endosymbionts of invertebrates can easily be cultured.

False

The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member may benefit and the other is not affected is called __.

commensalism

All microorganisms that live on or within the human body are referred to collectively as the human __.

microbiome

Which one of the following is an extrensic factor that affects that rate of food spoilage? - the nutrient content of the food - the water content of the food - the pH of the food - the skin on a fruit - the storage temperature

the storage temperature

When you add salt to meat for preservation, you are - decreasing the water activity of the meat - decreasing the nutrient content of the meat - increasing the pH of the meat - decreasing the pH of the meat - increasing the water activity of the meat

decreasing the water activity of the meat

LTH pasteurization is a method of preservation that involves heating the liquid to __ degrees Celsius for 30 min. - 85 - 63 - 121 - 45 - 100

Pickling is a preservation method that uses __ to help preserve the food. - alcohol - ascorbic acid - spices - acetic acid - citric acid

acetic acid

The protease rennin is used in the production of: - kenfir - cheese - yogurt - butter - ice cream

cheese

Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by - various mmolds - sulfate-reducing bacteria - acetic acid bacteria - lactic acid bacteria - the yeast saccaromyces

acetic acid bacteria

Which microbe listed below causes foodborne intoxication? - vibrio - staphylococcus - salmonella - campylobacter - shigella

staphylococcus

An example of an organism that causes a food borne infection is - campylobacter jejuni - bacillus cereus - clostridium perringens - clostridium botunilium - staphylococcus aureus

campylobacter jejuni

Hurdle preservative technology permits (select all that apply): - increased heat treatment of food - reduced heat treatment of food - reduced acidification of foods - increased acidification of foods - reduced aw of food

reduced heat treatment of food, reduced acidification of foods, reduced aw of food

T/F: Foods with high water activity will usually spoil faster than foods with low water activity.

True

T/F: The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years. Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.

True

Which of these would need to occur for a disease to be considered communicable? - an infectious agent colonizes a host - an infectious agent causes damage to the host - an infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host - a susceptible host encounters an infectious agent

an infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host

What does a high case-to-infection ratio (CI) indicate? - the pathogen is transmitted by an aerosol route - most people infected by the pathogen do not develop the disease - most people infected by the pathogen do develop the disease - the disease is usually fatal - the disease is usually very mild

most people infected by the pathogen do develop the disease

Which of these is TRUE of an attenuated strain of a pathogenic microbe infecting a susceptible healthy host? - the microbe will not replicate in the host - the microbe will replicate in the host and ultimately kill the host - the microbe will replicate in the host and cause disease - the microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease - the microbe will not replicate in the host but will cause disease

the microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease

In order to cause disease, successful infectious pathogens must be able to do all of the following EXCEPT - evade HOST defenses - attach to and/or invade host cells - kill the host - gain entry to the host - exist the host

kill the host

Which one of the following terms describes a pathogen property that aids in causing disease? - virulence factors - promoters - proteases - enhancers - pathogenics

virulence factors

All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT - surface glycoproteins - lipoteichoic acid - pili - attachment proteins - chitinases

chitinases

What often determines the host range of a pathogen? - nutrient availability - the ability of a pathogen to attach to a host cell - its ability to replicate inside a host cell - its ability to destroy antibodies - the exit strategy of the pathogen

the ability of a pathogen to attach to a host cell

Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following? - enter host cells - evade host defenses - exit the host successfully - acquire nutrients - attach to host cells

evade host defenses

Herpes simplex virus type 1 is able to avoid detection by the host immune system using what mechanism? - antigenic variation - inhibition of B-cells - establishment of latency in sensory neurons - production of cytotoxins that kill macrophages - production of proteases that destroy antibodies

establishment of latency in sensory neurons

How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host? - a fomite - sexual contact - an aerosol route - a vector-borne route - contaminated food or water

a vector-borne route

How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur? - ingestion of contaminated water - aerosol route - a result of an insect bite - a sexual route - mother to offspring

mother to offspring

What is studied in the field of epidemiology? - pathology of infectious diseases - the causes of infectious diseases - patterns of infectious diseases spread - the study of spread patterns of all diseases - the causes of all diseases

the study of spread patterns of all diseases

What is the prevalence rate of a disease? - the number of deaths due to an infectious agent - the ratio of the number of deaths to the number of individuals with the disease - the number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population - the number of deaths within a specified number of the population - the number of deaths within a population - the total number of cases of a disease

the number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population

What is the term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period? - occurrence - mortality rate - incidence - prevalence - infectious dose 50

incidence

What is the term for newly identified infectious diseases or those with a recent significant increase in incidence? - future diseases - new diseases - emerging diseases - special diseases - modern diseases

emerging diseases

Which of these is true of an endemic disease? - it is constantly present in a given population - it is present in a population at numbers higher than expected - it quickly appears and then disappears in a population - it is always epidemic on a worldwide scale - it is spread by an animal vector

it is constantly present in a given population

What is the term for an epidemic that occurs on multiple continents? - outbreak - re-emerging disease - endemic disease - pandemic - emerging disease

pandemic

Which of these is an example of a common-source epidemic? - a number of children show up at school with measles - a single case of H1N1 influenza is reported in a small town - several cases of food poisoning occur after a wedding reception - a prison has a higher rate of tuberculosis than is typical - a local hospital sees cases of several different "staph" infections in a week

several cases of food poisoning occur after a wedding reception

Dengue fever is caused by a virus; this virus requires part of its life cycle to occur within the mosquito. This makes the mosquito a - fomite - reservoir - biological vector - mechanical vector - symbiont

biological vector

Which one of the following statements is NOT one of Koch's postulates? - identify virulence from the isolated microbe - identify the suspected microbe in every person with the disease - isolate the suspected microbe in pure culture - recover the microbe from the experimentally inoculated host - inoculate the isolated microbe into a susceptible host to see if it causes the disease

identify virulence factors from the isolated microbe

Which of these agencies plays the major role in epidemiological surveillance in the United States? - Border Infectious Disease Surveillane - Food and Drug Administration - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention - World Health Organization - Environmental Protection Agency

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

Which of these agencies collates information regarding notifiable disease incidence in the United States? - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention - World Health Organization - Border Infectious Disease Surveillance - Environmental Protection Agency - Food and Drug Administration

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

Which of these choices represent symptoms? (select all that apply). - swelling - fatigue - nausea - muscle pain - fever

fatigue, nausea, muscle pain

T/F: Primary pathogens are distiguished from opportunistic pathogens in that they always cause a more sever disease.

False

T/F: A single mutation in pathogenic gene may cause the pathogen to become avirulent.

True

T/F: Most pathogens need to avoid host defenses and attach to host cells before they are able to replicate and establish the disease state in the host.

True

T/F: Endotoxins are toxins that are made in the cell and excreted to the external environment.

False

T/F: The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.

True

T/F: Koch's postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.

True

The replication of a microbial pathogen on or within a host is called a/an __.

infection

The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called __.

virulence

A/an __ is a toxin made inside the pathogen and excreted into the external environment.

exotoxin

The number of deaths due to a specific disease over a specified number in the population is referred to as the __ rate.

mortality

All of the following are examples of how virulence factors facilitate the establishment of disease by a pathogen EXCEPT: - resisting antibiotics - lysing host cells for nutrients - evading or overcoming host defenses - gaining entry into the host - obtaining nutrients from the host

resisting antibiotics

What is the first step for most pathogenic bacteria to fascilitate entry into its host? - toxin production - lysis of the host cell - iron sequestration - protease production - attachment

attachment

Staphylococcus aureus produces a fibronectin-binding protein as a virulence factor to aid in which activity? - attachment - iron sequestration - avoidance of antibodies - host cell lysis - toxin-mediated cell inactivation

attachment

What is the primary effect of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on the host? - causes diarrhea - acts as a neurotoxin - triggers an intense inflammatory response - attacks cells of the immune system - lyses epithelial cells

triggers an intense inflammatory response

Which component of lipopolysaccharide is responsible for inducing a strong inflammatory response? - lipid A - phospholipid - teichoic acid - core polysaccharide - O-antigen

Lipid A

Lipoteichoic acids are associated with which of these bacteria? - neisseria gonorrhoeae - escherichia coli - klebsiella pneumoniae - staphylococcus aureus - shigella sonnei

staphylococcus aureus

An attachment structure that aids in overcoming the charge repulsion between host/microbe cells is the: - flagella - fimbriae - capsule - conjugation pili - peptidoglycan

fimbriae

Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins. To what does the term A-B refer? - their action on the brain - their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit - their antigen-binding properties - their antibody-binding toxins - their activation of B cells

their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit

Toxic shock syndrome caused by staphylococcus aureus is mediated by an exotoxin that acts as a __. - hemolysin - superantigen - superantibody - neurotoxin - cytotoxin

superantigen

Bacteria can steal iron from host cells through their production of: - leghemoglobin - lactoferrin - siderophores - transferrin - cytochromes

siderophores

Which of these bacteria causes gangrene? - C. diphtheriae - P. aeruginosa - C. perfringens - S. aureus - B. subtilis

C. pefringens

S. aureus produces a potent exotoxin that causes cell damage that induces a very strong inflammatory response in the host. What is this toxin? - Streptolysin O - Pneumolysin - Enterotoxin - Protein A - a-toxin

a-toxin

What is the genus of the organism that causes pertussis? - bordetella - mycoplasma - streptococcus - mycobacterium - corynebacterium

bordetella

What is the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsilitis in children? - S. pyrogenes - S. aureus - M. pneumoniae - S. pneumoniae - C. tuberculosis

S. pyrogenes

S. progenies is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis

S. pyogenes is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis because of what component of its capsule? - teichoic acid - lipid a - protein a - lipopolysaccharides - hylauronic acid

hyalauronic acid

Fibronectin binding proteins are associated with which of these bacteria (select ALL that apply). - S. aureus - S. sonnei - E. coli - K. pneumoinae - N. gonnorrhoeae

S. aureus, E. coli

Fimbrial attachments to host cells are associated with which of these bacteria? (select ALL that apply). - S. aureus - K. pneumoniae - N. gonnorrhoeae - E. coli - S. sonnei

K. pneumoniae, N. gonorrheae, E. coli

T/F: A toxin that is part of the bacterial cell structure and usually found in the surface elements of the cell is called endotoxin.

True

T/F: Type III secretion of gram-negative bacteria allow for the direct secretion of toxin into the target cell.

True

The mode of action of B-lactam antibiotics in bacteria is directed against: - cell membtane synthesis - dna replication - transcription - protein synthesis - peptidoglycan synthesis

peptidoglycan synthesis

The mode of action of aminoglycosides is to inhibit __ synthesis. - membrane - peptidoglycan - protein - rna - dna

protein

The mode of action of quinolones is to inhibit: - amino acid transport - protein synthesis - transcription - dna synthesis - cell wall synthesis

dna synthesis

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does not target protein synthesis? - aminoglycosides - rifamycins - tetracyclines - chloramphenicols - macrolides

rifamycins

The mode of action of sulfa drugs is to inhibit: - protein synthesis - tryptophan biosynthesis - transcription - peptidoglycan synthesis - folic acid biosynthesis

folic acid biosynthesis

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target nucleic acid synthesis? - quinolones - sulfonamides - trimethoprim - rifamycins - tetracyclines

rifamycins

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan synthesis? - vancomycin - quinolone - cephalosporin - ampicilin - penicilin

quinolones

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan synthesis? - vancomycin - carbapenems - kanamycin - monobactams - bacitracin

kanamycin

Which one of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target DNA synthesis? - oxolinic acid - quinolones - ciproflaxin - rifamycins - nalidixic acid

rifamycins

Which one of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target. the50s ribosomal subunit activities? - spectinomycin - carbomycin - chloramphenicol - erythromycin - sulfonamides

sulfonamides

Which ones of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target the 30s ribosomal subunit activities? - all are correct - doxycycline - tetracycline - oxytetracycline - carbomycin

carbomycine

Which one of the following is NOT a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance? - altering of the drugs target site - enzymatically activating the drug - incorporating the drug into cell material - blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell - removing the drug from inside the cell

incorporating the drug into cell material

The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a/an: - attentuated vaccine - subunit vaccine - killed vaccine - DNA vaccine - polysaccharide vaccine

attenuated vaccine

Conjugate vaccines are composed of __ linked to an immunogenic protein. - lipid antigens - polysaccharide antigens - toxins - DNA fragments - protein antigens

polysaccharide antigens

Drug resistance arises as bacteria acquire (select ALL that apply). - novel influx pathways - novel enzyme activities - novel metabolic pathways - altered drug binding sites - novel efflux pathways

- novel enzyme activities - novel metabolic pathways - altered drug binding sites - novel efflux pathways

T/F: The use of antimicrobial drugs is linked directly to the development of antibiotic resistance.

True

T/F: Unlike bacteria, viruses do not develop resistance to antiviral drugs.

False