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BIOL 3407-010 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these is TRUE of a mutualistic relationship?
- both members are harmed by the relationship
- one member benefits and the other member does not receive any benefit
- neither organism benefits nor is harmed by the relationship
- one member benefits and the other member is harmed
- both organisms benefit

A

both organisms benefit

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2
Q

What is an endophyte?
- a symbiont that lives inside plant cells
- a member of the intestinal tract microbial community
- a member of the plant root rhizosphere
- a parasite of an animal
- a parasite of a plant

A

a symbiont that lives inside plant cells

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3
Q

Which of these is characteristic of the nitrogenase enzyme?
- it converts dinitrogen to nitrate
- it requires hydrogen gas for activity
- it is found in all plant symbionts
- it is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen
- it is found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

it is irreversibly inactivated by oxygen

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4
Q

The red color of plant root nodules is due to this oxygen-binding protein.
- menaquinone
- leg hemoglobin
- flavoprotein
- cytochrome c
- nitrate reductase

A

leg hemoglobin

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5
Q

One rhizobia enter the plant cell through the infection thread, they undergo rapid multiplication and differentiation into pleomorphic nitrogen-fixing cells called __.
- bacteroids
- reticulate forms
- elementary bodies
- schizonts
- nitromorphs

A

bacteroids

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6
Q

The relationship between rhizobia and their host plants is best described as:
- symbiotic
- parasitic
- mutualistic
- commencal
- endosymbiotic

A

mutualistic

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7
Q

Select the choice with the chronologically correct sequence of events occurring in nodule formation:
- bacterium attached to root hair, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up the infection thread, root hair curls
- bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread, root hair curls, bacterium attaches to root hair, infection thread forms
- root hair curls, bacterium proliferate and move up infection thread
- bacterium attaches to root hair, root hair curls, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread
- infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread, root hair curls, bacterium attaches to root hair

A

bacterium attaches to root hair, root hair curls, infection thread forms, bacteria proliferate and move up infection thread

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8
Q

Select the choice describing the earliest event in the endosymbiosis between plants and nitrogen-fixing bacteroids:
- bacteria move up the infection thread
- bacteroids release ammonium and amino acids to plants
- plant TCA cycle releases C4-dicarboxylic acid to bacteroid
- bacterial cells differentiate into bacteroids
- infection thread enters root cortex

A

bacteria move up the infection thread

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9
Q

What is the human microbiome composed of?
- microbes that live on human skin
- all microbes that live on or within the human body
- all microbes that cause disease in humans
- microbes that live in the intestinal tract of humans
- microbes that contribute to the health of humans

A

all microbes that live on or within the human body

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10
Q

The vagina of women of childbearing age has an acidic pH. This is due to the colonization of which organisms?
- staphylococci
- candida sp.
- micrococci
- Bacteroides sp.
- lactobacilli

A

lactobacilli

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11
Q

Which of these is the MOST abundant bacterial group in the colon?
- lactobacilli
- facultative anaerobes
- obligate anaerobes
- the family enterobacteriaceae
- members of the phylum proteobacteria

A

obligate anaerobes

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12
Q

The majority of Archaea found in the human intestinal tract are __.
- halobacteria
- fermenters
- sulfate-reducing bacteria
- sulfide-oxidizing bacteria
- methanogens

A

methanogens

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13
Q

Flossing and brushing achieve which of the following?
- maintenance of an anaerobic environment for streptococcus growth
- aeration of the environment for Fusobacterium growth
- removal of viridans streptococci from tooth and gum surfaces
- increase of nutrients in the oral cavity
- maintenance of an anaerobic environment for fusobacterium growth

A

removal of viridans streptococci from tooth and gum surfaces

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14
Q

Which of the following has the greatest potential to cause intestinal disease due to its resilience in the face of hostile conditions?
- lactobacillus
- vibro
- bifidobacterium
- pathogenic e coli
- shigella

A

shigella

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15
Q

Probiotics are defined as live organisms in food that are capable of:
- fermentation
- reducing the growth of pathogens
- producing metabolites that are needed for the nutrition of the host
- increasing the growth of other beneficial microorganisms
- a beneficial health effect when consumed

A

a beneficial health effect when consumed

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16
Q

Helicobacter pylori survive in the stomach because it is:
- capable of neutralizing acid during its transit to the stomach wall
- an alkaliphile
- capable of lowering pH in its local niche
- encapsulated and protected by intestinal mucus
- an acidophile

A

capable of neutralizing acid during its transit to the stomach wall

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17
Q

Herbivores require microorganisms to help them with the digestion of this compound.
- starch
- nucleic acids
- proteins
- cellulose
- glycogen

A

cellulose

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18
Q

Some herbivore’s cecal fermenters obtain additional nutrients from their food sources by this method.
- retaining the food in their large intestine for long periods of time
- moving the cecal-digested food back to the small intestine for absorption
- eating their feces
- regurgitating their food and chewing it again
- selectively eating certain plants

A

eating their feces

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19
Q

Which of these is TRUE of ruminants?
- they obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms
- they often consume their own feces
- they are inefficient in the digestion of plant material
- they are considered to be hind-gut fermenters
- they possess a single stomach chamber and long cecum

A

they obtain nutrients from digestion carried out by rumen microorganisms

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20
Q

Many of the rumen bacteria specialize in the breakdown of these macromolecules:
- nucleic acids
- cellulose polymers
- proteins
- peptidoglycans
- fatty acids

A

cellulose polymers

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21
Q

Microbes in the rumen are very efficient at converting _- and __ into amino acids.
- pyruvate and lactase
- ammonia and urea
- glucose and pyruvate
- starch and cellulose
- fatty acids and acetate

A

ammonia and urea

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22
Q

An example of a rumen fermenter is the :
- sheep
- rabbit
- human
- horse
- koala

A

sheep

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23
Q

The correct order of structures that ingested grass will pass through in a cecal fermenter is:
- reticulum, omasum, abomasum, rumen
- stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon
- stomach, small intestine, colon, cecum
- reticulum, rumen, omasum, colon
- abomasum, colon, rumen, cecum

A

stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon

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24
Q

The correct order of structures that ingested grass will pass through in a colonic fermenter is:
- stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon
- reticulum, rumen, omasum, colon
- reticulum, cecum, abomasum, small intestine
- abomasum, colon, stomach, cecum
- stomach, small intestine, colon, cecum

A

stomach, small intestine, cecum, colon

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25
Q

Most microbial symbionts of invertebrates are in this group:
- bacteria
- protozoa
- yeast
- algae
- archaea

A

bacteria

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26
Q

Lower termites feed primarily on wood and contain symbiotic:
- protozoa, bacteria, and archaeans in their intestine
- fungi in their intestine
- bacteria in this intestine
- bacteria and archaeans in their intestine
- protozoa in their intestine

A

protozoa, bacteria, and archaeans in their intestine

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27
Q

How do termites obtain nitrogen in their diet?
- from urea
- from nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their gut
- from nitrogen-fixing protozoa
- from digestion of nucleic acids
- from digestion of proteins

A

from nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their gut

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28
Q

Which of these contains zooxanthellae as photosynthetic symbionts?
- coral
- shipworms
- lichens
- termites
- tube worms

A

coral

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29
Q

Which part of the lichen provides photosynthetic capability? (Select all that apply)
- algal cells
- photobiont
- fungal cells
- mycobiont
- cyanobacterial cells

A

algal cells, photobiont, and cyanobacterial cells

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30
Q

T/F: Most microbe-host relationships are harmful.

A

False

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31
Q

T/F: Plaque on human teeth is considered a biofilm.

A

True

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32
Q

T/F: Intestinal microorganisms are important for the proper functioning of the immune system.

A

True

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33
Q

T/F: Most endosymbionts of invertebrates can easily be cultured.

A

False

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34
Q

The type of symbiotic relationship in which one member may benefit and the other is not affected is called __.

A

commensalism

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35
Q

All microorganisms that live on or within the human body are referred to collectively as the human __.

A

microbiome

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36
Q

Which one of the following is an extrensic factor that affects that rate of food spoilage?
- the nutrient content of the food
- the water content of the food
- the pH of the food
- the skin on a fruit
- the storage temperature

A

the storage temperature

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37
Q

When you add salt to meat for preservation, you are
- decreasing the water activity of the meat
- decreasing the nutrient content of the meat
- increasing the pH of the meat
- decreasing the pH of the meat
- increasing the water activity of the meat

A

decreasing the water activity of the meat

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38
Q

LTH pasteurization is a method of preservation that involves heating the liquid to __ degrees Celsius for 30 min.
- 85
- 63
- 121
- 45
- 100

A

63

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39
Q

Pickling is a preservation method that uses __ to help preserve the food.
- alcohol
- ascorbic acid
- spices
- acetic acid
- citric acid

A

acetic acid

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40
Q

The protease rennin is used in the production of:
- kenfir
- cheese
- yogurt
- butter
- ice cream

A

cheese

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41
Q

Vinegar production occurs through the oxidation of ethanol by
- various mmolds
- sulfate-reducing bacteria
- acetic acid bacteria
- lactic acid bacteria
- the yeast saccaromyces

A

acetic acid bacteria

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42
Q

Which microbe listed below causes foodborne intoxication?
- vibrio
- staphylococcus
- salmonella
- campylobacter
- shigella

A

staphylococcus

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43
Q

An example of an organism that causes a food borne infection is
- campylobacter jejuni
- bacillus cereus
- clostridium perringens
- clostridium botunilium
- staphylococcus aureus

A

campylobacter jejuni

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44
Q

Hurdle preservative technology permits (select all that apply):
- increased heat treatment of food
- reduced heat treatment of food
- reduced acidification of foods
- increased acidification of foods
- reduced aw of food

A

reduced heat treatment of food, reduced acidification of foods, reduced aw of food

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45
Q

T/F: Foods with high water activity will usually spoil faster than foods with low water activity.

A

True

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46
Q

T/F: The addition of salt to certain food for preservation has been used for hundreds of years. Salt helps to preserve food by lowering the water activity.

A

True

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47
Q

Which of these would need to occur for a disease to be considered communicable?
- an infectious agent colonizes a host
- an infectious agent causes damage to the host
- an infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host
- a susceptible host encounters an infectious agent

A

an infectious agent causes damage to the host and can be transmitted to another host

48
Q

What does a high case-to-infection ratio (CI) indicate?
- the pathogen is transmitted by an aerosol route
- most people infected by the pathogen do not develop the disease
- most people infected by the pathogen do develop the disease
- the disease is usually fatal
- the disease is usually very mild

A

most people infected by the pathogen do develop the disease

49
Q

Which of these is TRUE of an attenuated strain of a pathogenic microbe infecting a susceptible healthy host?
- the microbe will not replicate in the host
- the microbe will replicate in the host and ultimately kill the host
- the microbe will replicate in the host and cause disease
- the microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease
- the microbe will not replicate in the host but will cause disease

A

the microbe will replicate in the host but not cause disease

50
Q

In order to cause disease, successful infectious pathogens must be able to do all of the following EXCEPT
- evade HOST defenses
- attach to and/or invade host cells
- kill the host
- gain entry to the host
- exist the host

A

kill the host

51
Q

Which one of the following terms describes a pathogen property that aids in causing disease?
- virulence factors
- promoters
- proteases
- enhancers
- pathogenics

A

virulence factors

52
Q

All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT
- surface glycoproteins
- lipoteichoic acid
- pili
- attachment proteins
- chitinases

A

chitinases

53
Q

What often determines the host range of a pathogen?
- nutrient availability
- the ability of a pathogen to attach to a host cell
- its ability to replicate inside a host cell
- its ability to destroy antibodies
- the exit strategy of the pathogen

A

the ability of a pathogen to attach to a host cell

54
Q

Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following?
- enter host cells
- evade host defenses
- exit the host successfully
- acquire nutrients
- attach to host cells

A

evade host defenses

55
Q

Herpes simplex virus type 1 is able to avoid detection by the host immune system using what mechanism?
- antigenic variation
- inhibition of B-cells
- establishment of latency in sensory neurons
- production of cytotoxins that kill macrophages
- production of proteases that destroy antibodies

A

establishment of latency in sensory neurons

56
Q

How is the protozoan Plasmodium falciparum transmitted from host to host?
- a fomite
- sexual contact
- an aerosol route
- a vector-borne route
- contaminated food or water

A

a vector-borne route

57
Q

How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?
- ingestion of contaminated water
- aerosol route
- a result of an insect bite
- a sexual route
- mother to offspring

A

mother to offspring

58
Q

What is studied in the field of epidemiology?
- pathology of infectious diseases
- the causes of infectious diseases
- patterns of infectious diseases spread
- the study of spread patterns of all diseases
- the causes of all diseases

A

the study of spread patterns of all diseases

59
Q

What is the prevalence rate of a disease?
- the number of deaths due to an infectious agent
- the ratio of the number of deaths to the number of individuals with the disease
- the number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population
- the number of deaths within a specified number of the population
- the number of deaths within a population
- the total number of cases of a disease

A

the number of cases of the disease within a specified number of the population

60
Q

What is the term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period?
- occurrence
- mortality rate
- incidence
- prevalence
- infectious dose 50

A

incidence

61
Q

What is the term for newly identified infectious diseases or those with a recent significant increase in incidence?
- future diseases
- new diseases
- emerging diseases
- special diseases
- modern diseases

A

emerging diseases

62
Q

Which of these is true of an endemic disease?
- it is constantly present in a given population
- it is present in a population at numbers higher than expected
- it quickly appears and then disappears in a population
- it is always epidemic on a worldwide scale
- it is spread by an animal vector

A

it is constantly present in a given population

63
Q

What is the term for an epidemic that occurs on multiple continents?
- outbreak
- re-emerging disease
- endemic disease
- pandemic
- emerging disease

A

pandemic

64
Q

Which of these is an example of a common-source epidemic?
- a number of children show up at school with measles
- a single case of H1N1 influenza is reported in a small town
- several cases of food poisoning occur after a wedding reception
- a prison has a higher rate of tuberculosis than is typical
- a local hospital sees cases of several different “staph” infections in a week

A

several cases of food poisoning occur after a wedding reception

65
Q

Dengue fever is caused by a virus; this virus requires part of its life cycle to occur within the mosquito. This makes the mosquito a
- fomite
- reservoir
- biological vector
- mechanical vector
- symbiont

A

biological vector

66
Q

Which one of the following statements is NOT one of Koch’s postulates?
- identify virulence from the isolated microbe
- identify the suspected microbe in every person with the disease
- isolate the suspected microbe in pure culture
- recover the microbe from the experimentally inoculated host
- inoculate the isolated microbe into a susceptible host to see if it causes the disease

A

identify virulence factors from the isolated microbe

67
Q

Which of these agencies plays the major role in epidemiological surveillance in the United States?
- Border Infectious Disease Surveillane
- Food and Drug Administration
- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
- World Health Organization
- Environmental Protection Agency

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

68
Q

Which of these agencies collates information regarding notifiable disease incidence in the United States?
- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
- World Health Organization
- Border Infectious Disease Surveillance
- Environmental Protection Agency
- Food and Drug Administration

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

69
Q

Which of these choices represent symptoms? (select all that apply).
- swelling
- fatigue
- nausea
- muscle pain
- fever

A

fatigue, nausea, muscle pain

70
Q

T/F: Primary pathogens are distiguished from opportunistic pathogens in that they always cause a more sever disease.

A

False

71
Q

T/F: A single mutation in pathogenic gene may cause the pathogen to become avirulent.

A

True

72
Q

T/F: Most pathogens need to avoid host defenses and attach to host cells before they are able to replicate and establish the disease state in the host.

A

True

73
Q

T/F: Endotoxins are toxins that are made in the cell and excreted to the external environment.

A

False

74
Q

T/F: The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.

A

True

75
Q

T/F: Koch’s postulates still play an important role today in identifying the causative agents of emerging diseases.

A

True

76
Q

The replication of a microbial pathogen on or within a host is called a/an __.

A

infection

77
Q

The measure of the ability of a pathogen to cause severe disease in a host is called __.

A

virulence

78
Q

A/an __ is a toxin made inside the pathogen and excreted into the external environment.

A

exotoxin

79
Q

The number of deaths due to a specific disease over a specified number in the population is referred to as the __ rate.

A

mortality

80
Q

All of the following are examples of how virulence factors facilitate the establishment of disease by a pathogen EXCEPT:
- resisting antibiotics
- lysing host cells for nutrients
- evading or overcoming host defenses
- gaining entry into the host
- obtaining nutrients from the host

A

resisting antibiotics

81
Q

What is the first step for most pathogenic bacteria to fascilitate entry into its host?
- toxin production
- lysis of the host cell
- iron sequestration
- protease production
- attachment

A

attachment

82
Q

Staphylococcus aureus produces a fibronectin-binding protein as a virulence factor to aid in which activity?
- attachment
- iron sequestration
- avoidance of antibodies
- host cell lysis
- toxin-mediated cell inactivation

A

attachment

83
Q

What is the primary effect of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on the host?
- causes diarrhea
- acts as a neurotoxin
- triggers an intense inflammatory response
- attacks cells of the immune system
- lyses epithelial cells

A

triggers an intense inflammatory response

84
Q

Which component of lipopolysaccharide is responsible for inducing a strong inflammatory response?
- lipid A
- phospholipid
- teichoic acid
- core polysaccharide
- O-antigen

A

Lipid A

85
Q

Lipoteichoic acids are associated with which of these bacteria?
- neisseria gonorrhoeae
- escherichia coli
- klebsiella pneumoniae
- staphylococcus aureus
- shigella sonnei

A

staphylococcus aureus

86
Q

An attachment structure that aids in overcoming the charge repulsion between host/microbe cells is the:
- flagella
- fimbriae
- capsule
- conjugation pili
- peptidoglycan

A

fimbriae

87
Q

Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins. To what does the term A-B refer?
- their action on the brain
- their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit
- their antigen-binding properties
- their antibody-binding toxins
- their activation of B cells

A

their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit

88
Q

Toxic shock syndrome caused by staphylococcus aureus is mediated by an exotoxin that acts as a __.
- hemolysin
- superantigen
- superantibody
- neurotoxin
- cytotoxin

A

superantigen

89
Q

Bacteria can steal iron from host cells through their production of:
- leghemoglobin
- lactoferrin
- siderophores
- transferrin
- cytochromes

A

siderophores

90
Q

Which of these bacteria causes gangrene?
- C. diphtheriae
- P. aeruginosa
- C. perfringens
- S. aureus
- B. subtilis

A

C. pefringens

91
Q

S. aureus produces a potent exotoxin that causes cell damage that induces a very strong inflammatory response in the host. What is this toxin?
- Streptolysin O
- Pneumolysin
- Enterotoxin
- Protein A
- a-toxin

A

a-toxin

92
Q

What is the genus of the organism that causes pertussis?
- bordetella
- mycoplasma
- streptococcus
- mycobacterium
- corynebacterium

A

bordetella

93
Q

What is the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsilitis in children?
- S. pyrogenes
- S. aureus
- M. pneumoniae
- S. pneumoniae
- C. tuberculosis

A

S. pyrogenes

94
Q

S. progenies is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis

A
95
Q

S. pyogenes is not efficiently opsonized for phagocytosis because of what component of its capsule?
- teichoic acid
- lipid a
- protein a
- lipopolysaccharides
- hylauronic acid

A

hyalauronic acid

96
Q

Fibronectin binding proteins are associated with which of these bacteria (select ALL that apply).
- S. aureus
- S. sonnei
- E. coli
- K. pneumoinae
- N. gonnorrhoeae

A

S. aureus, E. coli

97
Q

Fimbrial attachments to host cells are associated with which of these bacteria? (select ALL that apply).
- S. aureus
- K. pneumoniae
- N. gonnorrhoeae
- E. coli
- S. sonnei

A

K. pneumoniae, N. gonorrheae, E. coli

98
Q

T/F: A toxin that is part of the bacterial cell structure and usually found in the surface elements of the cell is called endotoxin.

A

True

99
Q

T/F: Type III secretion of gram-negative bacteria allow for the direct secretion of toxin into the target cell.

A

True

100
Q

The mode of action of B-lactam antibiotics in bacteria is directed against:
- cell membtane synthesis
- dna replication
- transcription
- protein synthesis
- peptidoglycan synthesis

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

101
Q

The mode of action of aminoglycosides is to inhibit __ synthesis.
- membrane
- peptidoglycan
- protein
- rna
- dna

A

protein

102
Q

The mode of action of quinolones is to inhibit:
- amino acid transport
- protein synthesis
- transcription
- dna synthesis
- cell wall synthesis

A

dna synthesis

103
Q

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does not target protein synthesis?
- aminoglycosides
- rifamycins
- tetracyclines
- chloramphenicols
- macrolides

A

rifamycins

104
Q

The mode of action of sulfa drugs is to inhibit:
- protein synthesis
- tryptophan biosynthesis
- transcription
- peptidoglycan synthesis
- folic acid biosynthesis

A

folic acid biosynthesis

105
Q

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target nucleic acid synthesis?
- quinolones
- sulfonamides
- trimethoprim
- rifamycins
- tetracyclines

A

rifamycins

106
Q

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan synthesis?
- vancomycin
- quinolone
- cephalosporin
- ampicilin
- penicilin

A

quinolones

107
Q

Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs does NOT target peptidoglycan synthesis?
- vancomycin
- carbapenems
- kanamycin
- monobactams
- bacitracin

A

kanamycin

108
Q

Which one of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target DNA synthesis?
- oxolinic acid
- quinolones
- ciproflaxin
- rifamycins
- nalidixic acid

A

rifamycins

109
Q

Which one of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target. the50s ribosomal subunit activities?
- spectinomycin
- carbomycin
- chloramphenicol
- erythromycin
- sulfonamides

A

sulfonamides

110
Q

Which ones of the following classes of antimicrobial drugs does NOT target the 30s ribosomal subunit activities?
- all are correct
- doxycycline
- tetracycline
- oxytetracycline
- carbomycin

A

carbomycine

111
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?
- altering of the drugs target site
- enzymatically activating the drug
- incorporating the drug into cell material
- blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell
- removing the drug from inside the cell

A

incorporating the drug into cell material

112
Q

The smallpox vaccination used by Jenner is best described as a/an:
- attentuated vaccine
- subunit vaccine
- killed vaccine
- DNA vaccine
- polysaccharide vaccine

A

attenuated vaccine

113
Q

Conjugate vaccines are composed of __ linked to an immunogenic protein.
- lipid antigens
- polysaccharide antigens
- toxins
- DNA fragments
- protein antigens

A

polysaccharide antigens

114
Q

Drug resistance arises as bacteria acquire (select ALL that apply).
- novel influx pathways
- novel enzyme activities
- novel metabolic pathways
- altered drug binding sites
- novel efflux pathways

A
  • novel enzyme activities
  • novel metabolic pathways
  • altered drug binding sites
  • novel efflux pathways
115
Q

T/F: The use of antimicrobial drugs is linked directly to the development of antibiotic resistance.

A

True

116
Q

T/F: Unlike bacteria, viruses do not develop resistance to antiviral drugs.

A

False

BIOL 3407-010 (7 decks)

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