Final Exam Flashcards
You just received a ticket to respond as the SOC Support Ladder Company on a 10-66/2nd alarm for a fire on the 6th floor of 50X100 HRFPMD (project type). On arrival, the most correct place for your company to report into can be found in which choice?
A: Report into the Staging Area
B: Report into the Command Post
C: Report to the 5th floor (Fire Sector)
D: Report into the area where the member is being removed from
You just received a ticket to respond as the SOC Support Ladder Company on a 10-66/2nd alarm for a fire on the 6th floor of 50X100 HRFPMD (project type). On arrival, the most correct place for your company to report into can be found in which choice?
A: Report into the Staging Area
B:✔Report into the Command Post
C: Report to the 5th floor (Fire Sector)
D: Report into the area where the member is being removed from
Explanation:
Regs ch 11 sec 11.3.16.C.note……On the transmission of a higher alarm which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SSL, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a staging area
MD ch 2 sec 7.3….The FAST Unit and CFR Engine shall be assigned the Fire Sector when the fire is above the 6th floor. They can be staged on the floor below the fire floor ready for rapid deployment. At lower floor fires (6th floor or below), the position of the FAST Unit and the CFR Engine will be determined by the IC. The FAST Unit should carry a set of elevator keys
The Lieutenant working in Ladder 300 was just notified that her unit is going to be dispatched for a Buckeye Pipeline drill at 1000hrs. She gathers the members to go over a few key points pertaining to operations at a pipeline leak. She was incorrect in which one point below?
A: The route of the Buckeye pipeline is marked by white PVC poles with orange tops.
B: Inside each valve box should be a set of rubber covers, one yellow and one red. Under the red cover, is the square male stem for the manual valve.
C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 500 feet to a leak.
D: Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-87 for the leak location.
The Lieutenant working in Ladder 300 was just notified that her unit is going to be dispatched for a Buckeye Pipeline drill at 1000hrs. She gathers the members to go over a few key points pertaining to operations at a pipeline leak. She was incorrect in which one point below?
A: The route of the Buckeye pipeline is marked by white PVC poles with orange tops.
B: Inside each valve box should be a set of rubber covers, one yellow and one red. Under the red cover, is the square male stem for the manual valve.
C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 500 feet to a leak.
D:✔Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-87 for the leak location.
Explanation:
D. Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a SECOND ALARM AND A 10-86 for the leak location.
10-86 IS ALCOHOL RESISTANT FOAM OPERATION
10-87 IS HIGH EXPANSION FOAM OPERATION
AUC 149 1.5, 2.1.5, 7.18, 7.7
Your unit arrives at a high rise hotel for an alarm activation where it is discovered the cause of the alarm is steam from a resident taking a hot shower. You would be most correct to transmit which code?
A: 10-35 No Code
B: 10-35 Code 1
C: 10-35 Code 2
D: 10-35 Code 3
Your unit arrives at a high rise hotel for an alarm activation where it is discovered the cause of the alarm is steam from a resident taking a hot shower. You would be most correct to transmit which code?
A: 10-35 No Code
B: 10-35 Code 1
C: 10-35 Code 2
D:✔10-35 Code 3
Explanation:
10-35 No Code – Unwarranted alarm. Alarm system activation caused by the defective condition of alarm device, equipment or system. (e.g., low battery condition, alarm activations without a known cause or when no condition is found warranting an emergency response).
10-35 Codes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm. Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily activated by lack of due care.
Code 1 - testing or servicing.
Code 2 - construction.
Code 3 - ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray).
Code 4 - other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas).
Comm Ch 8 p11
Managing line placement is a high priority for engine officers. Which of the following choices CORRECTLY describes line placement by engine companies?
A: After confirming with the 1st engine officer, the 2nd engine can stretch a second line when it is a short stretch before confirming the 1st engine has a positive water source.
B: If there is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard, the IC (Chief officer or Engine Officer) may order the 2nd engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose.
C: If the 2nd arriving engine has already begun stretching the 2nd hoseline, the 3rd arriving engine should team up with the 2nd arriving engine and assist in the operation of the 2nd hoseline.
D: The 3rd arriving engine should only stretch a 3rd hoseline when ordered by the incident commander.
Managing line placement is a high priority for engine officers. Which of the following choices CORRECTLY describes line placement by engine companies?
A: After confirming with the 1st engine officer, the 2nd engine can stretch a second line when it is a short stretch before confirming the 1st engine has a positive water source.
B: If there is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard, the IC (Chief officer or Engine Officer) may order the 2nd engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose.
C: If the 2nd arriving engine has already begun stretching the 2nd hoseline, the 3rd arriving engine should team up with the 2nd arriving engine and assist in the operation of the 2nd hoseline.
D:✔The 3rd arriving engine should only stretch a 3rd hoseline when ordered by the incident commander.
Explanation:
ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 4 – COMPANY OFFICER
D IS CORRECT – 3.6.3
A – The first arriving engine must have secured a positive water source. 3.5.1
B – Chief officer or Acting Chief officer 3.5.4 Note
C – 3rd arriving engine must team up with the 1ST ARRIVING ENGINE and assist in the operation of the 1ST HOSELINE. 3.6
You are first to arrive to a Place of Worship with heavy fire conditions throughout. Your first course of action is to establish collapse zones around the fire building. Which side(s) of the building correctly depicts the most dangerous area(s) during the fire?
A: Exposures 1, 2, 4 sides of the building only
B: Exposures 2, 3, 4 sides if the building only
C: Exposures 2 and 4 sides of the building only
D: Exposure 1 side of the building only
You are first to arrive to a Place of Worship with heavy fire conditions throughout. Your first course of action is to establish collapse zones around the fire building. Which side(s) of the building correctly depicts the most dangerous area(s) during the fire?
A:✔Exposures 1, 2, 4 sides of the building only
B: Exposures 2, 3, 4 sides if the building only
C: Exposures 2 and 4 sides of the building only
D: Exposure 1 side of the building only
Explanation:
When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and the exposure side of the steeple or bell tower (front of the building) are the most dangerous areas during a fire
*** A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower
FFP Places of Worship sec 4.2 and 4.6, 4.7
After a challenging fire operation, where the cornice of a building collapsed, members are back in the kitchen discussing some key lessons learned. During this discussion, which one point made was incorrect?
A: When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, unless the exposure is minor, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.
B: A cornice is also a structure that can burn and spread fire.
C: The front of the building, including any stoop or entrance area to the building are in the potential collapse danger zone when a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire.
D: If fire from any floor, is auto-exposing and heating a cornice or has extended to the cornice, the rapid application of an exterior stream from a safe area may be utilized to limit the further weakening of the cornice and its connections.
After a challenging fire operation, where the cornice of a building collapsed, members are back in the kitchen discussing some key lessons learned. During this discussion, which one point made was incorrect?
A:✔When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, unless the exposure is minor, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.
B: A cornice is also a structure that can burn and spread fire.
C: The front of the building, including any stoop or entrance area to the building are in the potential collapse danger zone when a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire.
D: If fire from any floor, is auto-exposing and heating a cornice or has extended to the cornice, the rapid application of an exterior stream from a safe area may be utilized to limit the further weakening of the cornice and its connections.
Explanation:
A. When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, EVEN IF THE EXPOSURE IS MINOR, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.
Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 6 3, 4, 5, 9.2
During company drill on fire operations in Brownstone buildings, a number of comments were made by the junior member on duty. Which comment made was incorrect?
A: When a cornice has been exposed to, or involved in, fire, the cornice or parts of it may suddenly fall. In these situations, it may be necessary to keep members away from all areas in the front of the building, especially when the cornice has been involved by heavy fire for a considerable time.
B: The word “first floor” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “basement.”
C: The basement has a rear door which opens into the yard. This is a fast way to check the rear for trapped occupants and this action must be communicated to and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer.
D: Doors at top of the cellar and first floor (basement) stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors.
During company drill on fire operations in Brownstone buildings, a number of comments were made by the junior member on duty. Which comment made was incorrect?
A: When a cornice has been exposed to, or involved in, fire, the cornice or parts of it may suddenly fall. In these situations, it may be necessary to keep members away from all areas in the front of the building, especially when the cornice has been involved by heavy fire for a considerable time.
B:✔The word “first floor” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “basement.”
C: The basement has a rear door which opens into the yard. This is a fast way to check the rear for trapped occupants and this action must be communicated to and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer.
D: Doors at top of the cellar and first floor (basement) stairs normally prevent the immediate extension of cellar fires up the main interior stairs. However, there will be a rapid build-up of smoke and heat on upper floors.
Explanation:
B) The word “BASEMENT” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “FIRST FLOOR.”
BS/RF 2.1.1 Note, 2.2.10, 2.3.3, 2.4.1 F
You are the Officer of the first arriving Ladder Company, Ladder 100, at a fire in Apartment 4N, on the 4th floor of an H-type building. While conducting a search of the fire apartment, your Forcible Entry Firefighter collapses onto the floor and you cannot get him to respond to verbal or painful stimuli. At this point you would be most correct to make what transmission?
A: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER.”
B: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY - COLLAPSE HAS OCCURRED.”
C: “URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT.” The IC responds to go ahead with your URGENT and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT-INJURED MEMBER.”
D: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-MISSING MEMBER.”
You are the Officer of the first arriving Ladder Company, Ladder 100, at a fire in Apartment 4N, on the 4th floor of an H-type building. While conducting a search of the fire apartment, your Forcible Entry Firefighter collapses onto the floor and you cannot get him to respond to verbal or painful stimuli. At this point you would be most correct to make what transmission?
A:✔“MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER.”
B: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY - COLLAPSE HAS OCCURRED.”
C: “URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT.” The IC responds to go ahead with your URGENT and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, URGENT-INJURED MEMBER.”
D: “MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY.” The IC responds to go ahead with your MAYDAY and you state “Ladder 100 to Command, MAYDAY-MISSING MEMBER.”
Explanation:
A Note: Or you can say:”…. MAYDAY-INJURED MEMBER.”
B) The term “collapse” is to be used for structural collapse only.
C) This is a MAYDAY scenario, not an Urgent.
D) The member is injured; not missing.
Comm Ch 9 9.4.1
As the first arriving officer to a structural fire, your initial size-up will include the type of building, occupancy, and conditions on arrival as well as any known life hazard, In addition, your size-up should also include a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. Which ventilation profile would NOT be an indication of a possible wind driven fire?
A: Heavy smoke venting outwards and upwards
B: Heavy smoke venting horizontally
C: Heavy smoke pulsing horizontally
D: Heavy smoke venting downward
As the first arriving officer to a structural fire, your initial size-up will include the type of building, occupancy, and conditions on arrival as well as any known life hazard, In addition, your size-up should also include a ventilation profile of the fire conditions. Which ventilation profile would NOT be an indication of a possible wind driven fire?
A:✔Heavy smoke venting outwards and upwards
B: Heavy smoke venting horizontally
C: Heavy smoke pulsing horizontally
D: Heavy smoke venting downward
Explanation:
Fire and smoke should be venting outwards and upwards. If the smoke and fire are venting downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in the building, this indicates the fire conditions may be wind impacted. Any unusual ventilation profile must be immediately communicated to the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented and the IC
FFP Ventilation sec 4.1
Units arrive at the scene of a reported hazardous material spill inside a warehouse. On arrival, they notice an NFPA 704 Diamond with a #4 in the blue section of the diamond. Members would be most correct to identify this as which one choice below?
A: A flammability hazard with a flash point below 73 degrees Fahrenheit.
B: A health hazard that is “deadly”.
C: A reactivity hazard that is “may detonate”.
D: Special information indicating no water should be used.
Units arrive at the scene of a reported hazardous material spill inside a warehouse. On arrival, they notice an NFPA 704 Diamond with a #4 in the blue section of the diamond. Members would be most correct to identify this as which one choice below?
A: A flammability hazard with a flash point below 73 degrees Fahrenheit.
B:✔A health hazard that is “deadly”.
C: A reactivity hazard that is “may detonate”.
D: Special information indicating no water should be used.
Explanation:
BLUE IS THE HEALTH HAZARD: “N SHED”
0: NORMAL
1: SLIGHLY HAZARDOUS
2: HAZARDOUS
3: EXTREME DANGER
4: DEADLY
THIS DIAMOND WAS ASKED ON 2009 LT EXAM
ERP Hazardous Materials Pg 39
You are the first arriving Ladder Company Officer investigating an alarm in a large, high rise building and decide to activate the building’s (Auxiliary Radio Communications System (ARCS) on FDNY Channel 11. You would be correct in all actions below except?
A: The ARCS can be activated via a 1620 Key or ON/OFF switch at the Fire Command Station.
B: Instruct a member to staff the Incident Command Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.
C: Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed after leaving the lobby.
D: Notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units that the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel 11 have been activated as a Command channel.
You are the first arriving Ladder Company Officer investigating an alarm in a large, high rise building and decide to activate the building’s (Auxiliary Radio Communications System (ARCS) on FDNY Channel 11. You would be correct in all actions below except?
A: The ARCS can be activated via a 1620 Key or ON/OFF switch at the Fire Command Station.
B: Instruct a member to staff the Incident Command Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.
C:✔Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed after leaving the lobby.
D: Notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units that the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel 11 have been activated as a Command channel.
Explanation:
C) Designate a member or switch his/her HT to the Building Primary duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11) and ensure a functional test is performed PRIOR TO leaving the lobby.
Comm Ch 13 3.1
A telephone alarm is in and the units in Battalion 99 will arrive at the location of the Park Tower Mega High Rise and confirm a fire on the 32nd floor. The CIDS is as follows: PG – MEGA 90 STY 200X150 CL1 – 3 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLRS 1-30, B BANK FLRS 30-60, C BANK FLRS 60-90 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 12-17, 28-33, 37-42 – SPKR/STDP SIAM EXP 1 & 3 SIDE BLDG – MER FLRS 31 & 61. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the use of the available elevators to access the fire floor?
A: A bank of elevators to 26th floor followed by walking up to 32
B: A bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
C: B bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
D: B bank of elevators to 28th floor followed by walking up to 32
A telephone alarm is in and the units in Battalion 99 will arrive at the location of the Park Tower Mega High Rise and confirm a fire on the 32nd floor. The CIDS is as follows: PG – MEGA 90 STY 200X150 CL1 – 3 ELEV BANKS – A BANK FLRS 1-30, B BANK FLRS 30-60, C BANK FLRS 60-90 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 12-17, 28-33, 37-42 – SPKR/STDP SIAM EXP 1 & 3 SIDE BLDG – MER FLRS 31 & 61. Which choice is CORRECT regarding the use of the available elevators to access the fire floor?
A: A bank of elevators to 26th floor followed by walking up to 32
B:✔A bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
C: B bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walking up to 32
D: B bank of elevators to 28th floor followed by walking up to 32
Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – ELEVATOR OPERATIONS
B IS CORRECT – A Bank of elevators to 30th floor followed by walk up to 32. The A bank terminates at 30 does not service the fire floor so it is the primary elevator for use during this operation. The access stairs service floors 28-33 however, they are only a consideration when using an elevator that services the fire floor. In this case the A bank does not. – ELEVATORS 6.1.3 Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor. 6.1.4 – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor… 1. If Fire Service is available, use a car with the Fire Service feature. 2. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
A - More than 5 floors below the fire floor
C – B bank services the fire floor which would bring the access stairs into play.
D – B bank does not service the 28th floor
Upon arrival at any confined space incident, the first arriving unit(s) shall perform several tasks. Choose the most correct task.
A: As a bare minimum, members entering confine space areas must be First aide trained
B: Members entering a confined space area can enter without a SCBA when Carbon Monoxide levels are not over 40 PPM (Safe Atmospheric Conditions)
C: When setting up a high point, the TL is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least 1,000 lbs, compared to only 250 lbs for an AL
D: When using a TL or an AL as a high point all members must be removed from apparatus except the chauffeur who will remain on the turntable as a look out and safety person
Upon arrival at any confined space incident, the first arriving unit(s) shall perform several tasks. Choose the most correct task.
A: As a bare minimum, members entering confine space areas must be First aide trained
B: Members entering a confined space area can enter without a SCBA when Carbon Monoxide levels are not over 40 PPM (Safe Atmospheric Conditions)
C:✔When setting up a high point, the TL is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least 1,000 lbs, compared to only 250 lbs for an AL
D: When using a TL or an AL as a high point all members must be removed from apparatus except the chauffeur who will remain on the turntable as a look out and safety person
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Confined Space Operations
A- First Aide and CPR….sec 4
B- Safe Atmospheric Conditions
- Oxygen concentration between 19.5% an 23.5%
- Flammable Range- Not over 10% of LEL
-Toxicity- Not over 35 PPM of CO
- Toxicity- Not over 10 PPM of Hydrogen Sulfide…sec 4.1
C- sec 4.3
D- All personnel must be removed from the Turntable and the engine shut off to prevent accidental movement …..sec 4.3
First alarm units are dispatched to a brush fire adjacent to the Belt Pkwy in Brooklyn. Which one of the following FDNY SOP’s is incorrect?
A: If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces.
B: Units shall never self-commit to operations.
C: Stream shall be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush.
D: Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures.
First alarm units are dispatched to a brush fire adjacent to the Belt Pkwy in Brooklyn. Which one of the following FDNY SOP’s is incorrect?
A: If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces.
B:✔Units shall never self-commit to operations.
C: Stream shall be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush.
D: Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures.
Explanation:
B. Units ARE NOT TO SELF-COMMIT TO OPERATIONS UNLESS STRUCTURES ARE EXPOSED.
SIMILAR QUESTION WAS ASKED ON 2014 CAPT EXAM
AUC 151 5.1.2, 5.4.6, 5.4.2, 5.4.13
What is the most appropriate code to transmit when operating at a Downed Tree Emergency?
A: 10-42
B: 10-46
C: 10-44
D: 10-43
What is the most appropriate code to transmit when operating at a Downed Tree Emergency?
A:✔ 10-42
B: 10-46
C: 10-44
D: 10-43
Explanation:
10-46 Maritime Fire or Emergency
Code 1: Any FIRE in maritime environment (example: vessel, dock, pier)
Code 2: EMERGENCY in maritime environment Examples: Vessel in distress, person(s) in the water removed by Marine personnel, hazard to navigation, hazardous materials incident in maritime environment.
10-44 Request for Ambulance
A request for an ambulance response from the EMS Command. Specify the reason and type (when possible).
10-43 Any non-fire related rescue; any person(s) rescued/removed from a dangerous situation.
Comm Ch 8 p13, 14
The members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 have just returned to quarters from a fire in what turned out to be a private dwelling of lightweight construction. The members are conducting a critique and several members made statements about operations. Of the below actions taken, which was INCORRECT?
A: On arrival, there was heavy fire in the cellar & 1st floor preventing a visual inspection of the type of construction, so a later arriving unit was assigned to exposure 2 (similar construction) to check for the type of construction.
B: Lightweight construction was suspected, so the 1st arriving ladder made an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present.
C: Once fire extended to the top floor, all members were removed from the roof after a small vent hole was cut from an area of safety over the fire area.
D: Prior to indications of extension to the cockloft, members were allowed to conduct preliminary roof duties, including visual check of the sides and rear and venting skylights and top floor windows.
The members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 have just returned to quarters from a fire in what turned out to be a private dwelling of lightweight construction. The members are conducting a critique and several members made statements about operations. Of the below actions taken, which was INCORRECT?
A: On arrival, there was heavy fire in the cellar & 1st floor preventing a visual inspection of the type of construction, so a later arriving unit was assigned to exposure 2 (similar construction) to check for the type of construction.
B: Lightweight construction was suspected, so the 1st arriving ladder made an inspection hole in the ceiling from a safe area in order to determine the type of support system present.
C:✔Once fire extended to the top floor, all members were removed from the roof after a small vent hole was cut from an area of safety over the fire area.
D: Prior to indications of extension to the cockloft, members were allowed to conduct preliminary roof duties, including visual check of the sides and rear and venting skylights and top floor windows.
Explanation:
PRIVATE DWELLINGS CHAPTER 6 – LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION
C IS INCORRECT – Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction. 4.3.8
A – 4.3.2
B – 4.3.1
D – 4.3.10
Inflatable Water Rescue Hose may be used during Water/Ice rescue incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Choose the most correct procedure when using the Inflatable Water Rescue Hose.
A: Inflatable Water Rescue Hose consists of 2 1/2” hose, yellow fittings, which can be filled with air directly from an air cylinder
B: One 45 minutes air cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 5 minutes (1 minute per length)..
C: The apparatus air outlet can fill 5 lengths of hose in approximately 5 minutes
D: Each looped length of 2 1/2” hose can support approximately 10 people
Inflatable Water Rescue Hose may be used during Water/Ice rescue incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Choose the most correct procedure when using the Inflatable Water Rescue Hose.
A: Inflatable Water Rescue Hose consists of 2 1/2” hose, yellow fittings, which can be filled with air directly from an air cylinder
B: One 45 minutes air cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 5 minutes (1 minute per length)..
C: The apparatus air outlet can fill 5 lengths of hose in approximately 5 minutes
D:✔Each looped length of 2 1/2” hose can support approximately 10 people
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Water Rescue 2 add 1
A- Supply air from either a SCBA or FAST-Pak using the Hansen fitting. DO NOT fill hose directly from the cylinder. If close enough, the apparatus air outlet may be used…sec 2.1
B- One 45 minutes air cylinder can fill 5 lengths of 2 1/2” hose in approximately 1 minute…sec 3.2
C- The apparatus air outlet can fill 5 lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute…sec 3.3
D- sec 4.1
Members are operating at a concrete structure under construction that has collapsed. Which one operating procedure is correct?
A: A Thermal Imaging Camera should not be used to locate workers.
B: A list or sign in sheet of all construction workers on site for the day is usually accurate and available.
C: The accounting of all workers by construction personnel relieves the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.
D: Following the collapse of a concrete structure under construction, it won’t be difficult to distinguish the victims from construction debris.
Members are operating at a concrete structure under construction that has collapsed. Which one operating procedure is correct?
A: A Thermal Imaging Camera should not be used to locate workers.
B:✔A list or sign in sheet of all construction workers on site for the day is usually accurate and available.
C: The accounting of all workers by construction personnel relieves the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.
D: Following the collapse of a concrete structure under construction, it won’t be difficult to distinguish the victims from construction debris.
Explanation:
A. A Thermal Imaging Camera MAY BE A CRITICAL TOOL TO ASSIST IN LOCATING WORKERS BY DETECTING BODY HEAT OR MOVEMENT OF THE VICTIM(S).
C. The accounting of all workers by construction personnel DOES NOT RELIEVE the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.
D. Following the collapse of a concrete structure under construction, it WILL BE DIFFICULT to distinguish the victims from construction debris SINCE EVERYTHING WILL BE COATED AND COVERED IN CONCRETE.
Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 5 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4
All of the following codes are described incorrectly with the exception of which correct choice?
A: 10-41 Code 3 for a Fire Marshal investigation required for a subway train fire that was occupied at the time of the fire.
B: 10-38 Code 4 for a response in a commercial structure with no CO alarms and no smoke detectors where unit meters detected 45ppm of CO and members shut down a faulty appliance.
C: 10-29 Code 2 where members removed two teenagers from a stuck elevator.
D: 10-91: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has verbal patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
All of the following codes are described incorrectly with the exception of which correct choice?
A: 10-47 Code 3 for a Fire Marshal investigation required for a subway train fire that was occupied at the time of the fire.
B:✔10-38 Code 4 for a response in a commercial structure with no CO alarms and no smoke detectors where unit meters detected 45ppm of CO and members shut down a faulty appliance.
C: 10-29 Code 2 where members removed two teenagers from a stuck elevator.
D: 10-91: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has verbal patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
Explanation:
10-38 Code 3: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency (CO Meter Reading of greater than 9ppm)
10-38 Code 4: No Detector Activated. Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (e.g.: no detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.)
A) 10-41 Code 1: Fire Marshal investigation required for a structure (commercial, residential, public), or vehicle (car, bus or train) which is occupied at the time of the fire. This also includes a vacant apartment in an occupied building, or a store with a dwelling above, or an occupied detached garage, shed or similar structure.
C) 10-29: Elevator Emergency
Code 1: Occupied
Code 2: Unoccupied
D)10-37 Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene.
Comm Ch 8 p10, 12, 13,
While operating on the roof of a taxpayer with heavy fire in the cellar, you catch the end of several URGENT transmissions. You would be correct in your assumptions of each URGENT below except for which choice?
A: URGENT-INJURED MEMBER indicates a member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention.
B: URGENT 10-70 is indicative of the first arriving Engine Company being unable to secure a positive water source.
C: URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED indicates a structural problem with collapse being imminent.
D: URGENT - FIRE EXTENDING is indicative of fire extending into an exposure where any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem.
While operating on the roof of a taxpayer with heavy fire in the cellar, you catch the end of several URGENT transmissions. You would be correct in your assumptions of each URGENT below except for which choice?
A: URGENT-INJURED MEMBER indicates a member with a non life threatening injury that requires medical attention.
B: URGENT 10-70 is indicative of the first arriving Engine Company being unable to secure a positive water source.
C:✔URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED indicates a structural problem with collapse being imminent.
D: URGENT - FIRE EXTENDING is indicative of fire extending into an exposure where any delay may considerably enlarge the fire problem.
Explanation:
URGENT - COLLAPSE FEARED indicates a structural problem with the DANGER of a collapse.
If collapse is “imminent,” transmit a MAYDAY.
Comm Ch 9 9.4.2
Lt Lenny Dykstra is working his first tour as a lieutenant in E100, when a ticket comes in for an “emergency” in a Con-Edison facility. Upon arrival, Lt Dykstra receives information from Con-Edison personnel there is a major steam leak inside the facility. Lt Dykstra and members operated correctly in which choice?
A: Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility to shut down the steam valve
B: Lt Dykstra and members reported to the designated mustering site outside the facility
C: With reports of workers missing, Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility without Con-Edison personnel to begin search and rescue efforts
D: Lt Dykstra and members discovered the building steam shutoff valve outside the building and closed it
Lt Lenny Dykstra is working his first tour as a lieutenant in E100, when a ticket comes in for an “emergency” in a Con-Edison facility. Upon arrival, Lt Dykstra receives information from Con-Edison personnel there is a major steam leak inside the facility. Lt Dykstra and members operated correctly in which choice?
A: Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility to shut down the steam valve
B:✔Lt Dykstra and members reported to the designated mustering site outside the facility
C: With reports of workers missing, Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility without Con-Edison personnel to begin search and rescue efforts
D: Lt Dykstra and members discovered the building steam shutoff valve outside the building and closed it
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Steam System Emergencies
A- Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency…sec 4.1
C- With reports of workers missing, Lt Dykstra and members entered the facility WITH Con-Edison personnel to begin search and rescue efforts….sec 4.1
Never enter a Con Edison generating plant without Con-Ed personnel…sec 4.1
D- Steam valves located outside a building should only be shut by Con-Edison steam personnel…sec 4.4
When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, members shall be guided by which one correct provision?
A: Maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.
B: Use a solid stream nozzle to prevent any shock hazard.
C: Do not use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire (indicated by a large volume of fire flames 10 feet or more in height).
D: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel after starting water.
When operating water into a manhole, vault or service box, members shall be guided by which one correct provision?
A: Maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.
B: Use a solid stream nozzle to prevent any shock hazard.
C:✔Do not use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire (indicated by a large volume of fire flames 10 feet or more in height).
D: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel after starting water.
Explanation:
A. Maintain a distance of at least 25 FEET from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box.
B. Use a FOG NOZZLE to prevent any shock hazard.
D. Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel BEFORE starting water.
NOTE “A” Cross Ref FireIce: THE MEMBER OPERATING THE NOZZLE SHOULD COMMENCE OPERATIONS AT A SAFE STANDOFF DISTANCE OF 50 FEET. AFTER ESTABLISHING AN ADEQUATE GELL SOLUTION, AND AS CONDITIONS ALLOW, THE NOZZLE TEAM MAY ADVACNE TOWARD THE MNAHOLE WHILE MAINTAINING A MINIMUM SAFE DISTANCE OF 25 FEET FROM THE MANHOLE OPENING.
AUC 180 4.7.2, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 4.7.8
When a Rowframe building is fully involved with fire showing in both exposures, specific engine company tactics are required. Which tactic below is incorrect?
A: The first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline to enter the fire building through the front door.
B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure to protect the cockloft and interior shafts.
C: If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.
D: If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched into the original fire building.
When a Rowframe building is fully involved with fire showing in both exposures, specific engine company tactics are required. Which tactic below is incorrect?
A: The first arriving engine company should stretch one 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder, and a hoseline to enter the fire building through the front door.
B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure to protect the cockloft and interior shafts.
C: If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.
D:✔If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched into the original fire building.
Explanation:
D) If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.
Note: The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.
BS/RF 6.5
You are working in Ladder 100, a single truck, during a busy night tour in Brooklyn when your OV firefighter takes emergency leave and leaves quarters. While waiting for a detail, your unit is assigned “first-due” for fire in a Queen Anne-type private dwelling. While searching the fire floor with the Can firefighter beside you, you lose sight of your Forcible Entry firefighter but can still hear him on the other side of the room. 10 minutes into the fire the IC has a roll call conducted. After hearing “Roll Call Officer to L100, account for your members,” you correctly respond by saying?
A: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 5 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
B: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
C: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
D: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can firefighter is accounted for.”
You are working in Ladder 100, a single truck, during a busy night tour in Brooklyn when your OV firefighter takes emergency leave and leaves quarters. While waiting for a detail, your unit is assigned “first-due” for fire in a Queen Anne-type private dwelling. While searching the fire floor with the Can firefighter beside you, you lose sight of your Forcible Entry firefighter but can still hear him on the other side of the room. 10 minutes into the fire the IC has a roll call conducted. After hearing “Roll Call Officer to L100, account for your members,” you correctly respond by saying?
A: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 5 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
B:✔“L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
C: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
D: “L-100 to Roll Call Officer, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without an OV, my Can firefighter is accounted for.”
Explanation:
Remember, you account only for members within sight or hearing without using the HT.
Comm Ch 9 Add 2 5
On his second tour out of FLSTP, Lt Keith Hernandez is working the 6X9 tour in E-300 (4 FF Engine) in the great Borough of Brooklyn. Spending the last 20 years in L-200, Lt Hernandez is trying to understand the procedures for CFR. Lt Hernandez was correct in which CFR procedure below?
A: CFR Units must start the tour with a minimum of 2 members
B: Once a CFR Unit is on scene (10-84), a Patient Care Report (PCR) must be completed
C: When a CFR Unit is requesting an ambulance via the dispatch radio, the information that must be provided is the CUPS status, Age, Chief Complaint, If CPR initiated, and the Pulse, and Respiratory rate of the patient
D: Upon arrival to a CFR run, it is discovered that the patient is DOA. In this case no Patient Care Report (PCR) is necessary
On his second tour out of FLSTP, Lt Keith Hernandez is working the 6X9 tour in E-300 (4 FF Engine) in the great Borough of Brooklyn. Spending the last 20 years in L-200, Lt Hernandez is trying to understand the procedures for CFR. Lt Hernandez was correct in which CFR procedure below?
A: CFR Units must start the tour with a minimum of 2 members
B: Once a CFR Unit is on scene (10-84), a Patient Care Report (PCR) must be completed
C:✔When a CFR Unit is requesting an ambulance via the dispatch radio, the information that must be provided is the CUPS status, Age, Chief Complaint, If CPR initiated, and the Pulse, and Respiratory rate of the patient
D: Upon arrival to a CFR run, it is discovered that the patient is DOA. In this case no Patient Care Report (PCR) is necessary
Explanation:
CFR ch 2
A- While CFR Units must begin each tour with 2 certified FFs, in the event that during a tour the minimum CFR staffing reduces to 1 FF and 1 Officer (2 members), the Company shall remain available for CFR responses…sec 1.8.Note
B- A PCR is not required when a CFR Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided…sec 3.10.1
C- Sec 3.11
D- The CFR Unit must complete a Pre-Hospital Care Report even if the patient is DOA to document that the Company properly examined the patient to confirm that the patient exhibited the criteria for obvious death…sec 4.4.5.Note
While operating at the scene of a reported chemical release in the subway, members notice a distinct odor of burnt almonds. The would be most correct to suspect which one chemical below?
A: Tabun
B: Nitrogen Mustard
C: Cyanogen Chloride
D: Phosgene
While operating at the scene of a reported chemical release in the subway, members notice a distinct odor of burnt almonds. The would be most correct to suspect which one chemical below?
A: Tabun
B: Nitrogen Mustard
C:✔Cyanogen Chloride
D: Phosgene
Explanation:
A. Fruity
B. Fishy, musty odor
D. Musky hay
SIMILAR QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM
ERP Addendum 2 Pg 18
All members should be familiar with the operation of their handie-talkies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (1/2 second).
B: An Emergency Alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until the reset tone is heard (approximately 2 seconds). Turning the radio off and on will not reset the Emergency Alert on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS).
C: The IDs of the last 15 received transmissions can be viewed and an orange triangle indicates Emergency Alert activated transmissions.
D: Whenever a member who has activated their Emergency Alert presses the push-to-talk button, members receiving such a transmission will observe an Orange band with Emergency call, Unit and Position on their main display.
All members should be familiar with the operation of their handie-talkies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A:✔An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (1/2 second).
B: An Emergency Alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until the reset tone is heard (approximately 2 seconds). Turning the radio off and on will not reset the Emergency Alert on the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS).
C: The IDs of the last 15 received transmissions can be viewed and an orange triangle indicates Emergency Alert activated transmissions.
D: Whenever a member who has activated their Emergency Alert presses the push-to-talk button, members receiving such a transmission will observe an Orange band with Emergency call, Unit and Position on their main display.
Explanation:
A) An Emergency Alert can be activated by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) until the audible is heard (APPROXIMATELY 1 SECOND).
Comm Ch 11 3.5, 3.5.1.1, 3.5.2.1, 3.5.3
There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hoseline. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT?
A: Opening and Closing the nozzle.
B: Direction of the Stream
C: Partially closing the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
D: Rate of Advancement
There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hoseline. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT?
A:✔Opening and Closing the nozzle.
B: Direction of the Stream
C: Partially closing the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
D: Rate of Advancement
Explanation:
ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 6 – THE BACKSTEP
A IS INCORRECT – The nozzle firefighter must understand that the decision to open or close the nozzle is made by the engine officer. 2.7.2 – The nozzle firefighter may open the nozzle in an emergency 2.7.1 F
B – 2.7.1 A
C – 2.7.1 E
D – 2.7.1 B
Lt Ron Darling is covering his first vacation in E-400, and is confronted on what to do with the Patient Care Reports (PCRs) that were generated recently. Lt Darling is trying to remember from his study days the correct PCR procedure. Choose the correct procedure.
A: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each month
B: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each tour
C: Part 2 (research copy) is to be forwarded with part one
D: Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the patient on scene
Lt Ron Darling is covering his first vacation in E-400, and is confronted on what to do with the Patient Care Reports (PCRs) that were generated recently. Lt Darling is trying to remember from his study days the correct PCR procedure. Choose the correct procedure.
A: Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each month
B:✔Part one (original) of the PCR is to be forwarded to OMA at FDNY HQ at the end of each tour
C: Part 2 (research copy) is to be forwarded with part one
D: Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the patient on scene
Explanation:
CFR ch 5 sec 1.1
A- see choice B
C- Part 2 (research copy) is to be retained in quarters
D- Part 3 (hospital patient record copy) is to be given to the EMS unit operating on scene. If Part 3 is not given to the EMS unit, it shall be forwarded with the original to OMA
A newly promoted Lieutenant suspects that members have engaged in conduct that violates the FDNY’s alcohol/drug substance policy. Which one of the following actions taken is incorrect?
A: Notify the IG.
B: Document the incident in the company journal.
C: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty.
D: Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer.
A newly promoted Lieutenant suspects that members have engaged in conduct that violates the FDNY’s alcohol/drug substance policy. Which one of the following actions taken is incorrect?
A:✔Notify the IG.
B: Document the incident in the company journal.
C: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty.
D: Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer.
Explanation:
A. Notify BITS.
CODE: “PROBBE”
- Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving the premises without permission of the investigating officer.
- Relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty.
- OOS: Immediately have the affected unit placed out of service.
- BITS: Notify BITS
- Battalion: Notify the administrative Battalion or, if appropriate the next superior officer.
- Entry: Entry in the company journal.
AUC 202 5.5
For a fire in a high rise office building, which Ladder Company assignment is incorrect?
A: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company will determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the occupants for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post.
B: If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
C: The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies will conduct the search operation of the fire floor.
D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company will conduct a primary search of the top five floors.
For a fire in a high rise office building, which Ladder Company assignment is incorrect?
A: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company will determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the occupants for evacuation and advise the Incident Command Post.
B:✔If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
C: The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies will conduct the search operation of the fire floor.
D: The 4th arriving Ladder Company will conduct a primary search of the top five floors.
Explanation:
B) If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the 3rd ARRIVING LADDER COMPANY shall advise the 1st arriving Ladder Company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed.
HROB 8.3.1 E, 8.4.2 A, 8.5.1 B, 8.6.1 E
Depending on the height and size of a high rise office building, members may have to operate the building fire pumps during a working fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?
A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).
B: After locating the pump, locate the bypass valve on the discharge side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges; the discharge gauge is calibrated for higher pressures than the inlet gauge.
C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem out). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a counter-clockwise direction.
D: In some systems the bypass valve is not readily discernible. In this case it is permissible to start the pump as ordered without checking bypass valve but the efficiency of the pump will be affected. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
Depending on the height and size of a high rise office building, members may have to operate the building fire pumps during a working fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding this procedure?
A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).
B: After locating the pump, locate the bypass valve on the discharge side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges; the discharge gauge is calibrated for higher pressures than the inlet gauge.
C:✔The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem out). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a counter-clockwise direction.
D: In some systems the bypass valve is not readily discernible. In this case it is permissible to start the pump as ordered without checking bypass valve but the efficiency of the pump will be affected. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
Explanation:
C) The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem IN). If they are found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a CLOCKWISE direction.
D Note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival of this and any other actions taken.
HROB 4.1.2 A-F
The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. The Fast Unit must be ready to act immediately and decisively when called upon. There are several procedures when reporting in and operating as the Fast Unit. The only correct procedure can be found in which choice?
A: The Fast Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post, within sight of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed
B: When operating at large commercial occupancies, the FAST Unit shall split up for a quick two sided approach
C: When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on their HT and provide the IC all necessary information.
D: Upon arrival of a downed member, the FAST Unit shall assess the situation; Fire, Air, Removal, and Immediate Medical Care
The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed or involved in other serious life threatening situations. The Fast Unit must be ready to act immediately and decisively when called upon. There are several procedures when reporting in and operating as the Fast Unit. The only correct procedure can be found in which choice?
A: The Fast Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post, within sight of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed
B: When operating at large commercial occupancies, the FAST Unit shall split up for a quick two sided approach
C:✔When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on their HT and provide the IC all necessary information.
D: Upon arrival of a downed member, the FAST Unit shall assess the situation; Fire, Air, Removal, and Immediate Medical Care
Explanation:
MMID ch 2
A- within VERBAL contact of the IC, where they can be immediately deployed…sec 3.1
B- The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings…sec 7.4
C- Sec 7.6
D- Fire, Air, Immediate Medical Care, Removal (FAIR)…sec 7.6
Ladder company members are operating at the scene of a ”man-under” of a grade-level subway station. The on-duty Lieutenant asks his LCC to retrieve the emergency evacuation device. Where would the LCC expect to find this device at this station?
A: The area of the full time token booth.
B: The base of the emergency exit.
C: Any token booth.
D: The first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
Ladder company members are operating at the scene of a ”man-under” of a grade-level subway station. The on-duty Lieutenant asks his LCC to retrieve the emergency evacuation device. Where would the LCC expect to find this device at this station?
A: The area of the full time token booth.
B: The base of the emergency exit.
C: Any token booth.
D:✔The first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
Explanation:
At underground and GRADE LEVEL STATIONS the EED is located at the first blue light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
A. This is for ELEVATED stations.
B. This is for UNDER RIVER TUNNELS.
C. The keys to remove EEDs from their brackets can be found at EVERY TOKEN BOOTH.
AUC 207 Addendum 11 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4
Engine operations must be properly conducted to mitigate commercial occupancy and taxpayer fires efficiently and safely. Of the following choices, in which case is the use of a 2 1/2” hose line required for extinguishment?
A: A high rise fireproof multiple dwelling with fire in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor and the officer calls for the initial hose line to be stretched from the apparatus.
B: A mixed occupancy building with a cell phone shop on the first floor. Fire is in the cell phone shop and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
C: A nonfireproof multiple dwelling with a bodega located on the first floor. Fire is in the bodega and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
D: A large, uncompartmented one-story furniture store. Fire is in the store and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
Engine operations must be properly conducted to mitigate commercial occupancy and taxpayer fires efficiently and safely. Of the following choices, in which case is the use of a 2 1/2” hose line required for extinguishment?
A: A high rise fireproof multiple dwelling with fire in apartment 3A on the 3rd floor and the officer calls for the initial hose line to be stretched from the apparatus.
B: A mixed occupancy building with a cell phone shop on the first floor. Fire is in the cell phone shop and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
C: A nonfireproof multiple dwelling with a bodega located on the first floor. Fire is in the bodega and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
D:✔A large, uncompartmented one-story furniture store. Fire is in the store and the initial hose line is being stretched from the apparatus.
Explanation:
A fire in a taxpayer will require the use of 2 ½” hoselines due to the large, uncompartmented area that is typical in taxpayers.
B Note: A mixed occupancy is a two or three-story building with one or two apartments on the second or third floors, and a commercial occupancy on the first.
B and C Note: Commercial stores in both multiple dwellings and mixed occupancies frequently do not have the same characteristics of a taxpayer occupancy and may not always require a 2 ½” hoseline.
Txpyr 7.1.3, 7.1.4 A
Which of the following is CORRECT for a HRFPMD scenario that involves a closed apartment door, a failed window and a wind impacted fire?
A: The Engine Company stretched and charged the hose line in the stairwell prior to advancing to the fire apartment.
B: Prior to entering the fire apartment, The Engine Company Officer contacted the roof firefighter for a description of the fire apartment, location of the main body of fire, and most direct route to the fire area.
C: Once the decision has been made to enter the fire apartment, the ladder officer and one member of the FE team shall enter the apartment followed by the engine.
D: Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the door to the fire apartment shall not be chocked open.
Which of the following is CORRECT for a HRFPMD scenario that involves a closed apartment door, a failed window and a wind impacted fire?
A: The Engine Company stretched and charged the hose line in the stairwell prior to advancing to the fire apartment.
B:✔Prior to entering the fire apartment, The Engine Company Officer contacted the roof firefighter for a description of the fire apartment, location of the main body of fire, and most direct route to the fire area.
C: Once the decision has been made to enter the fire apartment, the ladder officer and one member of the FE team shall enter the apartment followed by the engine.
D: Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the door to the fire apartment shall not be chocked open.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
B IS CORRECT – The Engine Officer shall contact the roof firefighter or other member operating in the apartment above. 5.2.7
A – The hose line can be advanced to that location (fire apartment) and charged. 5.2.3
C – Once the decision has been made to enter the apartment, the Engine officer must enter the apartment first followed by the Ladder Company. 5.2.6
D – Apartment door shall be chocked open. 5.2.8
The correct internal radio code for L-500’s OV can be found in which choice?
A: 7500004
B: 7500005
C: L500004
D: L500005
The correct internal radio code for L-500’s OV can be found in which choice?
A:✔7500004
B: 7500005
C: L500004
D: L500005
Explanation:
MMID ch 2 add 1 p-4
First alarm units are operating at the scene of a mass casualty improvised explosive device detonation in the subway. Which one procedure is the only one in accordance with FDNY SOPs?
A: The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 1 3/4 hoseline to knockdown fire threatening victims.
B: The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to the point of impact.
C: The first arriving ladder company used skeds to remove critical victims from the point of impact to the triage transfer point.
D: The second arriving ladder company conducted reconnaissance of the point of impact.
First alarm units are operating at the scene of a mass casualty improvised explosive device detonation in the subway. Which one procedure is the only one in accordance with FDNY SOPs?
A: The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 1 3/4 hoseline to knockdown fire threatening victims.
B: The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to the point of impact.
C: The first arriving ladder company used skeds to remove critical victims from the point of impact to the triage transfer point.
D:✔The second arriving ladder company conducted reconnaissance of the point of impact.
Explanation:
A. The first arriving engine properly positioned the apparatus, established a water supply, and stretched a 2 1/2 HOSELINE to knockdown fire threatening victims.
B. The second arriving engine removed meters, skeds and CFR equipment from the apparatus and reported to THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.
C. The first arriving ladder company SET UP THE CORE RELAY.
THE QUESTIONS STATED THE EXPLOSION WAS IN THE SUBWAY, THEREFORE THE FIRST TRUCK ESTABLISHES THE CORE RELAY WITH THE SECOND DUE LADDER FULLFILLING THE RESPONSIBILTY FOR OPERATIONS AT THE POINT OF IMPACT.
AT OTHER THAN A SUBWAY THE FIRST TRUCK WOULD OPERATE AT THE POINT OF IMPACT WITH THE SECOND TRUCK REPORTING TO THE TRIAGE TRANSFER POINT.
ERP Addendum 3 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.4, 5.3.5
Fires in taxpayers with bowstring truss roofs make for challenging operations. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding these operations?
A: Be aware of the collapse potential of these types of roof systems, giving particular attention to the front and rear walls.
B: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design.
C: One method to determine if fire has entered the truss space is to make a rectangular cut in the sloping hip section in the front and/or rear of the roof from the safety of an aerial ladder or portable ladder.
D: When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure in these buildings, particularly if the building is vacant.
Fires in taxpayers with bowstring truss roofs make for challenging operations. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding these operations?
A: Be aware of the collapse potential of these types of roof systems, giving particular attention to the front and rear walls.
B: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal or combination bowstring truss design.
C:✔One method to determine if fire has entered the truss space is to make a rectangular cut in the sloping hip section in the front and/or rear of the roof from the safety of an aerial ladder or portable ladder.
D: When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure in these buildings, particularly if the building is vacant.
Explanation:
C) One method to determine if fire has entered the truss space is to make a TRIANGULAR cut in the sloping hip section in the front and/or rear of the roof from the safety of a TOWER LADDER BUCKET.
Txpyr 5.5.25
Firefighters should know how to “read” smoke. This comes with experience, but also with knowledge. Which description of smoke is inaccurate?
A: Dark smoke (black) often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited). If air supply is sufficient, there will be a lighter colored smoke and brighter flame but if air supply is restricted, the smoke will be darker.
B: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.
C: Brown smoke can indicate the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products. In a wood framed building, the presence of brown smoke may indicate that the structure is involved.
D: Application of water onto a large fire will generate large amounts of steam which can mix with smoke and create condensation that gives the appearance of white smoke. In this situation, the white color can indicate water is on the fire.
Firefighters should know how to “read” smoke. This comes with experience, but also with knowledge. Which description of smoke is inaccurate?
A: Dark smoke (black) often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited). If air supply is sufficient, there will be a lighter colored smoke and brighter flame but if air supply is restricted, the smoke will be darker.
B:✔Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.
C: Brown smoke can indicate the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products. In a wood framed building, the presence of brown smoke may indicate that the structure is involved.
D: Application of water onto a large fire will generate large amounts of steam which can mix with smoke and create condensation that gives the appearance of white smoke. In this situation, the white color can indicate water is on the fire.
Explanation:
B) The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke. In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with GREY smoke are REMOTE from the fire.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.4
