Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Some hydrants should be designated as a “Priority Repair” in the Hansen Hydrant System. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: A hydrant that is out of service and is the only hydrant in a block should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

B: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the NY Stock Exchange, a high-profile location, should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

C: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

D: If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, only one of them should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

A

Some hydrants should be designated as a “Priority Repair” in the Hansen Hydrant System. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: A hydrant that is out of service and is the only hydrant in a block should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

B: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the NY Stock Exchange, a high-profile location, should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

C: A hydrant that is out of service, which is vital to the protection of the Brooklyn Bridge should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

D:✔If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, only one of them should be designated as a “Priority Repair.”

Explanation:
D) If two adjacent hydrants in a block are both out-of-service, they are BOTH priority repairs.
C Note: This includes other critical infrastructure locations such as tunnels, transit systems, etc.
Eng Ch 3 Add 2 2.8.1

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2
Q

When an observed (overt) suspected biological device is discovered, an initial Exclusion Zone shall be established. This Exclusion Zone shall be at least __________ feet in all directions from the source or point(s) of release.
A: 50 feet

B: 100 feet

C: 200 feet

D: 300 feet

A

When an observed (overt) suspected biological device is discovered, an initial Exclusion Zone shall be established. This Exclusion Zone shall be at least __________ feet in all directions from the source or point(s) of release.
A: 50 feet

B: 100 feet

C: 200 feet

D:✔300 feet

Explanation:
ERP add 1 ch 1 sec 5.2.2

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3
Q

Snow chains are an “emergency traction device” and should be used as conditions warrant. Which additional point below regarding the use of snow chains on the apparatus is correct?

A: When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to fires or emergencies, and the cross links of chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing loose or broken links with bolt cutters.

B: The use of chains on dry pavement will not damage the apparatus and is permitted.

C: The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus inside the firehouse shall only be attempted with permission of the officer on duty.

D: When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 20 MPH.

A

Snow chains are an “emergency traction device” and should be used as conditions warrant. Which additional point below regarding the use of snow chains on the apparatus is correct?
A:✔When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to fires or emergencies, and the cross links of chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing loose or broken links with bolt cutters.

B: The use of chains on dry pavement will not damage the apparatus and is permitted.

C: The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus inside the firehouse shall only be attempted with permission of the officer on duty.

D: When chains are applied, apparatus must not exceed 20 MPH.

Explanation:
Some updates to this section in 2019

B. The use of chains on dry pavement CAN CAUSE SEVERE DAMAGE TO THE APPARATUS. WHEN WEATHER AND ROAD CONDITIONS IMPROVE, CHAINS MUST BE REMOVED.

C. The use of outriggers or tormentors to lift the apparatus inside the firehouse shall NEVER BE ATTEMPTED.

D. When chains are applied, apparatus must NOT EXCEED 30 MPH.

Cross Ref Regulations Ch 11, 11.1.17 D: When turning corners no apparatus should be driven in EXCESS OF 15 MPH.

TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 1 2.0

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4
Q
Vertical growth of the city has exploded in recent years giving birth to a whole new class of buildings. MEGA is required on CIDS cards to reflect this class of High-Rise building. Which height below is CORRECT for determining whether a building qualifies as a Mega Hi-Rise?
A: Buildings over 1000’ tall.

B: Buildings over 800’ tall

C: Buildings over 600’ tall.

D: Buildings over 500’ tall.

A
Vertical growth of the city has exploded in recent years giving birth to a whole new class of buildings. MEGA is required on CIDS cards to reflect this class of High-Rise building. Which height below is CORRECT for determining whether a building qualifies as a Mega Hi-Rise?
A: Buildings over 1000’ tall.

B:✔Buildings over 800’ tall

C: Buildings over 600’ tall.

D: Buildings over 500’ tall.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 4
B is correct – 4.3.1 Mega Hi-Rise is any building OVER 800’ tall.

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5
Q

Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?

A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.

B: The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.

C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.

D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.

A

Typically at a structural fire, the 2nd arriving engine company will team up with the 1st arriving engine to operate the 1st hoseline. However, there are situations in which the 2nd arriving engine company may stretch and operate a 2nd hoseline. This should only be done when each of the following conditions exist, with the exception of which choice?
A: The 1st arriving engine company must have secured a positive water source. The 2nd arriving engine officer can communicate with the 1st arriving chauffeur to confirm this.

B:✔The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine chauffeur to confirm this.

C: The hose stretches are sufficiently short, so the 1st arriving company will not require immediate assistance in operating the line once it is charged.

D: There is an immediate need for a 2nd hoseline to address fire extension or a life hazard.

Explanation:
B) The 1st arriving engine company does not require the help of the 2nd arriving engine to get the 1st line in operation. The 2nd arriving engine officer must communicate with the 1st arriving engine OFFICER to confirm this. D Note: The Incident Commander (Chief Officer or Acting Chief Officer) may order the second engine in any situation to immediately stretch a second line for any purpose including the need for a backup line or exposure protection.
Eng Ch 4 3.5

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6
Q

Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?
A: 1st arriving Engine

B: 2nd arriving Engine

C: 3rd arriving Engine

D: 4th arriving Engine

A

Which Engine Company is responsible for positioning near the 1st arriving Ladder Company and providing Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims during a suspected chemical attack in an underground subway?
A:✔1st arriving Engine

B: 2nd arriving Engine

C: 3rd arriving Engine

D: 4th arriving Engine

Explanation:
1st arriving Engine Company
- provide Emergency Gross Decontamination for ambulatory victims
- Direct persons who are decontaminated to Casualty Collection Points
- Provide estimate of number of victims to IC
- Inform 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decon area
2nd and 3rd arriving Engine Companies
- ensure that decon facilities are available quickly at remote locations (entrances)
- Perform CFRD duties as needed
ERP add 2 sec 7.1 and 7.2.1

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7
Q

After operating at a gas emergency, a newly promoted Lieutenant is discussing some features of gas related infrastructure with a young firefighter. He makes the following comments, but was incorrect in which one?

A: Head of service valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve, they are always before the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the point of entry.

B: Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter on medium and high pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (1/4 psi).

C: Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be a slight odor of natural gas at a peck vent.

D: Sometimes the utility company will have two master meters adjacent to one another. The valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

A

After operating at a gas emergency, a newly promoted Lieutenant is discussing some features of gas related infrastructure with a young firefighter. He makes the following comments, but was incorrect in which one?
A: Head of service valves are typically the first valve after the curb valve, they are always before the meter and are generally located either on the interior or exterior of the building near the point of entry.

B: Service regulators are usually located before the gas meter on medium and high pressure systems to reduce gas to low pressure (1/4 psi).

C:✔Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be a slight odor of natural gas at a peck vent.

D: Sometimes the utility company will have two master meters adjacent to one another. The valves to both meters would need to be closed to shut supply to the building.

Explanation:
C. Peck vents are installed on systems supplied by medium or high pressure to vent excess gas to the exterior if the service regulator fails. They may have a red cap. There should normally be NO ODOR of natural gas at a peck vent.

IF AN ODOR IS DETECTED, YOU MUST INVESTIGATE TO DETERMINE THE SOURCE.

Natural Gas 4.4.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.3

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8
Q

Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?

A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.

C: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

A

Proper Tower Ladder placement is crucial at a fire operation. All officers should be familiar with the information below except the incorrect statement in which choice?
A: Tower Ladders shall not be placed on sidewalks containing underground vaults.

B:✔Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled toward the building line.

C: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to an objective is 32 feet.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

Explanation:
B) Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building. Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus and this can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled AWAY FROM the building line.
C Note: When the center line of the turntable is 25 feet from a building there will be sufficient room for the bucket to be dropped below the horizontal with the boom perpendicular to the side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2

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9
Q

Officers should know the proper placement of portable ladders for the safety of operating members. In which choice below is the information correct?

A: The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately 75-85 degrees.

B: When placed at a window, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the window sill.

C: When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D: When placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing, but when placed against a fire escape, the tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.

A

Officers should know the proper placement of portable ladders for the safety of operating members. In which choice below is the information correct?
A: The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately 75-85 degrees.

B: When placed at a window, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the window sill.

C: When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D:✔When placed alongside a fire escape on a building wall, the tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing, but when placed against a fire escape, the tip shall be slightly above the fire escape railing.

Explanation:
D
A) The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately 65-75 degrees.
B) When placed at a window, the tip shall be level with window sill.
C) When placed at a roof, the tip shall be at least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.
Lad 1 7.3, 7.4

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10
Q

Each Engine and Ladder Company were issued two Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meters recently. If a meter is damaged or not working properly, the company officer shall place the meter OOS and notify who for a replacement?
A: Haz-Mat 1

B: Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room

C: Administrative Battalion

D: Administrative Division

A

Each Engine and Ladder Company were issued two Drager PAC 6500 C.O. meters recently. If a meter is damaged or not working properly, the company officer shall place the meter OOS and notify who for a replacement?
A: Haz-Mat 1

B:✔Haz-Mat Operations Meter Room

C: Administrative Battalion

D: Administrative Division

Explanation:
It used to be the admin battalion. This procedure has been changed since these meters were issued
CO meters will display readings up to 2,000 PPM. When readings exceed 2000 PPM, the CO meter will display “rrr” indicating concentrating too high to measure
Haz-Mat ch 4 add 2 sec 1.3 and 2.7.note

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11
Q

Manhattan fire units respond to a reported manhole emergency in midtown. On arrival, units encounter a concrete slab with access manholes placed in pairs. They would be most correct to identify this as which of the following items?
A: Transformer vault

B: Steam vault

C: Electric Manholes

D: Sewer Manholes

A

Manhattan fire units respond to a reported manhole emergency in midtown. On arrival, units encounter a concrete slab with access manholes placed in pairs. They would be most correct to identify this as which of the following items?
A: Transformer vault

B:✔Steam vault

C: Electric Manholes

D: Sewer Manholes

Explanation:
VARIATION OF THIS QUESTION ON THE 2021 CAPTAINS EXAM

DO NOT GIVE UP THE PICTURES IN BULLETINS. MAKE SURE YOU’RE ABLE TO IDENTIFY THEM AND LOOK AT CAPTIONS FOR ANY TESTABLE INFORMATION.

Steam Photo 1

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12
Q

As the officer in charge of a company, you are responsible for knowing the inner workings of the MDT. Which of the following Incident disposition keys is a single action key that DOES NOT require the use of the send key?
A: 10-20

B: 10-92

C: 10-18

D: 10-19

A

As the officer in charge of a company, you are responsible for knowing the inner workings of the MDT. Which of the following Incident disposition keys is a single action key that DOES NOT require the use of the send key?
A:✔10-20

B: 10-92

C: 10-18

D: 10-19

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS CORRECT – 2.22.1D (SECTION IN MARCH 2022 UPDATES)
B,C, & D all require the send button be pressed to complete the transaction.

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13
Q

Row Frame buildings present many hazards. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these hazards?

A: When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

B: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

C: The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cornice spreading over all the buildings in the row.

D: The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction.

A

Row Frame buildings present many hazards. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these hazards?
A: When a serious fire burns out the entire first floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

B: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

C:✔The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common cornice spreading over all the buildings in the row.

D: The major defects or faults in the construction are the lack of the fire stopping and the vast quantity of combustible material used in the construction.

Explanation:
C) The salient feature common to all, regardless of variations in design, is the common COCKLOFT spreading over all the buildings in the row. This cockloft may vary in height from ONE FOOT to a height tall enough for a member to STAND in.
BS/RF 5.3.2, 5.4 A, H

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14
Q

When operating during a hurricane, the depth of water that an apparatus (engine or ladder) can travel through shall be limited to what amount?
A: 18 inches

B: 2 feet

C: 3 feet

D: 3 1/2 feet

A

When operating during a hurricane, the depth of water that an apparatus (engine or ladder) can travel through shall be limited to what amount?
A:✔18 inches

B: 2 feet

C: 3 feet

D: 3 1/2 feet

Explanation:
The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed 18” for first line apparatus, and 50” for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles
AUC 159 sec 5.4.3

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15
Q

Units are operating with three engines and two trucks at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story multiple dwelling. Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, which of the following members shall operate as the Safety Team?
A: Backup and control of the first due engine.

B: Backup and control of the second due engine.

C: LCC and OV of the first due ladder company.

D: LCC and OV of the second due ladder company.

A

Units are operating with three engines and two trucks at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4-story multiple dwelling. Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, which of the following members shall operate as the Safety Team?
A: Backup and control of the first due engine.

B:✔Backup and control of the second due engine.

C: LCC and OV of the first due ladder company.

D: LCC and OV of the second due ladder company.

Explanation:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST unit, the Safety Team shall normally be made up of the Backup and Control firefighters of the second arriving engine.

MMID Chapter 1 2.1.1

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16
Q

Of the following choices, which is an incorrect description of “stack effect?”

A: Positive Stack Effect occurs in the Winter where air and smoke movement inside the building will travel upwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the top of the building.

B: Negative Stack Effect occurs in the Summer where air inside the building will travel downwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the bottom of the building.

C: In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the Summer months.

D: Of all the conditions that can affect fire behavior, wind has the most dramatic impact. Wind can overpower the Stack Effect, change flow paths, significantly change the volume and intensity of a fire, and the speed at which materials burn.

A

Of the following choices, which is an incorrect description of “stack effect?”
A: Positive Stack Effect occurs in the Winter where air and smoke movement inside the building will travel upwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the top of the building.

B: Negative Stack Effect occurs in the Summer where air inside the building will travel downwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the bottom of the building.

C:✔In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the Summer months.

D: Of all the conditions that can affect fire behavior, wind has the most dramatic impact. Wind can overpower the Stack Effect, change flow paths, significantly change the volume and intensity of a fire, and the speed at which materials burn.

Explanation:
C) In New York City, the difference between the temperatures inside a building compared to the temperature outside the building will be greater during the WINTER months than it will be during the summer months. For this reason, the positive stack effect which occurs during the winter will be MORE PROMINENT than the negative stack effect which occurs during summer months.
TB FD Ch 4 1.7, 2.1

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17
Q

You are in charge of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company at a top floor fire in a 6-story Old Law Tenement. Your Roof FF would be correct to carry the equipment in which choice?
A: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, and 6’ Halligan Hook.

B: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, 6’ Halligan Hook, and LSR.

C: Saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook.

D: Saw and the Halligan.

A

You are in charge of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company at a top floor fire in a 6-story Old Law Tenement. Your Roof FF would be correct to carry the equipment in which choice?
A: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, and 6’ Halligan Hook.

B: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, 6’ Halligan Hook, and LSR.

C:✔Saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook.

D: Saw and the Halligan.

Explanation:
For fire on a floor other than the top floor, the 2nd Roof FF should bring: Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan, and 6’ Halligan Hook.
For top floor fires the saw and the 6’ Halligan Hook are taken.
Lad 3.4.7

18
Q

A FireIce Unit will be correctly shown on the response ticket in which choice?
A: E033I

B: E033F

C: L120K

D: E332S

A

A FireIce Unit will be correctly shown on the response ticket in which choice?
A:✔E033I

B: E033F

C: L120K

D: E332S

Explanation:
FireIce units will be designated by the letter suffix”I” on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit
B- FAST Unit
C- Division Task Force
D- Communication Unit
NO TRUCKS ARE ASSIGNED AS A FIREICE UNIT
AUC 180 sec 4.1 and Communications Ch 2 p-18

19
Q

Hybrid vehicles have become much more prevalent in recent years. Which hybrid vehicle safety consideration is described incorrectly?

A: Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.

B: Never cut any high voltage cables. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded orange. Although some cables are color-coded blue.

C: Make sure the “ready” light is not on.

D: At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high-voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

A

Hybrid vehicles have become much more prevalent in recent years. Which hybrid vehicle safety consideration is described incorrectly?
A:✔Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle.

B: Never cut any high voltage cables. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded orange. Although some cables are color-coded blue.

C: Make sure the “ready” light is not on.

D: At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high-voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.

Explanation:
A. Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is off, and the key or key fob is AT LEAST 15 FEET AWAY from the vehicle.

VARIATION OF THIS QUESTION ON 2009 LT EXAM

CROSS REF: AUC 5 Chapter 2 Addendum 3 Page 5: Rooftop Conduits and Piping

High voltage wiring: Red
Low voltage wiring: Orange

TB Fires 8 11.6 C

20
Q

Engine 244 is assigned to fire in a High-Rise Building as the Communications Unit. Which letter suffix is CORRECT?
A: Y

B: K

C: S

D: C

A

Engine 244 is assigned to fire in a High-Rise Building as the Communications Unit. Which letter suffix is CORRECT?
A: Y

B: K

C:✔S

D: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATION MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT – S = COMMUNICATIONS UNIT 2.12.1 #2PG 2-18
A – SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT
B – DIVISION TASK FORCE
D – CFRD ENGINE

21
Q

The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?

A: All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.

B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.

C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.

D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.

A

The proper maintenance of hose is essential to effective operations. Of the following choices, which one is incorrect?
A:✔All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi. The hose must be less than 10 years old.

B: Hose tested must not have any obvious defects. These includes damaged couplings, abrasions, burns, or rot to the hose jacket. If defects are noted, the hose should not be tested and should be placed OOS.

C: During the hose test, the apparatus is hooked up to a hydrant using the inlet opposite the pump panel. In addition, attach a single gate to the pumper outlet, also on the side opposite the pump panel.

D: During the annual hose test, the test pressure is maintained for 5 minutes and the ECC should be mindful that there is no movement of water during the test and the pump may build up heat. If heat is noted, a valve on an unused gate may be partially opened to allow water movement.

Explanation:
A) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI. *Note - this is a change from our old Engine Operations manuals.
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 5.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.5, 5.3.6, 5.4.11

22
Q

The most correct procedure when operating at a fire in a Foreign Embassy can be found i which choice?

A: The Foreign Embassy is located in a 25X60 4 sty Brownstone. You ordered a 2 1/2” line stretched to extinguish a fire on the parlor floor

B: If entry is denied in any Foreign Embassy on fire, do not enter. Instead protect exposures and set up TL in front

C: After fire is knocked down in a Foreign embassy, relief companies must be able to enter to relieve initial companies and complete overhaul since the FDNY now controls the scene

D: During a fire in a Foreign Embassy, if explosives or ammunition are involved then notify the IC and avoid the area while extinguishing the fire

A

The most correct procedure when operating at a fire in a Foreign Embassy can be found i which choice?
A: The Foreign Embassy is located in a 25X60 4 sty Brownstone. You ordered a 2 1/2” line stretched to extinguish a fire on the parlor floor

B:✔If entry is denied in any Foreign Embassy on fire, do not enter. Instead protect exposures and set up TL in front

C: After fire is knocked down in a Foreign embassy, relief companies must be able to enter to relieve initial companies and complete overhaul since the FDNY now controls the scene

D: During a fire in a Foreign Embassy, if explosives or ammunition are involved then notify the IC and avoid the area while extinguishing the fire

Explanation:
AUC 196
A- Stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions. In this case it would be 1 3/4”…sec 5.1
B- sec 4.6
C- Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and they may also refuse to allow overhauling. Do not argue; if asked to leave then do so…..sec 4.7
D- Expect storage of ammunition and explosives. If ammunition and explosives are involved, evacuate immediately and notify the NYPD and Fire Marshals …sec 5.3
This is considered a separator question in the author’s opinion. Its only 2 pages, but worth the read

23
Q

Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?
A: “A”: Airway

B: “C”: Checker

C: “D”: Defib/Documenter

D: “E” Equipment

A

Based on the following CFR assignments, which CFR firefighter is responsible for manually stabilizing the patients spine if trauma is suspected?
A:✔“A”: Airway

B: “C”: Checker

C: “D”: Defib/Documenter

D: “E” Equipment

Explanation:
“A” Airway: Manually stabilizing spine (if trauma is suspected) while opening the airway, maintaining the airway, and administering oxygen if needed. In response to cardiac arrest, begins ventilation. Carries o2 bag.

“B” Boss: Officer in charge

“C” Checker: Conducts patient assessment and performs hand-on care. In response to cardiac arrest, checks pulse and begins compressions. Carries trauma bag.

“D” Defib/Documenter: Completes PCR. In response to cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates defibrillator.

“E” Equipment: If CFR unit is 5 FF, the fifth FF shall initially remain with the apparatus and help carry any additional equipment needed.

CFR Chapter 2 2.1

24
Q

Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?
A: 200psi

B: 250psi

C: 300psi

D: 350psi

A

Your unit is operating at a fire on the 32nd floor of a high rise office building. What is the recommended pump discharge pressure?
A: 200psi

B: 250psi

C:✔300psi

D: 350psi

Explanation:
C) 300psi
Floors 1-10 supply 150psi
Then add 50psi for every 10 floors
HROB 4.1.7
25
Q

All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 18 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.

B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.

C: Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.

D: Wall Hydrants Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)

A

All officers should be familiar with the types of hydrants and other water supply sources in their response areas. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Some Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways are maintained shut at the curb valve. They must be turned on fully at the curb valve, approximately 18 turns clockwise using a curb valve key, in order to be used.

B: Red Air Cock Hydrants are on 30” diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points on the water main). These hydrants are painted red and are excellent sources of water for Fire Department use.

C:✔Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains and shall never be used. The hydrants are painted red and are high pressure hydrants.

D: Wall Hydrants Hydrants are embedded in the wall of a building and closely resemble a Fire Department Connection (but should be labeled as a hydrant.) They are operated by turning an operating nut (often located above the outlets.)

Explanation:
C) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants are a twin hydrant arrangement on large mains for a rapid and ADEQUATE source of water for Satellite Units. The hydrants are painted red and MAY have two 4 ½” outlets.
Eng Ch 3 Add 4 2.3.3 - 2.3.6

26
Q

The correct procedure when operating in the subway can be found in which choice?

A: When trying to extinguish a small rubbish fire near the 3rd rail, you ordered a FF to shut power using the nearest power removal box to remove power

B: When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an Officer and a FF operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks when extinguishing a small rubbish fire

C: The communication relay in a subway will consist of Truck Chauffeur, Roof FF, OV FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer (In this order)

D: Upon report of a fire in a subway, it is imperative that all Engine Chauffeurs secure and hook up to a hydrant as soon as possible

A

The correct procedure when operating in the subway can be found in which choice?
A: When trying to extinguish a small rubbish fire near the 3rd rail, you ordered a FF to shut power using the nearest power removal box to remove power

B:✔When conditions do not require power removal, reconnaissance may be conducted by an Officer and a FF operating as a team and only from platforms or catwalks when extinguishing a small rubbish fire

C: The communication relay in a subway will consist of Truck Chauffeur, Roof FF, OV FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer (In this order)

D: Upon report of a fire in a subway, it is imperative that all Engine Chauffeurs secure and hook up to a hydrant as soon as possible

Explanation:
AUC 207
A- Power removal boxes are for when there is an immediate danger and power must be shut-off to save lives in imminent danger….sec 3.2.4
B- sec 3.4
C- C.O.R.E…… Truck Chauffeur, OV FF, Roof FF, Engine Officer, Truck Officer…..sec 4.1
D- Engine Chauffeurs should not hook up until the location of the fire is determined…sec 5.1

27
Q

FDNY units respond to a 20-story high-rise office building for a fire on the 13th floor. The “A” elevators serve floors 1 to 7; the “B” elevators serve floors 7 to 15; and the “C” elevators serve 15 to 20. There are access stairs going from the 9th floor to the 10th floor and the 11th floor to the 12th floor. When deciding which elevator to use for this fire operation, units would be most correct to take?
A: The “A” elevator to 7th floor.

B: The “B” elevator no higher than the 8th floor.

C: The “B” elevator no higher than the 9th floor.

D: The “B” elevator no higher than the 11th floor.

A

FDNY units respond to a 20-story high-rise office building for a fire on the 13th floor. The “A” elevators serve floors 1 to 7; the “B” elevators serve floors 7 to 15; and the “C” elevators serve 15 to 20. There are access stairs going from the 9th floor to the 10th floor and the 11th floor to the 12th floor. When deciding which elevator to use for this fire operation, units would be most correct to take?
A: The “A” elevator to 7th floor.

B: The “B” elevator no higher than the 8th floor.

C: The “B” elevator no higher than the 9th floor.

D:✔The “B” elevator no higher than the 11th floor.

Explanation:
Each part of 7-5-2 elevator rule must be considered separately:

7: 7th floor or below units walk up (this didn’t apply here)
5: Do not use an elevator bank which serves the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within 5 floors of the fire floor (this didn’t apply here the “A”bank is 6 floors below).
2: When it is necessary to use an elevator bank which services the fire floor (as was the case in this example) select a floor at least two floor below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.

IN THIS EXAMPLE, THE ACCESS STAIRS DOES NOT SERVE THE FIRE AREA. THEREFORE “D” IS THE CORRECT CHOICE. UNITS TAKE THE “B” ELEVATOR NO HIGHER THAN THE 11th FLOOR WHICH IS 2 FLOORS BELOW THE FIRE FLOOR.

THIS SECTION OF THE ELEVATOR BULLETIN IS ASKED ON VIRTUALLY EVERY EXAM. MAKE SURE YOU KNOW IT COLD

TB Elevators 6.1

28
Q

Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?
A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.

B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.

C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.

D: Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.

A

Members were discussing the designations of units during a study session. Which designation is CORRECT?
A: Engine 256 is assigned to an Ice Rescue incident. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix W.

B: Engine 244 is assigned to a High-Rise fire as the Systems Control Unit. They were listed on the ticket with the Suffix S.

C: Engine 232 is assigned to a 1075 as a High-Pressure Pumper. They were listed on the ticket with the Prefix P.

D:✔Engine 322 is assigned to a collapse incident as the transport unit. They were listed on the ticket with the prefix E.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – Engine companies are designated by the prefix E. 2.12.1A1
A – Water/Ice Rescue is indicated by the SUFFIX W
B – Systems Control Unit is indicated by the SUFFIX Y
C – High Pressure Pumper is indicated by the SUFFIX P

29
Q

Of the following choices, in which case was a vacant building not marked properly?
A: Markings were spray painted with lime-yellow reflective paint.

B: The size of the square was approximately 18” x 18” and marking lines were 2” wide.

C: The letters “RO” shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation (i.e. previously cut or burned away).

D: The letters “FO” shall be made directly over vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.

A

Of the following choices, in which case was a vacant building not marked properly?
A: Markings were spray painted with lime-yellow reflective paint.

B: The size of the square was approximately 18” x 18” and marking lines were 2” wide.

C: The letters “RO” shall be made directly over the vacant building markings in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation (i.e. previously cut or burned away).

D:✔The letters “FO” shall be made directly over vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.

Explanation:
D) The letters “FO” shall be made directly UNDERNEATH vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes or openings that may endanger members.
Note: Primary markings shall be made alongside the front entrance of the building at a height that is in line with the area directly over the front entrance.
Markings should be high enough to ensure visibility. To achieve this height, a ladder may be required.
If the building has multiple entrances or other likely means of access, additional markings shall be made at other places (e.g., rear or side entrance, fire escape, roof bulkhead, etc.)
Do not mark sealed doors or windows. The structure should be marked at locations that are likely to remain undisturbed.
Vacant 3.1

30
Q

You are giving a drill on how to halt train traffic when operating on or near train tracks. The procedure that’s most correct can be found in which choice?

A: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

B: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

C: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

D: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

A

You are giving a drill on how to halt train traffic when operating on or near train tracks. The procedure that’s most correct can be found in which choice?
A:✔A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

B: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least four feet

C: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held chest high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

D: A member directed to halt train traffic shall use a light. The light is to be held waist high and moved in a wide horizontal motion of at least two feet

Explanation:
AUC 207 sec 7.4
Look at sec 7.3….”Whenever members are committed to a track area, firefighters shall be assigned in pairs to act as warning guards” (2021 Captains exam)

31
Q

Which one of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?
A: Minor damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.

B: 5% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.

C: Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure.

D: Gas present in two or more subsurface structures.

A

Which one of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?
A: Minor damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.

B: 5% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.

C: Elevated natural gas reading (10% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure.

D:✔Gas present in two or more subsurface structures.

Explanation:
A. SERIOUS damage to a major component of the gas infrastructure.

B. 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.

C. Elevated natural gas reading (20% LEL or greater) in an unvented, subsurface structure.

Other indicators:

  1. Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.
  2. Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.
  3. Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure.

Natural Gas 5.0

32
Q

All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.

B: The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.

C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.

D: The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.

A

All officers should have a basic understanding of fire dynamics. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?
A: The horizontal line between the inflow and outflow at a ventilation opening (i.e., at the plane where there is zero pressure difference and thus zero flow in or out of the opening) is known as the neutral plane. The position of the neutral plane can often be observed during a fire, given that the outflow often consists of visible smoke or fire.

B:✔The neutral plane is another term for thermal interface and may occur inside a fire compartment or at any ventilation opening.

C: Thermal Interface and interface height refer to the separation between the hot upper layer and the cool lower layer within a compartment. It can be used by firefighters to identify how far the hot upper layer has banked down and the possibility of flashover.

D: The neutral plane indicates pressure differences at an opening and may be used by firefighters outside the building to help determine the fire location within a building.

Explanation:
B) The neutral plane is DIFFERENT from the thermal interface because the neutral plane ONLY occurs at a ventilation opening.
TB FD Ch 2 2.5.4, 2.5.5

33
Q

While operating at the scene of a structural collapse, you hear 3 short blasts (1 second each) from an air horn. What does this indicate?
A: Cease Operations/All Quiet

B: Evacuate the area

C: Report to the Command Post

D: Resume Operations

A

While operating at the scene of a structural collapse, you hear 3 short blasts (1 second each) from an air horn. What does this indicate?
A: Cease Operations/All Quiet

B:✔Evacuate the area

C: Report to the Command Post

D: Resume Operations

Explanation:
B) Evacuate the area
1 Long Blast (3 seconds) - Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) - Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast - Resume Operations
Collapse 9.2

34
Q

When operating water into manhole, vault, or service box, you should maintain a distance of at least how many feet?
A: 10 feet

B: 15 feet

C: 20 feet

D: 25 feet

A

When operating water into manhole, vault, or service box, you should maintain a distance of at least how many feet?
A: 10 feet

B: 15 feet

C: 20 feet

D:✔25 feet

Explanation:
AUC 180 was recently rewritten (November 2021)
AUC 180 sec 4.7.2

35
Q

According to the most recent ventilation bulletin, generally, backdrafts will occur ______ the main body of fire and require ______ change in ventilation.
A: remote from; no

B: remote from; a sudden

C: in proximity to; no

D: in proximity to; a sudden

A

According to the most recent ventilation bulletin, generally, backdrafts will occur ______ the main body of fire and require ______ change in ventilation.
A: remote from; no

B: remote from; a sudden

C: in proximity to; no

D:✔in proximity to; a sudden

Explanation:
Note: Smoke explosion generally occurs REMOTE from the main body of fire and NO ADDITIONAL VENTILATION is needed.

Ventilation Glossary

36
Q

Lt. Sponge was discussing the actions taken by Engine 2 after receiving an E alarm in a High-Rise building on the 34th floor. Which was the only CORRECT action taken by Engine 2 upon arrival at this single unit response? Note: The building is a 40 Story 200x200 Class 1 with six elevators and Access stairs servicing floors 17-23 & 30-37.
A: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and responded in with forcible entry tools and after checking in with building personnel and being advised of a smoke detector activation on the 34th floor transmitted the box.

B: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and boarded an elevator car and took the elevator to the 32nd floor using precautions normally taken with fire service elevators.

C: Engine 2 contacted the ECC in the apparatus and had her transmit a second alarm 1076 upon discovering a smoke condition on the 34th floor.

D: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and returned to the lobby to secure the necessary hose and equipment in preparation to operate after discovering the smoke condition on the 34th floor.

A

Lt. Sponge was discussing the actions taken by Engine 2 after receiving an E alarm in a High-Rise building on the 34th floor. Which was the only CORRECT action taken by Engine 2 upon arrival at this single unit response? Note: The building is a 40 Story 200x200 Class 1 with six elevators and Access stairs servicing floors 17-23 & 30-37.
A: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and responded in with forcible entry tools and after checking in with building personnel and being advised of a smoke detector activation on the 34th floor transmitted the box.

B: Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and boarded an elevator car and took the elevator to the 32nd floor using precautions normally taken with fire service elevators.

C: Engine 2 contacted the ECC in the apparatus and had her transmit a second alarm 1076 upon discovering a smoke condition on the 34th floor.

D:✔Engine 2 had their ECC remain with the apparatus and returned to the lobby to secure the necessary hose and equipment in preparation to operate after discovering the smoke condition on the 34th floor.

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 6 – ADDENDUM 2
D IS CORRECT 3.7 Second Bullet Point
A – Officer shall make contact with building personnel; inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system. If reset doesn’t hold after 2-3 minutes, then you investigate. 3.4 & 3.5
B – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least 2 floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest. (Elev 6.1.4 A & B) Access stairs serve floors 30-37…
C – A second alarm is warranted for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a SERIOUS fire has been verified. (Hi-Rise 5.2.2B)

37
Q

Proper aerial ladder placement is important to the overall success of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Place the apparatus 13 feet from the building for a good climbing angle

B: Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible

C: For an experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.

D: For the less experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

A

Proper aerial ladder placement is important to the overall success of a fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A:✔Place the apparatus 13 feet from the building for a good climbing angle

B: Place the apparatus in the center of the street, if possible

C: For an experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.

D: For the less experienced member, when placing the ladder, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

Explanation:
A) Place the apparatus 25 to 35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.
A Note: Average city sidewalk is 13’ from the building line to the curb and 35’ from curb to curb.
Lad 2 3.1, 3.1.4

38
Q

The INCORRECT statement when referring to the Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) can be found in which choice?
A: RRVs with 4 doors will have MDTs and 4 wheel drive

B: RRVs with 2 doors will not have a MDT and only have 2 wheel drive capability

C: Only 4 door RRVs will be designated in CADS with an “R” Ex: L-25 RRV will show on MDT as R025

D: When supervising a RRV Task Force, the primary method of communication will be the Department Radio

A

The INCORRECT statement when referring to the Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force (RRV) can be found in which choice?
A: RRVs with 4 doors will have MDTs and 4 wheel drive

B: RRVs with 2 doors will not have a MDT and only have 2 wheel drive capability

C: Only 4 door RRVs will be designated in CADS with an “R” Ex: L-25 RRV will show on MDT as R025

D:✔When supervising a RRV Task Force, the primary method of communication will be the Department Radio

Explanation:
Primary Communications - 400 MHz UHF Radios
Alternate Communications- 800 MHz radios
Contingency Communications - Cell Phones
Emergency Communications - Department Radio
Look at choice “C”- 2 door RRVs will not have a prefix “R” like found in 4 door vehicles. Instead 2 door vehicles will be designated when called over the Department radio as SSL-126 (L-126 2nd piece)
AUC 159 add 8 sec 3 and 4

39
Q

First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?
A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.

B: The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.

C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.

D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.

A

First alarm units arrive at a chute fire in a compactor of a high-rise fireproof multiple dwelling. Which operation performed is incorrect?
A: The first engine company to arrive will proceed to one level above the burning material, stretch a line and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire.

B:✔The Roof FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.

C: The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor room. They must first locate the electrical shut off and shut power to the unit before operations commence.

D: After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door, they are to be sure the hoseline is shut down and the sprinkler OS&Y is closed.

Explanation:
B. THE OV FF of the ladder company operates with the engine company to provide access to the chute and check for extension.

THE ROOF FF of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.

TB Fires 7 8.2

40
Q

Private dwelling construction can influence the tactics deployed at fires in these buildings. In which choice below is the information incorrect?
A: Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

B: Platform frame construction limits fire extension. Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

C: When there are only one or two offset windows (not in line with the other windows of the house) on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling, this indicates that these windows access bedrooms and should be entered for VEIS.

D: Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction may provide a suitable platform from which to work. Members shall not use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations.

A

Private dwelling construction can influence the tactics deployed at fires in these buildings. In which choice below is the information incorrect?
A: Outside ladder company positions are predicated on whether the roof is flat or peaked. This information must be transmitted with the signal 10-75, if this can be determined upon arrival.

B: Platform frame construction limits fire extension. Balloon frame construction lacks fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.

C:✔When there are only one or two offset windows (not in line with the other windows of the house) on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling, this indicates that these windows access bedrooms and should be entered for VEIS.

D: Porch and garage roofs of normal wood frame construction may provide a suitable platform from which to work. Members shall not use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations.

Explanation:
C) When there are only one or two offset windows (not in line with the other windows of the house) on the exposure 2 or 4 side of a dwelling, this indicates that these are the windows at the top and/or bottom of the SECOND FLOOR STAIRCASE. These offset windows are windows that should NOT be entered for VEIS.
PD Ch 2 2.6, 2.7, 2.8