Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

ADC prevent collisions between whom?

A
  1. Between aircraft flying within the designated area of responsibility of the tower including the circuit
  2. Aircraft landing and taking off
  3. Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area
  4. Aircraft, vehicles and personnel operating on the manoeuvring area
  5. Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
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2
Q

When is the transfer of control effected from approach to aerodrome?

RAC3-9 1.5.6

A
  1. is within 10 NM of the aerodrome, and
    • it is considered that approach and landing will be completed in visual reference to the ground, or
    • has reached uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions, or
  2. is at a prescribed point or level, or
  3. has landed,

As specified in LOA or LUO.

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3
Q

When shall the information on an ATIS be revised and updated?

A

· The instrument approach has changed

· The take-off or landing runway is changed

· Changes occur in the operational status of the aerodrome and its facilities;

· The meteorological conditions change through or by criteria detailed in the MET section “Take-off and Landing Report Revision Criteria”

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4
Q

What are the three basic things that you are required to include in a briefing for all personnel before they proceed onto the manoeuvring area?

A

· Stop and wait for permission, either by radio or light signal, before moving onto the manoeuvring area and before crossing or moving on to any runway, grass landing area or taxiway; and

· Watch for and give way at all times to aircraft; and

· Look for signals from the tower, including activation of runway lighting, etc.

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5
Q

When are the two times the pilot should pass POB

A

· Departing aircraft should advise POB prior to taxiing onto the manoeuvring area

· Arriving aircraft should advise POB when establishing RTF communication with aerodrome control or AFIS.

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6
Q

List in the correct order the 7 elements (with no ATIS) of a taxi clearance of a departing aircraft?

A

· Aircraft callsign
· Local traffic information or taxi sequence instructions
· Taxi clearance
· Runway to be used
· Aerodrome conditions information
· Meteorological information/ATIS
· For IFR flights “Time (minutes only to the nearest half minute)” unless a time check has been given with start up advice or arrangements have been made for it to be obtained from other sources.

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7
Q

List the items that shall be included in the aerodrome conditions information

A

· Construction or maintenance work, on or immediately adjacent to the movement area;
· Rough or broken surfaces on a runway, taxiway or apron whether marked or not;
· Snow, slush or ice, on a runway, taxiway or apron, including effect on braking action;
· Water on a runway, taxiway, or apron including effect on braking action;
· Snow banks or drifts adjacent to a runway, taxiway or apron;
· Other temporary hazards, including parked aircraft and birds on the ground or in the air;
· Failure or irregular operation of part or all of the aerodrome lighting system;
· Any other pertinent information

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8
Q

How do we indicate on the FPB an aircraft or vehicle is occupying a runway in use

A

Display a blocking strip, an aircraft flight progress strip or a marker on the part of the flight progress board that is used to represent the runway.

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9
Q

What shall a taxi clearance contain when the limit is beyond a runway

A

An explicit clearance to cross or an instruction to hold short of that runway.

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10
Q

What’s the phraseologies used to a pilot to abandon the take-off because of a perilous situation?

A

“(callsign) STOP IMMEDIATELY, (repeat callsign) STOP IMMEDIATELY” followed immediately by the nature of the emergency.

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11
Q

Know the two different conditional line up clearances for scenarios

A

For example:

“KVW, BEHIND THE TOMAHAWK ON SHORT FINAL, LINE UP BEHIND”

“NEW ZEALAND 4011 LIMA, AFTER THE DEPARTING ATR, LINE UP BEHIND’

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12
Q

When may you issue a qualified take-off clearance?

A

· It is during daylight hours; AND

· Visibility is 5km or greater; AND

· There is a reasonable assurance that the appropriate runway separation will exist at the time the departing aircraft commences take-off; AND

· The pilot is advised of the preceding departing or landing aircraft (or personnel/vehicle crossing/vacating the runway), and will be able to keep it in sight until runway separation is in place

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13
Q

List in the correct order the elements of a landing clearance

A
  1. Callsign
  2. Any significant change in MET information already given to aircraft
  3. Runway surface conditions
  4. Other temporary hazards (birds)
  5. Any special information or instructions relating to turning off the runway after landing
  6. Cautionary advice or wake turbulence
  7. Any qualification applicable
  8. Runway seal/grass number
  9. “CLEARED TO LAND”
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14
Q

What methods do you use to achieve sequencing of aircraft in the circuit?

A
  1. Enter the circuit at a specified position and/or level
  2. Follow a specified circuit or part circuit
  3. Hold over a specified position
  4. Orbit (right or left) from a particular position
  5. Extend or shorten legs of the circuit
  6. Follow any other specified manoeuvre, or combination of the above, compatible with safety.
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15
Q

What are the phraseologies that shall be issued as necessary to sequence adjust or delay an approach or traffic in the circuit?

A

· “Climb straight ahead”

· “Orbit (left/right)

· “Make short approach”

· “Extend downwind”

· “Continue approach”

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16
Q

What are the limitations that a controller should bear in mind when issuing instructions for an aircraft to follow or position behind another in a landing sequence?

A

· The field of vision from the cockpit
· The contrast formed by an aircraft and its background
· Glare from the sun;
· Restricted visibility caused by haze or other conditions;
· The possibility of misidentification of the subject aircraft. If there is any doubt, or if the pilot reports difficulty in sighting the aircraft, action shall be taken to ensure that adequate separation is maintained.

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17
Q

What are the 4 basic elements of a conditional clearance?

A

· Callsign

· The condition

· The clearance

· A brief reiteration of the condition

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18
Q

What are the criteria that must be applied when using reduced runway separations?

A

· Daylight operations only
· Visibility is 5 km or greater and conditions do not prevent the pilot from making an early assessment of conditions on the runway
· Braking action is unlikely to be adversely affected by runway contaminants
· Specified longitudinal distances are able to be readily determined by the aerodrome controller by reference to prominent markers or features
· Pertinent traffic information that will enable the following aircraft to sight the preceding aircraft is issued
· It is considered by the aerodrome controller there is no risk of collision

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19
Q

Disregarding Wake turbulence when may an aircraft be cleared to take-off from a crossing runway?

A

· A preceding aircraft taking off on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection,

· A preceding aircraft landing on a crossing runway has crossed and is clear of the intersection,

· A preceding aircraft that has landed on a crossing runway has stopped short of and is clear of the intersection

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20
Q

If you want to change the runway-in-use what must you do?

A

Must co-ordinate the timing and selection with the approach controller

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21
Q

What are the wake turbulence categories?

A

Super - A388

Heavy - MCTOW 136,000 KG or more

Medium - MCTOW of Less than 136,000 KG and more than 7,000 KG

Light - MCTOW of 7,000 KG or less

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22
Q

The direction of the circuit at controlled aerodromes shall be left-hand except where otherwise prescribed, however an aircraft may be permitted to carry out non-standard circuits provided what?

A
  • such non-standard manoeuvres are not specifically precluded; and
  • adequate control can be maintained.
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23
Q

Clearances to VFR, including SVFR shall provide what?

A

· Provide separation in accordance with RAC 5, and

· Provide traffic information in accordance with RAC 10

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24
Q

What are the elements in order used when passing traffic information?

A

· The word “Traffic”

· Direction of flight or nature of operation

· Aircraft type

· Level (if known)

· Positional information, including as appropriate:

o Present position and/or track; or

o Relative bearing and distance; or

o ETO at an appropriate reporting point; or

o ETP

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25
Q

In terms of local traffic, what shall a pilot be advised of?

A

Any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area or traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome that may constitute a hazard to the aircraft concerned.

26
Q

Who is provided with an alerting service?

A

· For all aerodrome traffic when ATS is in attendance; and

· For all aircraft:

  1. Operating under a flight plan submitted in accordance with CAR 91.307 (VFR) and 91.407 (IFR)
  2. Otherwise known by ATS to be in need of assistance
  3. Known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
27
Q

When it is known or believed that an aircraft is in a state of emergency or in need of assistance what action shall ATS personnel take?

A

· Give priority to and render all possible assistance to the aircraft;

· Declare the appropriate emergency phase; and

· Take actions in accordance with guidance and instructions in:

o The following RAC 7 sections;

o The IFERC for airborne emergencies beyond the area of jurisdiction of;

o The AEP – for aircraft emergencies at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome as described in the plan.

28
Q

What are the 3 aerodrome emergency phases?

A
  • Local Standby
  • Full Emergency
  • Crash
29
Q

Before an ATS unit closes watch, ATC shall ascertain from all aerodrome traffic still operating whether or not they require an alerting service. If response is affirmative what shall the pilot be requested to do?

A

The pilot shall be requested to file a flight plan.

30
Q

Who is responsible for issuing and updating an AEP?

A

The aerodrome operator

31
Q

On receipt of the initial call of an arriving aircraft, a controller shall issue as appropriate a clearance into the control zone. What are the other 4 joining instructions available as listed in MATS?

A
  • Circuit joining instructions, or
  • Instructions to delay the aircraft’s entry into the CTR/circuit, and/or
  • Instruct the aircraft when to call again, and/or
  • Acknowledge the call where the aircraft is established on a straight-in instrument approach.
32
Q

Skyline normally updates an ETA, when the system cannot make the revision time criteria and there is a change of ETA at the transfer of control equal or greater to that criteria. What is the time change criteria that is applicable to an aerodrome unit?

A

5 minutes

33
Q

Unless the pilot advises they have received the current ATIS for an arriving VFR flight, List the MET information that shall be passed.

A
  • mean surface wind direction and speed and significant variations
  • air temperature (for turbine aircraft)
  • QNH
  • other significant information
  • crosswind/tailwind component if requested.
34
Q

The transfer of radio guard is made at the time, position or level which is agreed with the next controlling authority. What are the other 2 basic conditions?

A

· Be made whenever a transfer of control is effected; and

· Take place at the transfer of control point unless other RTF contact arrangements are agreed between controllers or specified in LOA/LUO.

35
Q

What are the rules around the suspension of any or all VFR flights in a CTR?

A

The approach controller may also suspend any or all VFR operations within the CTR whenever safety requires such action.

36
Q

Aerodrome Controllers may only exercise control of airborne traffic when that traffic is what?

A

ADC may only exercise control of an airborne flight when the aircraft is operating by visual reference.

37
Q

Aerodrome controllers may use composite visual to separate aircraft which is continuously in sight and within 10 miles subject to several conditions. What are these conditions?

A
  • the route and intentions of the aircraft which is not in sight are known and its position can be confirmed by the approved use of an ATS surveillance system or a pilot position report; and
  • instructions shall be issued to either aircraft, as appropriate, which will ensure adequate separation; and
  • where there is a possibility of either aircraft taking avoiding action, as a result of sighting the other aircraft or receiving a safety alert from an electronic system, traffic information shall be passed to both aircraft.
38
Q

What is the SFVR met minima for all aircraft?

A

DAY

Cloud ceiling: 600ft

Visibility: 1500 m

39
Q

Helicopters can operate below SVFR met minima provided what?

A

If the helicopter is operated at a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstructions in order to avoid collisions;

40
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision runway?

A

Non-precision approach runways are a runway served by visual aids and non-visual aid(s) intended for landing operations following an instrument approach operation type A and a visibility not less than 1000 m.

Precision approach runways are a runway served by visual aids and non-visual aid(s) intended for landing operations following an instrument approach operation type B and with categories that allow for operations with a decision height of 200ft and visibility from 800m or runway visual range of not less than 550m, down to, no deciision height and no runway visual range limitations

41
Q

What is the use of displaced thresholds?

A
42
Q

Define: SARTIME

A

The time at which Search And Rescue action is initiated if a SARTIME is not amended or cancelled, or a VFR flight plan for which SARTIME is nominated is not terminated.

43
Q

List in the correct order the elements of an Estimate message.

A

· “Estimate”
·Aircraft callsign
·Departure/set heading time… minutes only
· Significant point, NAVAID, REP, aerodrome, etc
· ETO next REP or ETA at DEST
· Level (CLIMBING TO, or DESCENDING TO)
· Type of approach [and route if required]
· Other information if necessary and not passed by FDP e.g. routing requests

44
Q

What is the standard runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be cleared for take-off when the preceding departing aircraft A has started a turn, or has crossed the end of the runway-in-use.

45
Q

What is the reduced take-off vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be cleared for take-off when the following conditions exist:
• By day or night, if the runway is longer than 1800m, a preceding departing aircraft A is airborne and has reached a point at least 1800 m ahead of aircraft B.

46
Q

What is the reduced take-off vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be cleared for take-off when:
Both aircraft have a MCTOW of 7000 kg or less, and a preceding departing aircraft A is airborne and has reached a point at least 1000m ahead of aircraft B.

47
Q

What is the reduced take-off vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be cleared for take-off provided that both aircraft have an MCTOW of 2300 kg or less, and a preceding aircraft A is airborne and has reached a point at least 600 m ahead of aircraft B.

48
Q

What is the take-off vs landing runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be cleared for take-off when the preceding landing aircraft A is clear of the runway

49
Q

What is the landing vs landing runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land when aircraft A is clear of the runway

50
Q

What is the reduced landing vs landing separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land when Aircraft A has landed and is still occupying the runway, and Both aircraft have a MCTOW of 7000 kg or less, and aircraft A has commenced a turn to vacate the runway without stopping or backtracking.

51
Q

What is the reduced landing vs landing separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land while aircraft A is still occupying the runway, and both aircraft are 2300 kg or less, and aircraft A will vacate the runway without backtracking.

52
Q

What is the landing vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the runway threshold to land when a departing aircraft A has started a turn or crossed the other end of the runway-in-use.

53
Q

What is the reduced landing vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the threshold to land prior to aircraft A crossing the other end of the runway-in-use or starting a turn provided that aircraft A is airborne, and past the point on the runway at which aircraft B could be expected to have completed a landing roll.

54
Q

What is the reduced landing vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the threshold to land when both aircraft are 2300 kg MCTOW or less, and aircraft A is accelerating and past the point on the runway which aircraft B could be expected to have completed a normal landing roll, and that point being a minimum of 600 metres from the landing threshold.

55
Q

What is the reduced landing vs take-off runway separation here?

A

Aircraft B may be permitted to cross the threshold to land when both aircraft are 2300 kg MCTOW or less, and aircraft A is accelerating and past the point on the runway which aircraft B could be expected to have completed a normal landing roll, and that point being a minimum of 600 metres from the landing threshold.

56
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between H and M from same/intermediate take off position?

A

Same - 2 minutes

Intermediate - 3 minutes

57
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between M and L from same/intermediate take off position?

A

Same - 2 minutes

Intermediate - 3 minutes

58
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between H and L from same/intermediate take off position?

A

Same - 2 minutes

intermediate - 3 minutes

59
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between S and M or L from same/intermediate take off position?

A

Same - 3 minutes

Intermediate - 4 minutes

60
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation between arriving and departing flights on an opposite direction runway operation?

(Between H and M/L or M and L)

A

2 minutes, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross or there is a possibility of wake turbulence affecting the second aircraft and the aircraft are operating from an opposite direction on the same runway or opposite direction parallel runways separated by less than 760m

61
Q

Name these parts of a Runway

A
62
Q

How do PAPIs work?

A

At a distance of not less than 300 m, and within a vertical angle of not more than 3’, the colour of the lights transition from red to white

The colour transition from red to white in the vertical plane shall be such as to appear to an observer,