Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A drug with a T.I of 10 is safer than a drug with a T.I of 5

A

True

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2
Q

Most topically applied drugs produce a local action

A

True

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3
Q

The Bordetella vaccine is considered to be an inhalation route of administration

A

False

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4
Q

Infusion IV therapy is the administration of small amounts of fluid in a syringe.

A

False

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5
Q

An anti-pyretic drug is used to relieve itching.

A

False

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6
Q

The proprietary name of a drug is the same as the generic name of a drug.

A

False

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7
Q

The main disadvantage to IV drug administration is lack of patient cooperation.

A

False

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8
Q

Dermocylsis is synonymous with subcutaneous administration.

A

False

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9
Q

Propylene Glycol is a solid type of drug vehicle.

A

False

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10
Q

When sending in the DEA 222 order form, the veterinarian must keep the top copy.

A

False

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11
Q

The study of an animal’s response to a drug in the absence of dz

A

Pharmacodynamics

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12
Q

A drug patent lasts for a maximum of ___ years

A

17

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13
Q

What requirement or requirements are necessary for the purchasing of a Schedule II drug?

A
  • Distributor has a copy of the Drs. DEA license

- You must fill out the DEA 222 order form

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14
Q

Drugs administered via the inhalation route are considered to be number ____ in onset of action:

A

2

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15
Q

If a drug has an ED50 of 28 mgs, and an LD50 of 751 mgs, the T.I. is:

A

27

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16
Q

Chelation is defined as

A

The binding of a substance to metals

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17
Q

DMSO is an example of a drug that is given via which route of administration

A

Topical

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18
Q

Intra-articular route of administration is most commonly used for:

A
  • Steroid injections for joint dz

- Injecting radiographic dye for performing radiographic studies

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19
Q

How often must an inventory be performed, according to the DEA:

A

Every 2 years

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20
Q

Which schedule or schedules of controlled substances is/are not available for therapeutic use:

A

1

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21
Q

**List 3 disadvantages of oral administration and put a star () by the one that is the main disadvantage.

A
  • Pt. cooperation *

- V/D

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22
Q

List 2 general reasons for the use of a drug

A

Tx

Prevention

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23
Q

List 2 examples of drugs, that when applied topically, produce a systemic action on the body

A

DMSO

Mitaban

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24
Q

***List 3 advantages of subcutaneous administration over IM administration.

A
  • Less painful

- More gradual onset

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25
Q

List 3 vehicles used in preparing solid dosage forms.

A
  1. Tarc
  2. Sugar
  3. Resin
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26
Q

Define Drug

A

A substance used to treat, prevent, diagnose, or cure a pt.

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27
Q

Grapiprant

A

Galliprant

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28
Q

Cefazolin

A

Kefsol

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29
Q

Furosemide

A

Lasix

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30
Q

Butorphanol

A

Torbugesic

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31
Q

Cefovecin

A

Convenia

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32
Q

Robenacoxib

A

Onsior

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33
Q

Bupivicaine

A

Marcaine

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34
Q

Oxymorphone

A

Numorphan

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35
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmitrol

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36
Q

Oclacitnib Maleate

A

Apoquel

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37
Q

Controlled substances are drugs that:

A

Have a high potential for abuse

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38
Q

Drugs that are administered intra articularly are injected into:

A

a joint

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39
Q

Sometimes drugs are first administered in a large dose and then given as a series of smaller doses. What is the first dose called?

A

Loading dose

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40
Q

What dosage form must be shaken before administration to an animal?

A

Suspension

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41
Q

What controlled substance rating indicates the drug with the greatest potential for abuse?

A

C-II

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42
Q

The generic name for a drug is also called the:

A

Non-proprietary name

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43
Q

Intradermal injections are used primarily for:

A

Allergy testing

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44
Q

The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands:

A

Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug

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45
Q

What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?

A

Solution

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46
Q

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that:

A

It’s effective and toxic doses are close to eachother

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47
Q

The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the:

A

EPA

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48
Q

A drug given by which of the following routes reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?

A

Intravenously

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49
Q

What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal’s skin?

A

Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug

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50
Q

All of the following drugs are controlled substances, and their use must be logged except:

A

Propofol

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51
Q

What route of administration of amikacin or gentamicin causes the highest risk for nephrotoxicity (kidney toxicity)?

A

Continuous intravenous administration

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52
Q

Topically applied steroids have an endodermic base

A

True

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53
Q

An alkaline drug would remain in the undissociated form in an acid environment.

A

False

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54
Q

Plasma binding ability is defined as the degree of a drug’s lipid solubility.

A

True

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55
Q

Conjugation is the most common type of drug biotransformation.

A

True

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56
Q

Osmotic diuretics work by inhibiting tubular reabsorption.

A

False

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57
Q

If drugs are eliminated by the kidneys, glomerular filtration is the #1 mechanism utilized.

A

True

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58
Q

SQ route of administration will be absorbed faster than IM route of administration.

A

False

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59
Q

Water soluble drugs have a shorter half life than lipid soluble drugs.

A

True

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60
Q

Furosemide works by creating large osmotic pressure differences.

A

False

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61
Q

Hydrophobic ointments should be used on a ‘weeping’ lesion.

A

False

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62
Q

An undissociated drug is considered to be in the _____ form.

A

Active

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63
Q

Drugs with a longer half life must undergo _____ transformation, thus lipid soluble drugs have a _____ half life in comparison to water soluble drugs

A

More, Longer

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64
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors are mainly used to treat:

A

Glaucoma

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65
Q

If a drug is in the non-ionized form, it is considered to be:

A

An active drug

An undissociated drug

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66
Q

The standard osmotic diuretic used in veterinary medicine is:

A

Mannitol

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67
Q

Which type of insulin is the quickest acting type of insulin:

A

Regular

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68
Q

Ideal blood glucose levels of _____ mg/dl are achieved _____ hours after administration of insulin with ideal insulin therapy

A

80-120, 12

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69
Q

Which type of insulin is most commonly used as the maintenance type to treat diabetes mellitus in dogs:

A

NPH

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70
Q

Which of the following factors would cause the drug depot to disappear faster:

A

Drugs that are a solution

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71
Q

Furosemide is commonly used to treat

A

CHF

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72
Q

Define obligatory water loss

A

Osmosis of water from the tissues into the tubules to equalize concentration gradient, forcing water to be lost due to osmosis

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73
Q

List 3 factors that effect the degree of absorption following the topical administration of a drug.

A
  • Thinness of skin
  • Concentration of drug applied
  • Blood supply to area
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74
Q

Briefly explain with regards to blood glucose levels, what should be achieved with ideal insulin therapy of a diabetic animal.

A

Minor- titrate dosage
Major- change insulin
Low end: 80-120
High end: 180-200

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75
Q

If a diabetic animal’s blood glucose curve is always slightly higher than normal, what adjustment to the insulin therapy should be made to correct for the problem?

A

Minor adjustment- Titrate dosage

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76
Q

List 4 main factors affecting the distribution of a drug to the tissues of the body:

A

Concentration gradient
Plasma binding ability
Adipose tissue
BBB

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77
Q

Mepivicaine

A

Carbocaine

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78
Q

Phenylbutazone

A

Butazolidin

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79
Q

Propanolol

A

Inderal

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80
Q

Marbofloxacin

A

Zeniquin

81
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Isuprel

82
Q

Amoxicillin-Clavulanate

A

Clavamox

83
Q

Midazolam

A

Versed

84
Q

Chlortetracycline

A

Aureomycin

85
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Medrol

86
Q

Amphotericin B

A

Fungizone

87
Q

The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is:

A

Furosemide

88
Q

The primary function of insulin is to:

A

Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells

89
Q

Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by:

A

Gently rolling the bottle

90
Q

The principal site of drug biotransformation is the:

A

Liver

91
Q

What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal?

A

Hypokalemia

92
Q

Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are:

A

Biotransformed more slowly

93
Q

Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs?

A

Liver

94
Q

The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called:

A

Bioavailability

95
Q

Loop diuretics such as furosemide:

A

May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

96
Q

All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the:

A

Spleen

97
Q

By what route is insulin usually administered in cases of uncomplicated diabetes?

A

Subcutaneous

98
Q

Insulin concentration is measured in:

A

Units per millimeter

99
Q

Spironolactone, chlorothiazide, and furosemide are classified as:

A

Diuretics

100
Q

Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain?

A

60

101
Q

Generally, 1 fluid ounce is equal to approximately how many milliliters of liquid?

A

30

102
Q

Dexamethasone phosphate would be an example of a steroidal solution.

A

True

103
Q

The main action of NSAID’s is that they inhibit the production of histamine.

A

False

104
Q

Rapid removal of an animal from steroids can lead to Cushing’s disease.

A

False

105
Q

One of histamine’s actions is to produce bronchoconstriction.

A

True

106
Q

Morphine is considered the standard narcotic analgesic by which all other narcotic analgesics are compared.

A

True

107
Q

Epinephrine is responsible for counteracting the action of histamine.

A

True

108
Q

Hydrocortisone is released from the adrenal medulla.

A

False

109
Q

Prednisone is approximately 10x more potent than hydrocortisone.

A

False

110
Q

The main side effect of narcotic analgesics is cardiac depression.

A

False

111
Q

Immunosuppression is a possible side effect of steroid therapy.

A

True

112
Q

Which of the following is a chemical released in the anti-inflammatory response:

A

Epinephrine

113
Q

Which of the following chemicals is responsible for increasing body temperature?

A

Prostaglandins

114
Q

Dexamethasone is considered approx. _____ times more potent than hydrocortisone

A

30

115
Q

Which of the following NSAID’s is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor?

A

Carprofen

116
Q

Besides analgesia, narcotic analgesics produce which action:

A

Sedation

117
Q

Torbutrol is used in dogs mainly as a(n):

A

Analgesic

118
Q

The chemical produced by the body as the 2nd line anti-inflammatory response is:

A

Hydrocortisone

119
Q

The hypothalamus releases which of the following substances:

A

Corticotropic Releasing Factor

120
Q

Epinephrine is released from what area of the body?

A

Adrenal medulla

121
Q

What gland is considered the thermostat of the body?

A

Hypothalamus

122
Q

Define non-immunological trauma:

A

Physical contact with the tissues of the body

123
Q

Define immunological trauma

A

Chemical reaction with the tissues of the body

124
Q

Define inflammation

A

The circulatory and cellular response of the body to an insult of injury

125
Q

List the three main toxins released in the inflammatory response:

A

Histamine, Prostaglandins, Cytokines

126
Q

List 4 potential side effects with the administration of steroid medications:

A

Immune suppression
Alopecia
GI upset
Thrombocytosis

127
Q

Tepoxalin

A

Zubrin

128
Q

Prednisone

A

Meticorten

129
Q

Cephalexin

A

Keflex

130
Q

Cefazolin Sodium

A

Kefsol

131
Q

Phenylbutazone

A

Butazolidin

132
Q

Marbofloxacin

A

Zeniquin

133
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

Medrol

134
Q

Miconazole

A

Conofite

135
Q

Amikacin Sulfate

A

Amiglyde-V

136
Q

Butorphanol

A

Torbugesic

137
Q

Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist?

A

Butorphanol

138
Q

What drug is not an NSAID?

A

Prednisone

139
Q

Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true?

A

They may cause immune system depression

140
Q

Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all of the following conditions except:

A

Infections

141
Q

Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used:

A

In horses for tx of colic

142
Q

The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is:

A

Acetaminophen

143
Q

Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in the risk of side effects with long-term use. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity?

A

Hydrocortisone

144
Q

Chronic use of moderate to high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of:

A

Cushing’s dz

145
Q

The species that generally clears NSAID’s most slowly is:

A

Cat

146
Q

The most common side effect of NSAID’s is:

A

Gastrointestinal ulceration

147
Q

An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is:

A

Fentanyl (Duragesic)

148
Q

The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is:

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

149
Q

One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is:

A

Significant respiratory distress

150
Q

In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems?

A

Iatrogenic Addisonian crisis

151
Q

Glucocorticoids are often used to treat all but which of the following conditions?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

152
Q

All antimicrobials are made from living microorganisms.

A

False

153
Q

The first group of antimicrobials, used therapeutically, were the sulfonamides.

A

True

154
Q

Acquired resistance is defined as bacteria becoming resistant to related types of drugs. (e.g. bacteria being resistant to tetracycline as well as oxytetracycline)

A

False

155
Q

Tetracycline drugs are considered to be bacteriocidal.

A

False

156
Q

Cephalosporin drugs are closely related to Aminoglycoside drugs.

A

False

157
Q

The most toxic aminoglycoside antibiotic is Gentamicin sulfate.

A

False

158
Q

The most common route of administration for the aminoglycoside antibiotics is oral.

A

False

159
Q

Polypeptide antibiotics are very narrow spectrum in activity.

A

True

160
Q

The main drug of choice for the systemic treatment of systemic fungal disorders is Amphotericin B.

A

True

161
Q

Tresaderm is used commonly to treat otitis externa in dogs

A

True

162
Q

The ‘hallmark’ trait with the use of antibiotics is:

A

Increased efficacy with decreased dosing

163
Q

Which of the following antimicrobials were the heaviest used during the 1950’s?

A

Tetracyclines

164
Q

Which of the following salts, when added to a penicillin drug, will produce a solution:

A

Sodium

165
Q

Which of the following drugs is not a component of Panalog:

A

Dexamethasone

166
Q

Which of the following polypeptides is only good against Gram positive bacteria:

A

Bacitracin

167
Q

Which of the following is a brand name of the combination drug Bacitracin, Polymixin B, and Neomycin:

A

Neosporin

168
Q

The main drug of choice for systemic treatment of superficial fungal disorders is:

A

Grieseofulvin

169
Q

Gentamicin sulfate belongs to which of the following family’s of antibiotics?

A

Aminoglycosides

170
Q

Which of the following is a 2nd generation tetracycline drug:

A

Doxycycline

171
Q

Which of the following agents does not produce a systemic fungal infection:

A

Dermatomycosis

172
Q

Famotidline

A

Pepcid

173
Q

Sertaline

A

Zoloft

174
Q

Maropitant

A

Cerenia

175
Q

Cefadroxil

A

Cefa-drops

176
Q

Cimetidine

A

Tagamet

177
Q

Doxycycline

A

Vibramycin

178
Q

Miconazole

A

Conofite

179
Q

Doxapram HCL

A

Dopram-V

180
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Cipro

181
Q

Ampicillin sodium

A

Omnipen

182
Q

Briefly describe how Tetracyclines work:

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

183
Q

List 3 organisms used in manufacturing of antibiotics

A

Mold, yeast, bacteria

184
Q

What antibacterial drug is also effective against protozoa such as Giardia?

A

Metronidazole

185
Q

Ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are effective against:

A

Fungi

186
Q

What fatal reaction to chloramphenicol has been reported in cats and people?

A

Aplastic anemia

187
Q

What drugs are considered fluoroquinolones?

A

Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin

188
Q

With what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered?

A

High calcium

189
Q

Antimicrobial drugs like enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, and orbifloxacin all belong to which group of antimicrobial?

A

Fluoroquinolones

190
Q

Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug?

A

Sulfadimethoxine

191
Q

An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a B-lactamase inhibitor is:

A

Clavamox

192
Q

In what class of antibiotic are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects

A

Aminoglyosides

193
Q

The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to:

A

Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity

194
Q

Penicllins are primarily excreted by the:

A

Kidney

195
Q

Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of:

A

Urinary tract

196
Q

Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true?

A

Currently many bacteria are resistant to them

197
Q

Unlike many other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth (po). Why?

A

It is destroyed by gastric acid

198
Q

The most common adverse side effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are:

A

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity