Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
A drug with a T.I of 10 is safer than a drug with a T.I of 5
A
True
2
Q
Most topically applied drugs produce a local action
A
True
3
Q
The Bordetella vaccine is considered to be an inhalation route of administration
A
False
4
Q
Infusion IV therapy is the administration of small amounts of fluid in a syringe.
A
False
5
Q
An anti-pyretic drug is used to relieve itching.
A
False
6
Q
The proprietary name of a drug is the same as the generic name of a drug.
A
False
7
Q
The main disadvantage to IV drug administration is lack of patient cooperation.
A
False
8
Q
Dermocylsis is synonymous with subcutaneous administration.
A
False
9
Q
Propylene Glycol is a solid type of drug vehicle.
A
False
10
Q
When sending in the DEA 222 order form, the veterinarian must keep the top copy.
A
False
11
Q
The study of an animal’s response to a drug in the absence of dz
A
Pharmacodynamics
12
Q
A drug patent lasts for a maximum of ___ years
A
17
13
Q
What requirement or requirements are necessary for the purchasing of a Schedule II drug?
A
- Distributor has a copy of the Drs. DEA license
- You must fill out the DEA 222 order form
14
Q
Drugs administered via the inhalation route are considered to be number ____ in onset of action:
A
2
15
Q
If a drug has an ED50 of 28 mgs, and an LD50 of 751 mgs, the T.I. is:
A
27
16
Q
Chelation is defined as
A
The binding of a substance to metals
17
Q
DMSO is an example of a drug that is given via which route of administration
A
Topical
18
Q
Intra-articular route of administration is most commonly used for:
A
- Steroid injections for joint dz
- Injecting radiographic dye for performing radiographic studies
19
Q
How often must an inventory be performed, according to the DEA:
A
Every 2 years
20
Q
Which schedule or schedules of controlled substances is/are not available for therapeutic use:
A
1
21
Q
**List 3 disadvantages of oral administration and put a star () by the one that is the main disadvantage.
A
- Pt. cooperation *
- V/D
22
Q
List 2 general reasons for the use of a drug
A
Tx
Prevention
23
Q
List 2 examples of drugs, that when applied topically, produce a systemic action on the body
A
DMSO
Mitaban
24
Q
***List 3 advantages of subcutaneous administration over IM administration.
A
- Less painful
- More gradual onset
25
List 3 vehicles used in preparing solid dosage forms.
1. Tarc
2. Sugar
3. Resin
26
Define Drug
A substance used to treat, prevent, diagnose, or cure a pt.
27
Grapiprant
Galliprant
28
Cefazolin
Kefsol
29
Furosemide
Lasix
30
Butorphanol
Torbugesic
31
Cefovecin
Convenia
32
Robenacoxib
Onsior
33
Bupivicaine
Marcaine
34
Oxymorphone
Numorphan
35
Mannitol
Osmitrol
36
Oclacitnib Maleate
Apoquel
37
Controlled substances are drugs that:
Have a high potential for abuse
38
Drugs that are administered intra articularly are injected into:
a joint
39
Sometimes drugs are first administered in a large dose and then given as a series of smaller doses. What is the first dose called?
Loading dose
40
What dosage form must be shaken before administration to an animal?
Suspension
41
What controlled substance rating indicates the drug with the greatest potential for abuse?
C-II
42
The generic name for a drug is also called the:
Non-proprietary name
43
Intradermal injections are used primarily for:
Allergy testing
44
The main reason that generic forms of drugs are less expensive than trademark name drugs is because generic brands:
Do not incur the expense of developing a new drug
45
What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?
Solution
46
When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that:
It's effective and toxic doses are close to eachother
47
The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the:
EPA
48
A drug given by which of the following routes reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?
Intravenously
49
What precautions should you take when applying DMSO to an animal’s skin?
Wear latex gloves to avoid contact with the drug
50
All of the following drugs are controlled substances, and their use must be logged except:
Propofol
51
What route of administration of amikacin or gentamicin causes the highest risk for nephrotoxicity (kidney toxicity)?
Continuous intravenous administration
52
Topically applied steroids have an endodermic base
True
53
An alkaline drug would remain in the undissociated form in an acid environment.
False
54
Plasma binding ability is defined as the degree of a drug's lipid solubility.
True
55
Conjugation is the most common type of drug biotransformation.
True
56
Osmotic diuretics work by inhibiting tubular reabsorption.
False
57
If drugs are eliminated by the kidneys, glomerular filtration is the #1 mechanism utilized.
True
58
SQ route of administration will be absorbed faster than IM route of administration.
False
59
Water soluble drugs have a shorter half life than lipid soluble drugs.
True
60
Furosemide works by creating large osmotic pressure differences.
False
61
Hydrophobic ointments should be used on a 'weeping' lesion.
False
62
An undissociated drug is considered to be in the _____ form.
Active
63
Drugs with a longer half life must undergo _____ transformation, thus lipid soluble drugs have a _____ half life in comparison to water soluble drugs
More, Longer
64
Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors are mainly used to treat:
Glaucoma
65
If a drug is in the non-ionized form, it is considered to be:
An active drug
| An undissociated drug
66
The standard osmotic diuretic used in veterinary medicine is:
Mannitol
67
Which type of insulin is the quickest acting type of insulin:
Regular
68
Ideal blood glucose levels of _____ mg/dl are achieved _____ hours after administration of insulin with ideal insulin therapy
80-120, 12
69
Which type of insulin is most commonly used as the maintenance type to treat diabetes mellitus in dogs:
NPH
70
Which of the following factors would cause the drug depot to disappear faster:
Drugs that are a solution
71
Furosemide is commonly used to treat
CHF
72
Define obligatory water loss
Osmosis of water from the tissues into the tubules to equalize concentration gradient, forcing water to be lost due to osmosis
73
List 3 factors that effect the degree of absorption following the topical administration of a drug.
- Thinness of skin
- Concentration of drug applied
- Blood supply to area
74
Briefly explain with regards to blood glucose levels, what should be achieved with ideal insulin therapy of a diabetic animal.
Minor- titrate dosage
Major- change insulin
Low end: 80-120
High end: 180-200
75
If a diabetic animal's blood glucose curve is always slightly higher than normal, what adjustment to the insulin therapy should be made to correct for the problem?
Minor adjustment- Titrate dosage
76
List 4 main factors affecting the distribution of a drug to the tissues of the body:
Concentration gradient
Plasma binding ability
Adipose tissue
BBB
77
Mepivicaine
Carbocaine
78
Phenylbutazone
Butazolidin
79
Propanolol
Inderal
80
Marbofloxacin
Zeniquin
81
Isoproterenol
Isuprel
82
Amoxicillin-Clavulanate
Clavamox
83
Midazolam
Versed
84
Chlortetracycline
Aureomycin
85
Methylprednisolone
Medrol
86
Amphotericin B
Fungizone
87
The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is:
Furosemide
88
The primary function of insulin is to:
Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells
89
Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by:
Gently rolling the bottle
90
The principal site of drug biotransformation is the:
Liver
91
What is a potential electrolyte imbalance that can occur as a result of administering a loop diuretic to a small animal?
Hypokalemia
92
Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals, because in neonates the drugs are:
Biotransformed more slowly
93
Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs?
Liver
94
The percentage of the total dose that ultimately reaches the bloodstream is called:
Bioavailability
95
Loop diuretics such as furosemide:
May cause hypokalemia with chronic use
96
All of the following organs may facilitate the elimination of drugs except the:
Spleen
97
By what route is insulin usually administered in cases of uncomplicated diabetes?
Subcutaneous
98
Insulin concentration is measured in:
Units per millimeter
99
Spironolactone, chlorothiazide, and furosemide are classified as:
Diuretics
100
Most pharmaceutical agents that are measured in grains have how many milligrams per grain?
60
101
Generally, 1 fluid ounce is equal to approximately how many milliliters of liquid?
30
102
Dexamethasone phosphate would be an example of a steroidal solution.
True
103
The main action of NSAID's is that they inhibit the production of histamine.
False
104
Rapid removal of an animal from steroids can lead to Cushing's disease.
False
105
One of histamine's actions is to produce bronchoconstriction.
True
106
Morphine is considered the standard narcotic analgesic by which all other narcotic analgesics are compared.
True
107
Epinephrine is responsible for counteracting the action of histamine.
True
108
Hydrocortisone is released from the adrenal medulla.
False
109
Prednisone is approximately 10x more potent than hydrocortisone.
False
110
The main side effect of narcotic analgesics is cardiac depression.
False
111
Immunosuppression is a possible side effect of steroid therapy.
True
112
Which of the following is a chemical released in the anti-inflammatory response:
Epinephrine
113
Which of the following chemicals is responsible for increasing body temperature?
Prostaglandins
114
Dexamethasone is considered approx. _____ times more potent than hydrocortisone
30
115
Which of the following NSAID's is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor?
Carprofen
116
Besides analgesia, narcotic analgesics produce which action:
Sedation
117
Torbutrol is used in dogs mainly as a(n):
Analgesic
118
The chemical produced by the body as the 2nd line anti-inflammatory response is:
Hydrocortisone
119
The hypothalamus releases which of the following substances:
Corticotropic Releasing Factor
120
Epinephrine is released from what area of the body?
Adrenal medulla
121
What gland is considered the thermostat of the body?
Hypothalamus
122
Define non-immunological trauma:
Physical contact with the tissues of the body
123
Define immunological trauma
Chemical reaction with the tissues of the body
124
Define inflammation
The circulatory and cellular response of the body to an insult of injury
125
List the three main toxins released in the inflammatory response:
Histamine, Prostaglandins, Cytokines
126
List 4 potential side effects with the administration of steroid medications:
Immune suppression
Alopecia
GI upset
Thrombocytosis
127
Tepoxalin
Zubrin
128
Prednisone
Meticorten
129
Cephalexin
Keflex
130
Cefazolin Sodium
Kefsol
131
Phenylbutazone
Butazolidin
132
Marbofloxacin
Zeniquin
133
Methylprednisolone
Medrol
134
Miconazole
Conofite
135
Amikacin Sulfate
Amiglyde-V
136
Butorphanol
Torbugesic
137
Which of these opioids is an agonist/antagonist?
Butorphanol
138
What drug is not an NSAID?
Prednisone
139
Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true?
They may cause immune system depression
140
Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all of the following conditions except:
Infections
141
Flunixin meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used:
In horses for tx of colic
142
The non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is:
Acetaminophen
143
Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role in the risk of side effects with long-term use. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity?
Hydrocortisone
144
Chronic use of moderate to high doses of glucocorticoids may result in the development of:
Cushing's dz
145
The species that generally clears NSAID's most slowly is:
Cat
146
The most common side effect of NSAID's is:
Gastrointestinal ulceration
147
An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is:
Fentanyl (Duragesic)
148
The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is:
Naloxone (Narcan)
149
One of the adverse side effects of opioid administration is:
Significant respiratory distress
150
In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems?
Iatrogenic Addisonian crisis
151
Glucocorticoids are often used to treat all but which of the following conditions?
Hyperadrenocorticism
152
All antimicrobials are made from living microorganisms.
False
153
The first group of antimicrobials, used therapeutically, were the sulfonamides.
True
154
Acquired resistance is defined as bacteria becoming resistant to related types of drugs. (e.g. bacteria being resistant to tetracycline as well as oxytetracycline)
False
155
Tetracycline drugs are considered to be bacteriocidal.
False
156
Cephalosporin drugs are closely related to Aminoglycoside drugs.
False
157
The most toxic aminoglycoside antibiotic is Gentamicin sulfate.
False
158
The most common route of administration for the aminoglycoside antibiotics is oral.
False
159
Polypeptide antibiotics are very narrow spectrum in activity.
True
160
The main drug of choice for the systemic treatment of systemic fungal disorders is Amphotericin B.
True
161
Tresaderm is used commonly to treat otitis externa in dogs
True
162
The ‘hallmark’ trait with the use of antibiotics is:
Increased efficacy with decreased dosing
163
Which of the following antimicrobials were the heaviest used during the 1950’s?
Tetracyclines
164
Which of the following salts, when added to a penicillin drug, will produce a solution:
Sodium
165
Which of the following drugs is not a component of Panalog:
Dexamethasone
166
Which of the following polypeptides is only good against Gram positive bacteria:
Bacitracin
167
Which of the following is a brand name of the combination drug Bacitracin, Polymixin B, and Neomycin:
Neosporin
168
The main drug of choice for systemic treatment of superficial fungal disorders is:
Grieseofulvin
169
Gentamicin sulfate belongs to which of the following family’s of antibiotics?
Aminoglycosides
170
Which of the following is a 2nd generation tetracycline drug:
Doxycycline
171
Which of the following agents does not produce a systemic fungal infection:
Dermatomycosis
172
Famotidline
Pepcid
173
Sertaline
Zoloft
174
Maropitant
Cerenia
175
Cefadroxil
Cefa-drops
176
Cimetidine
Tagamet
177
Doxycycline
Vibramycin
178
Miconazole
Conofite
179
Doxapram HCL
Dopram-V
180
Ciprofloxacin
Cipro
181
Ampicillin sodium
Omnipen
182
Briefly describe how Tetracyclines work:
Inhibit protein synthesis
183
List 3 organisms used in manufacturing of antibiotics
Mold, yeast, bacteria
184
What antibacterial drug is also effective against protozoa such as Giardia?
Metronidazole
185
Ketoconazole, miconazole, and griseofulvin are effective against:
Fungi
186
What fatal reaction to chloramphenicol has been reported in cats and people?
Aplastic anemia
187
What drugs are considered fluoroquinolones?
Danofloxacin, enrofloxacin
188
With what type of diet should oral tetracyclines not be administered?
High calcium
189
Antimicrobial drugs like enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, and orbifloxacin all belong to which group of antimicrobial?
Fluoroquinolones
190
Which of these drugs is not an antifungal drug?
Sulfadimethoxine
191
An example of an antibiotic that is considered to be a B-lactamase inhibitor is:
Clavamox
192
In what class of antibiotic are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects
Aminoglyosides
193
The best means of assuring that a particular antibiotic treatment will be successful is to:
Collect a sample from the infected area for culture and sensitivity
194
Penicllins are primarily excreted by the:
Kidney
195
Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of:
Urinary tract
196
Which statement regarding tetracyclines is true?
Currently many bacteria are resistant to them
197
Unlike many other penicillins, penicillin G is not recommended for use by mouth (po). Why?
It is destroyed by gastric acid
198
The most common adverse side effects of aminoglycoside antimicrobials are:
Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
