Final Çıkmışları Flashcards

1
Q

60 years old, male patient has a burning sensation in the epigastric region and pain
that wake up at night for the last 2 months. There are no other features in the history.
Which test should be preferred in this patient?

Colonoscopy
Enteroscopy
Colonoscopy
Upper GI Endoscopy
Wireless capsule endoscopy

A

Upper GI Endoscopy

Info: This case most likely is indicating duodenal ulcer. Therefore, upper GI endoscopy would be necessary to diagnose it.

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2
Q

A 30-year-old male patient, who had no known disease before, admitted to the
internal medicine clinic with the complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhea. In the
detailed anamnesis, it is learned that he defecates approximately 10 times a day
and he has seen red blood mixed with stool once. Colonoscopy revealed ulcers,
fragile mucosa and pseudopolyps in a continuous pattern from the rectum to the
splenic flexure. Which of the following microscopic findings would be expected to be seen in the biopsy sample taken from the ulcerated area of the colon?

An infiltrate consisting of tubular, anastomosing and branching
glands in a desmoplastic stroma

Mixed inflammatory infiltrate limited to mucosa and submucosa
and crypt abscesses

An ulcerated polyp with cystic spaces containing mucin and
inflammatory debris

Transmural mixed inflammatory infiltrate and granulomas

Villous processes lined by columnar epithelium with low-grade
dysplasia

A

Mixed inflammatory infiltrate limited to mucosa and submucosa
and crypt abscesses

Info1: The disease is UC

Info2: In a patient with bloody diarrhea with continuous involvement starting
from the rectum primarily suggests ulcerative colitis (UC). The major
histologic changes in ulcerative colitis (UC) are limited to the mucosa
and submucosa. There is no transmural inflammation. In the acute
stages, there is cryptitis with an increased number of inflammatory
cells within the epithelium as well as lamina propria, including
neutrophils, lymphocytes, plasma cells, histiocytes, eosinophils, and
mast cells. Granulomas with epithelioid histiocytes and multinucleated
giant cells are absent, unlike in Crohn disease. Neutrophils appear in
glandular lumen (crypt abscesses) and there is progressive
destruction of crypts.
An ulcerated polyp with cystic spaces containing mucin and
inflammatory debris is compatible with juvenile polyp.
Villous processes lined by columnar epithelium with low-grade
dysplasia is compatible with villous adenoma.
An infiltrate consisting of tubular, anastomosing and branching glands
in a desmoplastic stroma is compatible with adenocarcinoma
Transmural mixed inflammatory infiltrate and granulomas is
compatible with Crohn’s disease.

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3
Q

A 40-year-old woman presents to the hospital with fever, nausea, vomiting, severe colicky abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea for one day. Her vital signs show a
heart rate of 110/min, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg, and temperature of 38.3°C.
Clinical examination shows a distended abdomen with tenderness in the lower
abdomen. Stool analysis shows fecal leukocytes and red blood cells. Stool culture yields the growth of gram-negative, non-motile, facultatively anaerobic, and non- spore-forming bacilli, which produce toxins. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Shigellosis
Cholera
Giardiasis
Typhoid fever

A

Shigellosis

Info: Shigella is a gram-negative, non-motile, facultatively anaerobic,
and non-spore-forming bacillus that causes shigellosis.

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4
Q

According to the Forrest classification used in upper gastrointestinal bleeding; which
indicates a clean base ulcer?

Class IIa
Class Ia
Class Ib
Class IIa
Class III

A

Class III

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5
Q

In a 70-year-old male patient who presented with complaints of weakness,
abdominal pain and loss of appetite, iron deficiency anemia and fecal occult blood
test positivity in the stool are detected. On endoscopy; An ulcerative mass of 3 cm is
observed on the lesser curvature of the stomach at the localization of antrum and a
biopsy is taken. On the histopathological examination of the biopsy; a diffuse
infiltrate composed of signet ring cells invading through the entire wall of the
stomach is detected.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?

MALToma
Intestinal metaplasia
Intestinal type adenocarcinoma
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Diffuse type adenocarcinoma

A

Diffuse type adenocarcinoma

Info1: Signet cell dendi mi akla bu gelecek.

Info2: Elderly male patient, the biopsy findings described are consistent with
diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma.Diffuse type adenocarcinomas
are mostly composed of poorly differentiated / signet ring cells,
present as scattered individual cells or clusters. Neoplastic cells that
are isolated or arranged in small aggregates without well formed
glands.

Info3: Intestinal type gastric adenocarcinoma often forms a mass and
intestinal epithelial cells consisting of glands/glandular structures
(well-differentiated) are observed.
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor is a mesenchymal tumor of stomach
MALT lymphoma (MALToma) is a form of extranodal lymphoma
involving the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), frequently of the stomach. They are mostly extranodal Marginal B zone
Lymphomas. In the stomach, MALToma is induced, typically as a
result of chronic gastritis and H. pylori infection is the most common
cause. Mostly, H. pylori eradication results in durable remissions with
low rates of recurrence in most MALToma patients. The clinical
history and the microscopic features are regarding MALToma.

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6
Q

Which of the following change/dysfunction is the main mechanism of symptom
development in gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Weakening of the upper esophageal sphincter
Failure of the lower esophageal sphicter relaxation
Increased peristalsis of distal esophagus
Failure of the lower esophageal sphicter contraction
Atrophy of the lower esophageal sphincter

A

Failure of the lower esophageal sphicter contraction, only.

Other statements are of achalasia’s.

In GERD, hardening of upper esophageal sphincter is seen.

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7
Q

Which of the following diseases/disorders are among the manifestations of hepatic
failure (Choose as many as required)?

Cerebral edema
Acute kidney injury
Coagulopathy
Infectious diseases
Hypoglycemia
Hypoadrenalism
Jaundice
Low output cardiac failure

A

All except low output cardiac failure. ‘high’ output cardiac failure would be true.

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8
Q

Which of the following features regarding the subtypes of colonic polyps are
correct? (Choose as many as required)

The polyps associated with juvenile polyposis and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are mostly inflammatory type polyps

The syndrome related juvenile polyps have increased risk of malignancy

Hyperplastic polyps are the most common types of colonic polyps

The polyps related to Gardner’s syndrome and Turcot’s syndrome are in the type of adenomatous polyps

All of the histologic subtypes of adenomatous polyps may have risk of malignancy

A

All except the first one are true.

Info: Hyperplastic polyps are the most common types of colonic polyps
The polyps associated with juvenile polyposis and Peutz-Jeghers
Syndrome are mostly hamartomatous type polyps
The syndrome related juvenile polyps have increased risk of
malignancy
All of the histologic subtypes of adenomatous polyps have risk of
malignancy (villous type polyps have greater risk)
The polyps related to Familial adenomatous polyposis, Gardner’s
syndrome and Turcot’s syndrome are in the type of adenomatous
polyps

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9
Q

Which of the following genes initiates the early polyp formation during the
development of colorectal cancer?

p53 (protein 53)
K- Ras
DCC (Deleted in Colon Cancer)
APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)

A

APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)

Info: APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli) gene mutation is almost
invariably found in all colorectal cancers and is assumed that its
mutation starts the early polup formation.

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10
Q

Which of the following is the drug used to differentiate between Crigler-Najjar type I
and II?

Phenobarbital
Doxazosin
Acetylsalicylic acid
Ibuprofen

A

Phenobarbital

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11
Q

Which of the following sentences are among the features of acute pancreatitis
(Choose as many as required)?

Acute necrotizing pancreatitis and hemorrhagic pancreatitis are the mild forms of the disease

Reversible pancreatic parenchymal injury associated with inflammation.

Associated with inappropriate release and activation of pancreatic enzymes

The major symptom is abdominal pain.

Cullen’s sign is a faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus which may occur as the result of hemoperitoneum in acute pancreatitis.

A

All except the first one are true.

Info: Acute pancreatitis is defined as reversible pancreatic parenchymal
injury associated with inflammation. It results from inappropriate
release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which destroy
pancreatic tissue and lead to an acute inflammatory reaction. Acute
necrotizing pancreatitis and hemorrhagic pancreatitis are the severe
forms of the disease. The major symptom is abdominal pain and the
disease is among the reasons of acute abdomen. Cullen’s sign is a
faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus which may occur as the
result of hemoperitoneum in acute pancreatitis. Turner’s sign is a
blue-red-purple or green-brown discoloration of the flanks reflects
tissue catabolism of hemoglobin from severe necrotizing pancreatitis
with hemorrhage.

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12
Q

Which of the following should be applied for the treatment of duodenal ulcer?

Somatostatin
Endoscopic resection
Spiranolactone
Helicobacter pylori eradication
Somatostatin

A

Helicobacter pylori eradication

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13
Q

Which of the following symptoms can’t be associated with grade 2 hemorrhoids?

Perianal pain
Rectal bleeding
Perianal pain
Mucus discharge
Pruritus ani

A

Perianal pain

Grade 2 hemorrhoids are by definition located above the
dentate line and they do not cause pain.

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14
Q

Which of the following tumor is the most common primary malignant liver tumor?

Hepatoblastoma
Hepatocellular adenoma
Cavernous hemangioma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Metastasis to liver

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

The most common tumors of liver are metastasis tol iver. However,
the most common primary malignant liver tumor is hepatocellular
carcinoma, second common one is cholangiocarcinoma.

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15
Q

A biopsy of the duodenum taken by endoscopy from a 6-year-old boy with
malabsorption complaints reveals atrophy of the small intestine villi, hyperplasia of
the crypts, increased mitosis in the crypt epithelium, and diffuse enteritis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

Abetalipoproteinemia
Whiplle’s disease
Celiac sprue
Disaccharidase deficiency
Lactose intolerance

A

Celiac sprue

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16
Q

What are the two type of receptors that are targeted by their specific antagonists to counteract emesis?

D2 and M1
5-HT3 and NK1
H1 and M
5-HT2 and H1

A

5-HT3 and NK1

17
Q

of the following enzymes measures liver damage?

Trypsin
Transaminase
Acid phosphatase
Aldolase
Amylase

A

Transaminase

18
Q

Which of the following is not correct for tuberculous peritonitis?

The most common cause of ascites with lymphocyte dominance is peritoneal carcinomatosis.

In ascites developing due to tuberculosis peritonitis, the serum- acid albumin gradient is above 1.1 g/dl.

Laparoscopy is a sensitive method in the diagnosis of tuberculous peritonitis.

In recent years, the incidence of tuberculous peritonitis has increased.

Adenosine deaminase level is a sensitive method in the differentiation of tuberculous peritonitis.

A

In ascites developing due to tuberculosis peritonitis, the serum- acid albumin gradient is above 1.1 g/dl.

19
Q

Which of the following micronutrient deficiency is not a public health significance?

Selenium
Vitamin A
Zinc
Iiodine

A

Selenium

20
Q

Which of the following parameters are expected to be observed in hepatocellular
jaundice? (Choose as many as required)

Increase in ALP
Pale stool
Increase in AST
Increase in plasma total and direct bilirubin
Increase in ALT

A

Increase in AST ALT and plasma total and direct bilirubin are expected to observed in hepatocellular jaundice.

Info: Increase in ALT and AST (Enzymes related to hepatocellular
damage)
Increase in total and direct bilirubin (In hepatocellular damage,
direct bilirubin may be raised in the plasma due to the defect in
bilirubin excretion and therefore total bilirubin is also raised).
Incorrect responses:
Increase in ALP (No, ALP is increased in obstructive jaundice)
Pale stool (No, stool is pale in obstructive jaundice).

21
Q

Which patients have bloody stools most often?

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
Giardia infections
Protein sensitivity syndromes
Disaccharidase enzyme deficiencies

A

Protein sensitivity syndromes

22
Q

A 17-year-old female sex worker presents to the hospital with a complaint of vaginal
discharge that started two months ago. She also complains of intermenstrual bleeding and lower abdominal pain. On further questioning, she reveals that she has been active with multiple partners lately. Her
vital signs show blood pressure 100/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, heart rate 88 beats/min, and temperature 38.3 C. A pelvic examination shows cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and uterine tenderness. A blood test is ordered, which shows a white cell count of 17,500 per microliter of blood. What is the most likely mechanism leading to the spread of the causative organism?

Inflammation of the fallopian tube
Thinning of cervical mucus
Presence of the ciliary epithelium in the fallopian tube
Thickening of cervical mucus

A

Thinning of cervical mucus

Info: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is defined as an inflammation
of the upper genital tract due to an infection in women. The disease
affects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and/or ovaries.
* Risk factors include intercourse with multiple partners, age,
previous history of PID, intrauterine device implantation, and tubal
ligation.
* Infection of the upper female genital tract leads to inflammatory
damage, resulting in scarring, adhesions, and partial or total
obstruction of the fallopian tubes. This can result in loss of the ciliated
epithelial cells along the fallopian tube lining, resulting in impaired
ovum transport and increased risk of infertility and ectopic pregnancy.
Additionally, adhesions can lead to chronic pelvic pain. Cervical
mucus, which normally prevents the entry of bacteria, becomes
thinner in the case of bacterial vaginosis due to bacterial proliferation.
This leads to the spreading of infective organisms towards the uterus.
* The thickening of the cervical mucus helps to prevent the spread
of organisms. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes has no role in the
spreading of bacteria.

23
Q

40-year-old female has an abnormal Pap smear and has been reported as High
grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion (HSIL). A biopsy has been taken from this
patient. The microscopic examination reveals a lesion that consists of dysplastic
cells that involve the 2/3 of the epithelium from the basal layer but the basement
membrane was intact.
Which of the following is the most likely histopathologic diagnosis of this lesion?

Invasive cervical carcinoma
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III (CIN III)
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia I (CIN I)
Microinvasive cervical carcinoma
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia II (CIN II)

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia II (CIN II)

Info: The patient has dysplasia of the cervix. By biopsy, the cervical
dysplasia is graded, if there is dysplasia present, from CIN I-III.
In CIN I, the dysplastic features are in the lower third of the
thickness of the mucosa.
In CIN II, the dysplastic features are involved in the lower half to
two-thirds of the thickness of the mucosa. In CIN III, the dysplastic
features involve the full thickness of the mucosa.
The changes are a spectrum. There is no evidence of invasion, as
the basement membrane is intact, and the features are not
consistent with a microinvasive or invasive carcinoma.

24
Q

Match the following histopathologic findings with the most appropriate diseases of vulva.

Thickening of the epidermis (acanthosis), and hyperkeratosis [A]

Marked thinning of the epidermis and band-like lymphocytic infiltrate of the
underlying dermis [B]

Exophytic, treelike fibrovascular cores of stroma covered by thickened squamous
epithelium [C]

Mild to moderate atypical cells in basal and parabasal layers with hyperchromatic
nuclei, basement membrane is preserved [D]

Keratinizing squamous islands disrupting the basement membrane [E]

Dilated duct lined by transitional epithelium and numerous mucus glands in the wall of the lesion [F]

Condyloma accuminatum
Bartholin cyst
Lichen sclerosus
Lichen simplex chronicus
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
Vulvar carcinoma

A

Thickening of the epidermis (acanthosis), and hyperkeratosis –> Lichen simplex chronicus

Marked thinning of the epidermis and band-like lymphocytic infiltrate of the underlying dermis –> Lichen sclerosus

Exophytic, treelike fibrovascular cores of stroma covered by thickened squamous epithelium –> Condyloma accuminatum

Mild to moderate atypical cells in basal and parabasal layers with hyperchromatic nuclei, basement membrane is preserved –> Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

Keratinizing squamous islands disrupting the basement membrane –> Vulvar carcinoma

Dilated duct lined by transitional epithelium and numerous mucus glands in the wall of the lesion –> Bartholin cyst

25
Q

the most common cause of ectopic tubal gestation?

Premature ovulation
Late fertilization of the ovum
Premature rupture of the zona pellucida
Delayed transport of the zygote due to tubal scarring

A

Delayed transport of the zygote due to tubal scarring

Probably the most common cause of ectopic gestation is scarring
of the uterine tubes following infections - often gonococcal.
The infection may also damage the ciliated cells and this can
result in failure of the ovum to migrate.
Some infections may also cause stricture formation and prevent
the egg from reaching the uterus.
Altered motility of the fallopian tube is also said to play a role in
ectopic pregnancy.

26
Q

Which of the following findings are among the microscopic features of chronic
endometritis (Choose as many as required)?

1 Microabcesses
2 Plasma cells in the stroma
3 Irregular proliferation of endometrial glands
4 Cystically dilated glands
5 Thick walled blood vessels

A

2 Plasma cells in the stroma
3 Irregular proliferation of endometrial glands

these are microscopic features of chronic
endometritis.

Info: Cystically dilated glands, thick walled blood vessels and fibrous stroma are among the microscopic features of endometrial polyps. Microabcesses are observed in acute endometritis. Irregular
proliferation of endometrial glands and plasma cells in the stroma are among the features of chronic endometritis.

27
Q

Which of the following disease almost always involves epididymis first and then the testis?

Gonorrhea
HBV
Mumps
Syphilis
Tuberculosis

A

Tuberculosis

Info1: Gonorrhea –> testis then epidymis lymphoplasmacytic inflammation + obliterative endarteritis.
Mumps –>
Syphilis

Info2: Tuberculosis almost always involves epididymis first and then the
testis however syphilis first involves testis. Syphilis show interstitial
inflammation characterized by lymphoplasmocytic inflammation and
obliterative endarteritis, tuberculosis is manifested with granulomas
like every other organ. Mumps cause patchy inflammation of
testicles.