Final Book Terms Flashcards

1
Q

person - environment fit (PE)

A

the compatibility between an individual and a work environment that occurs when their characteristics are well matched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

person - organization fit (PO)

A

the extent to which your personality and values match the climate and culture in an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

organizational culture

A

the set of shared, taken for granted implicit assumptions that a group holds and that determines how it perceives, thinks about, and reacts to its various environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 important aspects of organizational culture

A

shared concept
learned over time
influences our behavior at work
impacts outcomes at multiple levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 levels of organizational structure

A

observable artifacts
espoused values
basic underlying assumptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

artifacts

A

the physical manifestation of an organization’s culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

espoused values

A

the explicitly stated values and norms that are preferred by an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

enacted values

A

the values and norms that are actually exhibited or converted into employee behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

basic underlying assumptions

A

organizational values that have become so taken for granted over time that they become assumptions that guide organizational behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sustainability

A

a company’s ability to make a profit without sacrificing the resources of its people, the community and the planet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 functions of an organization’s culture

A

organizational identity
collective commitment
social system stability
sense making device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

competing values framework CVF

A

provides a practical way for managers to understand, measure, and change organizational culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clan culture

A

an internal focus and value flexibility rather than stability and control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adhocracy culture

A

have an external focus and value flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

market culture

A

have a strong external focus and value stability and control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hierarchy culture

A

have an internal focus, which produces a more formalized and structured work environment, and values stability and control over flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

vision

A

a long term goal that describes what an organization wants to become

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

strategic plan

A

outlines an organization’s long term goals and the actions necessary to achieve those goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rites and rituals

A

the planned and unplanned activities and ceremonies that are used to celebrate important events or achievements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

organizational socialization

A

the process by which a person learns the values, norms, and required behaviors which permit him to participate as a member of the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

anticipatory socialization phase

A

occurs before an individual actually joins an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

realistic job preview RJP

A

giving recruits a realistic idea of what lies ahead by presenting both positive and negative aspects of the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

encounter phase

A

employees come to learn what the organization is really like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

onboarding

A

helps employees to integrate, assimilate, and transition to new jobs by making them familiar with corporate policies, procedures, culture, and politics and by clarifying work-role expectations and responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

change and acquisition phase

A

requires employees to master important tasks and roles and to adjust to their work group’s values and norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

mentoring

A

the process of forming and maintaining intensive and lasting developmental relationships between a variety of developers and a junior person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

diversity of developmental relationships

A

reflects the variety of people within the network an individual uses for developmental assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

developmental relationship strength

A

represents the quality of relationships among the individual and those involved in his or her developmental network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

individual differences (IDs)

A

broad category used to collectively describe the vast number of attributes that describe you as a person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

intelligence

A

represents an individual’s capacity for constructive thinking, reasoning, and problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

practical intelligence

A

ability to solve everyday problems by utilizing knowledge gained from experience in order to purposefully adapt to, shape, and select environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

personality

A

the combination of stable physical, behavioral, and mental characteristics that give individuals their unique identities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Big Five Personality Dimensions

A

5 basic dimensions that simplify more complex models of personality: extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

proactive personality

A

someone who is relatively unconstrained by situational forces and who affects environmental change; proactive people identify opportunities and act on them, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

core self evaluations (CSEs)

A
represent a broad personality trait comprised of four narrower and positive individual traits:
generalized self efficacy
self esteem
locus of control
emotional stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

self efficacy

A

a person’s belief about his or her chances of successfully accomplishing a specific task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

self esteem

A

your general belief about your own self worth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

locus of control

A

a relatively stable personality characteristic that describes how much personal responsibility you take for your behavior and its consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

internal locus of control

A

people who believe they control the events and consequences that affect their lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

external locus of control

A

those who believe their performance is the product of circumstances beyond their immediate control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

emotional stability

A

tendency to be relaxed, secure, unworried, and less to experience negative emotions under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

emotional intelligence

A

ability to monitor your own emotions and those of others, to discriminate among them, and to use this information to guide your thinking and actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

emotions

A

complex, relatively brief responses aimed at a particular target, such as a person, information, experience, event or nonevent; also changes psychological and/or physiological states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

emotion display norms

A

rules that dictate which types of emotions are expected and appropriate for their members to show

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

deliberate practice

A

which is a demanding, repetitive, and assisted program to improve one’s performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

perception

A

cognitive process that enables us to interpret and understand our surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

attention

A

process of becoming consciously aware of something or someone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

schema

A

represents a person’s mental picture or summary of a particular event or type of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

implicit cognition

A

represents any thoughts or beliefs that are automatically activated from memory without our conscious awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

stereotype

A

individual’s set of beliefs about the characteristics or attributes of a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

casual attributions

A

suspected or inferred causes of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

consensus

A

compares an individual’s behavior with that of his or her peers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

distinctiveness

A

compares a person’s behavior on one task with his or her behavior on other tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

consistency

A

judges if the individual’s performance on a given task is consistent over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

fundamental attribution bias

A

reflects one’s tendency to attribute another person’s behavior to his or her personal characteristics, as opposed to situational factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

self-serving bias

A

represents one’s tendency to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

demographics

A

statistical measurements of populations and their qualities over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

diversity

A

represents the multitude of individual differences and similarities that exist among people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

surface level characteristics

A

those that are quickly apparent to interactants, such as race, gender, and age

60
Q

deep level characteristics

A

those that take time to emerge in interactions, such as attitudes, opinions, and values

61
Q

discrimination

A

occurs when employment decisions about an individual are due to reasons not associated performance or not related to the job

62
Q

affirmative action

A

artificial intervention program aimed at giving management a chance to correct an imbalance, injustice, mistake, or outright discrimination that occurred in the past

63
Q

managing diversity

A

enables people to perform up to their maximum potential

64
Q

access and legitimacy perspective

A

based in recognition that the organization’s markets and constituencies are culturally diverse

65
Q

glass ceiling

A

used to represent an invisible but absolute barrier or solid roadblock that prevents women from advancing to higher level positions

66
Q

diversity climate

A

a subcomponent of an organization’s overall climate and is defined as the employees’ aggregate perceptions about the organization’s diversity related formal structure characteristics and informal values

67
Q

psychological safety

A

reflects the extent to which people feel safe to express their ideas and beliefs without fear of negative consequences

68
Q

on-ramping

A

represents the process companies use to encourage people to reenter the workforce after a temporary career break

69
Q

recruiting

A

any activity carried on by the organization with the primary purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees

70
Q

employment at will

A

employment principle that if there is no specific employment contract saying otherwise, the employer or employee may end an employment relationship at any time, regardless of cause

71
Q

due process policies

A

policies that formally lay out the steps an employee may take to appeal the employer’s decision to terminate that employee

72
Q

job posting

A

the process of communicating information about a job vacancy on company bulletin boards, in employee publications, on corporate intranets, and anywhere else the organization communicates with employees

73
Q

direct applicants

A

people who apply for a vacancy without prompting from the organization

74
Q

referrals

A

people who apply for a vacancy because someone in the organization prompted them to do so

75
Q

nepotism

A

the practice of hiring relatives

76
Q

yield ratio

A

a ratio that expresses the percentage of applicants who successfully move from one stage of the recruitment and selection process to the next

77
Q

cost per hire

A

the total amount of money spent to fill a job vacancy; the number is computed by finding the cost of using a particular recruitment source and dividing that cost by the number of people hired to fill that type of vacancy

78
Q

personnel selection

A

the process through which organizations make decisions about who will or will not be allowed to join the organization

79
Q

reliability

A

the extent to which a measurement is free from error

80
Q

validity

A

the extent to which performance on a measure is related to what the measure is designed to assess

81
Q

criterion related validity

A

a measure of validity based on showing a substantial correlation between test scores and job performance scores

82
Q

predictive validation

A

research that uses the test scores of all applicants and looks for a relationship between the scores and future performance of the applicants who were hired

83
Q

concurrent validation

A

research that consists of administering a test to people who currently hold a job, then comparing their scores to existing measures of performance

84
Q

content validity

A

consistency between the test items or problems and the kinds of situations or problems that occur on the job

85
Q

construct validity

A

consistency between a high score on a test and high level of a construct such as intelligence or leadership ability, as well as between mastery of this construct and successful performance of the job

86
Q

generalization

A

valid in other concepts beyond the context in which the selection method was developed

87
Q

utility

A

the extent to which something provides greater economic value than its cost

88
Q

Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986

A

federal law requiring employers to verify and maintain applicants’ legal rights to work in the US

89
Q

aptitude tests

A

tests that assess how well a person can learn or acquire skills and abilities

90
Q

achievement tests

A

tests that measure a person’s existing knowledge and skills

91
Q

cognitive ability tests

A

tests designed to measure such mental abilities as verbal skills, quantitative skills and reasoning ability

92
Q

assessment center

A

a wide variety of specific selection programs that use multiple selection methods to rate applicants or job incumbents on their management potential

93
Q

nondirective interview

A

a selection interview in which the interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions to ask each candidate

94
Q

structured interview

A

a selection interview that consists of a predetermined set of questions for the interviewer to ask

95
Q

situational interview

A

a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation likely to arise on the job, then asks the candidate what he or she would do in that situation

96
Q

behavior description interview BDI

A

a structured interview in which the interviewer asks the candidate to describe how he or she handled a type of situation in the past

97
Q

panel interview

A

selection interview in which several members of the organization meet to interview each candidate

98
Q

multiple hurdle model

A

process of arriving at a selection decision by eliminating some candidates at each stage of the selection process

99
Q

compensatory model

A

process of arriving at a selection decision in which a very high score on one type of assessment can make up for a low score on another

100
Q

unity of command principle

A

specifies that each employee should report to only one manager

101
Q

span of control

A

refers to the number of people reporting directly to a given manager

102
Q

staff personnel

A

do background research and provide technical advice and recommendations to their line managers

103
Q

line managers

A

generally have the authority to make decisions for their units

104
Q

closed system

A

sell-sufficient entity

105
Q

open system

A

depends on constant interaction with the environment for survival

106
Q

learning organization

A

one that proactively creates, acquires, and transfers knowledge and that changes its behavior on the basis of new knowledge and insights

107
Q

organizational design

A

the structures of accountability and responsibility used to develop and implement strategies, and the human resource practices and information and business processes that activate those structures

108
Q

functional structure

A

groups people according to the business functions they perform

109
Q

divisional structure

A

employees are segregated into organization groups based on similar products or services, customers or clients, or geographic regions

110
Q

matrix structure

A

combines a vertical structure with an equally strong horizontal overlay

111
Q

horizontal structure

A

teams or workgroups, either temporary or permanent, are created to improve collaboration and work on common projects

112
Q

boundaryless organization

A

one where management has largely succeeded in breaking down barriers between internal levels, job functions and departments, as well as reducing external barriers between the association and those with whom it does business

113
Q

hollow (network) structure

A

designed around a central core of key functions and outsources other functions to other companies or individuals who can do them cheaper or faster

114
Q

modular structure

A

the company assembles product parts, components, or modules provided by external contractors

115
Q

virtual structure

A

one whose members are geographically apart, usually working with email and other forms of information technology, yet which generally appears to customers as a single, unified organization with a real physical location

116
Q

contingency approach to organization design

A

organizations tend to be more effective when they are structured to fit the demands of the situation

117
Q

mechanistic organizations

A

rigid bureaucracies with strict rules, narrowly defined tasks, and top-down communication

118
Q

organic organizations

A

flexible networks of multitalented individuals who perform a variety of tasks

119
Q

centralized decision making

A

occurs when key decisions are made by top management

120
Q

decentralized decision making

A

occurs when important decisions are made by middle and lower level managers

121
Q

strategic constituency

A

any group of individuals who have some stake in the organization

122
Q

innovation

A

the creation of something new that makes money

123
Q

product innovation

A

change in the appearance or performance of a product or service or the creation of a new one

124
Q

process innovation

A

a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured or distributed

125
Q

core innovations

A

targeted at existing customers and rely on optimizing existing products and services for existing customers

126
Q

transformational innovations

A

targeted at creating new markets and customers and rely on developing breakthroughs and inventing things that currently don’t exist

127
Q

seeds of innovation

A

represent the starting points for organizational innovation

128
Q

failure

A

occurs when an activity fails to deliver its expected results or outcomes

129
Q

external forces for change

A

originate outside the organization

130
Q

internal forces for change

A

come from inside the organization

131
Q

adaptive change

A

least complex, costly and uncertain form of change; involves reimplementation of a change in the same organizational unit at a later time or imitation of a similar change by a different unit

132
Q

innovative change

A

falls midway on the continuum of complexity cost and uncertainty

133
Q

radically innovative change

A

the most complex, costly and uncertain

134
Q

mission statements

A

represent the reason organizations exist

135
Q

readiness for change

A

beliefs, attitudes, and intentions regarding the extent to which changes are needed and the capacity available to successfully implement those changes

136
Q

resistance to change

A

any thought, emotion, or behavior that does not align with real or potential changes to existing routines

137
Q

change agent

A

someone who is a catalyst in helping organizations to deal with old problems in new ways

138
Q

dispositional resistance to change

A

less likely to voluntarily initiate changes and more likely to form negative attitudes toward the changes they encounter

139
Q

stress

A

an adaptive response to environmental demands, referred to as stressors, that produce adaptive response that include physical, emotional, and behavioral reactions that are influenced by individual differences

140
Q

eustress

A

stress associated with positive emotions and outcomes

141
Q

stressors

A

factors that produce stress

142
Q

presenteeism

A

when employees show up but are sick or otherwise in no condition to work productively

143
Q

primary appraisals

A

perceptions of whether a stressor is irrelevant, positive or negative

144
Q

secondary appraisals

A

perceptions of how able you are to deal or cope with a given demand

145
Q

control strategy

A

consists of using behaviors and cognitions to directly anticipate or solve problems

146
Q

escape strategies

A

those in which you avoid or ignore stressors

147
Q

symptom management strategies

A

focus on reducing the symptoms of stress