final BLAW Flashcards

1
Q

what is an agency relationship?

A

when a one person ( the agent) is authorized to act on behalf of another person or entity (the principal) to create a lagal or business obligation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is fiduciary

A

someone who has a legal or ethical duty to act in the best interests of another person or entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

give a few examples of fiduciary

A

financial advisor managing investments for a client, a lawyer representing a client in legal matters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 3 different types of authority ?

A

express (actual) authority, implied (actual) authority and apparant authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is express (actual) authority

A

the clear explicit permission given by a principal to an agent to perform specific tasks or make decisions on their behalf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is implied (actual) authority

A

the power an agent has to take actions that are not specifically stated but are necessary to carry out their express authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is apparant authority

A

when a third party reasonably believes that an agent has the authority to act on behalf of a principal, even if the agent doesn’t acutally have such authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is ratification

A

when a principal approves and accepts decision that an agent took on their behalf, even though the agent did not have the authority to do it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is Termination by operation of law

A

when a relationship between an agent and principal end without the need for action or decision of either party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

examples of Termination by operation of law

A

death, if what their services become seen as illegally, bankruptcy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the 5 duties the agent owes the principal

A

loyalty, obedience, duty of care, duty to inform, duty to account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The 3 duties the principal owes the agent

A

compensation, reimbursement or indemnification, cooperation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is indemnification

A

protect against losses or liabilities arising from lawful actions taken of behalf of the principals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the two principal types of powers of
attorney

A

general power and special limited power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

characteristics of general power of attorney

A

gives the agent broad authority to act on behalf of the principal in a wide range of matters

agent can handle financial transaction, sign docs, manage properties, and make decisions as if they were the principal

ends if the principal becomes incapacitated or dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

characteristics of special limited power of attorney

A

the agent has authority to perform specific tasks or make decisions in a limited area defined by principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the 4 types of restricted covenant

A

non-compete agreement, non-solicitation agreement, confidentiality agreement (NDA), non-disparagement agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is non-disparagement agreement

A

stops someone from making negative or harmful statements about the principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is required to be able to enforce a non-competition
agreement in Texas.

A

part of an enforceable agreement, must be reasonable in scope, must actually protect business interest, cannot be overly restrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does the doctrine of respondeat superior do

A

an employer can be held responsible for the actions of their employees if those actions happen while the employee is doing their job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is NLRA

A

National Labor Relations Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the NLRA protect

A

a federally
statute that basically protects employees’ rights to organize labor unions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a labor union

A

a group of workers who join together to protect their rights and improve their working conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are right to work laws

A

employers or unions can’t force employees to join a union or pay union fees to keep their job or be hired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the employment-at-will doctrine ?

A

An employer can fire an employee at any time, for any reason, or for no reason at all and the employee can quit at any time without giving a reason or notice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the basic limitation of the employment-at-will doctrine ?

A

Discrimination, Retaliation meaning employers can’t fire for snitching something illegal, public policy violations, implied contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

list the 8 Miscellaneous Laws

A

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)

Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)

Worker Adjustment and Retraining Act (WARN)

Employee Retirement Income Security Act ( ERISA)

Equal Pay Act (EPA)

Immigraction Reform and Control Act (IRCA)

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act ( USERRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is FLSA and what does it do?

A

it’s the Fair Labor Standards Act and it governs minimum wage, overtime pay and child Labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the FMLA and what does it do?

A

Family and Medical Leave Act, it provides eligible employees with up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave for family or medical leave.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is OSHA and what does it do?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Act. ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees

31
Q

what is WARN and what does it do?

A

Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act, requires employers to give advance notice of mass layoffs or plant closures

32
Q

what is ERISA and what does it do?

A

Employee Retirement Income Security Act, regulates employee benefits plans, such as pensions and health insurance

33
Q

what is EPA and what does it do?

A

Equal Pay Act, prohibts gender-based wage discrimination for the same work

34
Q

what is IRCA and what does it do?

A

Immigration Reform and Control Act, requires employers to verify employee’s eligibility to work in the U.S.

35
Q

what is USERRA and what does it do?

A

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, protects job for employees who serve in the military

36
Q

race, color, religion, sex and national origin are protected under what title?

A

Title VII

37
Q

Title VII protect what classes

A

race, color, religion, sex and national origin

38
Q

what are the 5 distinct behaviors that are prohibited under our discrimination laws.

A

Intentional discrimination (disparate treatment), Unintentional discrimination (disparate impact), Quid pro quo (sexual harassment only), Hostile environment, Retaliation

39
Q

what is an example of unintentional discrimination?

A

A company requires all job applicants to pass a physical strength test, even for office jobs.
While the policy seems neutral, it may unintentionally discriminate against women or individuals with disabilities who are perfectly capable of performing the job without needing to meet the physical strength requirement.

40
Q

what is Quid pro quo (sexual harassment only)

A

when someone in a position of power, like a boss or supervisor, demands sexual favors in exchange for workplace benefits or threatens negative consequences if those favors are not provided.

41
Q

what is the BFOQ defense

A

the Bona Fide Occupational Qualification, it allows an employer ti hire or exculed someone based on a protected characteristic (like gender, religion, or age) if that characteristic is essential to the job

42
Q

what are the limits of BFOQ defense

A

no stereotypes, customer preferences are not valid reason, cannot justify discrimination

43
Q

how many types of sexual harassment are there and what are they?

A

quid pro quo, hostile work environment

44
Q

what is the prerequisite to filing a lawsuit

A

filing a charge of a discrimination with the EEOC or state
agency

45
Q

what is s the United States’ chief employment discrimination law.

A

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

46
Q

what is the definition of contract ?

A

a legally binding agreement between two or more parties where they agree to do (or not do) something specific

47
Q

what is a enforceable express contract

A

a legally binding agreement where the terms are clearly stated, either verbally or in writing

48
Q

what is implied-in-fact contract

A

a legally binding agreement that is not explicitly stated but is created through the actions, behavior, or circumstances of the parties involved.

49
Q

requirements for a contract to be enforceable

A

offer, acceptance, consideration, leagal purpose, mutual agreement, capacity

50
Q

what is consideration ?

A

what each party gives up to get something in return, and must be actually valuable not some petty bs

51
Q

what are the 5 affirmative defenses

A

a. Duress
b. Undue influence
c. Fraud (in the inducement)
d. Impossibility of Performance

52
Q

what is duress

A

When someone is forced or threatened into entering a contract against their free will.

53
Q

what is undue influence

A

When one party unfairly influences another, taking advantage of a position of trust or power to get them to agree to a contract.

54
Q

what is fraud

A

When one party is tricked into entering a contract by false statements or deceptive practices about important facts.

55
Q

what impossibility of performance

A

When a contract cannot be fulfilled due to unforeseen events that make performance objectively impossible.

56
Q

what is Force Majeure.

A

concept in contracts that frees parties from their obligations when an unforeseeable event occurs that is beyond their control and makes it impossible or impractical to perform the contract.

57
Q

what is the Statute of Frauds

A

legal rule that requires certain types of contracts to be in writing and signed to be enforceable.

58
Q

example of contracts that fit into Statute of Frauds

A

contracts for the sale or lease (1 year or more) and contracts that cannot be performed within one year

59
Q

what is the UETA

A

Uniform Electronic Transactions Act, provides that
electronic records and signatures have the same legal effect as paper contracts and
handwritten signatures.

60
Q

What is condition

A

a specific event or action that must occur before a party has to perform their part of the contract or before certain rights or obligations are triggered

61
Q

what is Anticipatory Repudiation

A

when one party to a contract clearly indicates, before their performance is due, that they will not fulfill their obligations. This allows the other party to take action immediately instead of waiting until the performance date.

62
Q

what is compensatory damages

A

Money to cover the direct loss caused by the breach (e.g., extra cost to finish a job).

63
Q

what is Consequential Damages

A

Money to cover indirect losses caused by the breach, like lost profits or opportunities, as long as the breaching party could have expected this would happen.

64
Q

what are punitive damages

A

money awarded in a lawsuit to punish the wrongdoer and stop others from doing the same thing.

65
Q

do punitive damages apply to breach

A

no

66
Q

what are liquidated damages

A

a specific amount of money agreed upon in a contract that one party will pay to the other if the breach the contract

67
Q

what are the two Limitation of Liability Clauses.

A

Exclusion Clause, and Cap Clause

68
Q

what is exclusion clause

A

a part of a contract that reduces or completely removes responsibility for certain actions or outcomes from a party

69
Q

what is cap clause

A

sets a limit on the amount of money one party can owe the other if something goes wrong

70
Q

what are the 2 equitable remidies for breach of contract

A

Specific performance, Injunction

71
Q

what is Specific performance

A

when a court forces someone to do exactly what they promised in a contract, instead of just paying money.

72
Q

what is injuction

A

court order that tells someone to stop doing something or, in some cases, to do something specific

73
Q

The United States Bankruptcy Code enables what?

A

enables companies to reject executory contracts.