Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

TURBINE 360 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

One function of the Nozzle diaphragm of a turbine section is to:

A

Increase the velocity of the hot gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An eddy current type RPM indicating systems measures ____________ to indicate rotation speed.

A

FREQUENCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The velocity of compressor discharge air is Controlled by:

A

the taper of the compressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The highest total pressure in a gas turbine engine occurs at the ___________________outlet.

A

COMPRESSOR SECTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fuel nozzle that has two discharge orifices and a flow divider within the nozzle is called a:

A

Single Line Duplex Fuel Nozzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In a typical oil system, the main oil filter is located just

A

After the main pressure pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The “waist” mounted accessory gearbox on a gas turbine engine would provide a drive pad for a:

A

Mechanical fuel pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor:

A

Varies with engine RPM and inlet air temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The stators of one stage of an axial compressor converts?

A

velocity to static pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Three factors that must be considered when repairing fan blades include (1)Structural integrity of the blade and (2)Aerodynamic cross-section. The third factor is:

A

(3)Balance, and may cause you to remove material from the opposite blade that is not damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An electronic torque meter system measure_______________________to indicate the difference between high and low torque.

A

TIME DIFFERENCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An engine is tested, and it is found that maximum RPM is reached before maximum ITT and maximum thrust are reached. One solution is to:

A

Decrease exhaust nozzle area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a subsonic inlet, ram recovery point refers to speed (of the aircraft) at which the duct will deliver air to the compressor.

A

Which has a total pressure equal to ambient air pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During the start sequence, the electric starter is selected off:

A

After light off but before idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The velocity of the gas flow through an in-flight turbofan engine will be the lowest at the:

A

Combustion section inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The pilot of an aircraft equipped with turbofan engines looks on a chart to select the EPR for take-off. He will need to know the atmospheric pressure and:

A

OAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The exhaust section of a turbojet engine is designed to:

A

Impart a high exit velocity to the gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which is the ultimate limiting factor of engine peak performance?

A

Turbine inlet pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Impingement cooling refers to a method of cooling in which:

A

Cooler air is directed onto specific parts to carry heat away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The purpose of the combustion liner is to:

A

Mix fuel and air for the burning of fuel and heating of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An inefficiency in a compressor that has achieved a target pressure will be revealed by a:

A

Higher than normal temperature rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When a turbine engine equipped aircraft in altitude, the thrust decays at a faster rate above the troposphere. This is known as (the):

A

Thrust lapse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Compressor stalls can be avoided by:

A

Varying the size of the exhaust nozzle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If a cone is placed aft of the disc of the last turbine stage and forms part of the exhaust duct, it will cause the static pressure in the duct to:

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A “two spool” engine on that has two:

A

Separate compressors and turbine rotors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is station #2 located in the engine?

A

Just in front of the compressor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The gas velocity in the throat of a chocked nozzle is:

A

SONIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Each engine manufacturer uses the standard tach generator RPM, but must _______________________________ to get the correct indication.

A

DRIVE THE GENERATOR AT THE CORRECT GEAR RATIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The discharge of the stator to the impulse section of a combination type turbine blade will have a:

A

Higher velocity than the discharge to the other sections of the blade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

One function of the stator blades in an axial compressor is to:

A

Convert velocity to static pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the term describing permanent and cumulative deformation of a material (such as turbine blades) due to heat, and loading?

A

CREEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The shape of a subsonic inlet duct is best described as:

A

A diffusing duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

One function of the stator blades in an axial compressor is to:

A

Redirect the air and give it proper angle of attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes the discharge flow rate of a constant displacement fuel pump to vary?

A

RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Air pressure in the combustion section:

A

Must be held as close to constant as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control In the “Normal” (computer) mode, maximum PCD is limited by the:

A

P3 Limiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control In “Normal” mode, the governor valve (plate valve) would open at:

A

105 N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control A change in power lever position will cause a direct change in:

A

Py

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control The enrichment system is designed to modify:

A

Px

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control Differential pressure between Px and Py is least during:

A

Acceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control Differential pressure between Px and Py is greatest during:

A

Deceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

specially on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control In the following formula Fn is the best described as representing: Fn = Wa(V2 – V1) = Wf (Vf) = Aj (Pj-Pa) g g

A

Net thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control xThe NF power turbine governor changes the metering valve position by:

A

Reducing Py

44
Q

on the electro-hydro-mechanical fuel control The NG governor valve controls:

A

Py

45
Q

In the following formula, 550 represents (A represents Delta): HP = Cp AT Wa (778) 550

A

1 Horsepower

46
Q

Which of the FCU inputs comes from the pilot?

A

Power lever PLA (power level angle

47
Q

Which of the inputs will establish the density of the air, for the FCU?

A

Tt2, P2, PDC=P3

48
Q

In order to increase the RPM the FCU must _____fuel the engine

A

over

49
Q

What is the purpose of the minimum flow adjustment in an FCU

A

allows some fuel to always flow and prevent flame out

50
Q

What is the purpose of the differential relief valve?

A

set a constant pressure differential

51
Q

When the governor speeder spring pressure is equal to the centrifugal force on the flyweights, the governor is referred to as ____________

A

on speed (flight weights are balance)

52
Q

When the governor speeder spring pressure is greater than the centrifugal force on the flyweights, the governor is referred to as ____________

A

under speed (flight weights tips in)

53
Q

When the governor speeder spring pressure is less than the centrifugal force on the flyweights, the governor is referred to as ____________

A

over speed (flight weight tip off)

54
Q

List the 2 methods of accurately metering fuel

A

-Fix orifice-Variable pressure (normal mode) -Variable orifice - Fixed pressure (manual mode)

55
Q

When there is the greatest difference between Px and Py, the engine RPM will be _____

A

decrease

56
Q

When there is the least difference between Px and Py, the engine RPM will be _____

A

increase

57
Q

In a differential pressure fuel metering system, the governor controls the value of _____

A

Py

58
Q

in Brayton Cycle the compressor discharge is at point ?

A

B

59
Q

In the Thrust formula, what has the effect of increasing Fn?

A

increasing the weight of the air flow

60
Q

a Nozzle is choked when ?

A

sonic velocity is reach at the trhoat

61
Q

The stators of one stage of an axial compressor converts ?

A

velocity to static pressure

62
Q

Most tach generators indicate 100 % when the generator is turning____ RPM

A

4200

63
Q

considering the specific heat formula, the power extracted from the gas by the turbines can be calculated if we know (among other things):

A

Temperature change across the turbines

64
Q

a large portion of the noise of a turbine comes from

A

a high differential shear zone

65
Q

in the specific heat formula what does Cp represents?

A

air under constant pressure

66
Q

what is the ultimate factor of engine peak performance ?

A

Turbine Inlet Temperature TIT

67
Q

according with the general gas law, if the pressure of the gas decrease and the volume held constant then the temperature will ?

A

decrease

68
Q

what does the turbulence of the combustion liner ?

A

facilitates the mixing of fuel and air

69
Q

a two spool engine is one that has two ?

A

separate compressors and turbine rotors

70
Q

in the thrust formula Fn represents ?

A

Net thrust

71
Q

when converting Thrust to horsepower to obtain ESPH for a turbo prop engine (statics conditions ) this formula is used : ESPH =SHP+Fn/X “X” is equal to?

A

2.5 ( an industry accepted standard)

72
Q

if a cone is placed aft of the disc of the last turbine stage and forms part of the exhaust duct, it will cause the static pressure in the duct to?

A

Increase

73
Q

an increase in OAT affects the performance of a gas turbine in the following way:

A

decrease thrust

74
Q

the exhaust section of a turbo jet engine is designed to ?

A

impart a high exit velocity

75
Q

Thrust augmentation will be used during ?

A

Take off

76
Q

a gas turbine engine is designed to supply power to an airframe supplied transmission would be classify as

A

turbo shaft

77
Q

the pilot of an aircraft equipped with turbofan engine looks on a chart to select EPR for take off which 2 parameters are referenced in order to obtain the correct setting ?

A

OAT, Pressure Ambient

78
Q

EEC outputs

A

Manual mode selenoid,torque meter, overspeed selenoid, surge bleed valve (Pneumatic Power)

79
Q

Fuel is metered in Normal mode by using __________ orifice and _________ pressure

A

constant, variable

80
Q

Fuel is metered in Manual mode by using __________ orifice and _________ pressure

A

variable, constant

81
Q

In manual mode, the position of the bypass valve is controlled by the ___________

A

Delta P bellows

82
Q

in Normal mode, to accelerate the engine the bypass valve must move _______ (direction)

A

it will drop to increase the fuel flow to the engine

83
Q

Reduce fuel flow to the engine, the torque motor must ________ the plate valve orifice.

A

open

84
Q

P1 pressure is trying to __________ the ΔP bellows

A

compress

85
Q

P2 pressure is trying to __________ the ΔP bellows

A

expand

86
Q

The purpose of the ΔP bellows is to:

A

take care of differential pressure

87
Q

In which mode does the Pcd limiter monitor pressure?

A

prevent overthrust both modes

88
Q

What pressure does the Pcd limiter monitor?

A

pneumatic pressure P3

89
Q

PL pressure acts on which bellows?

A

acceleration bellows

90
Q

Increasing PL pressure will cause the metering valve to ___________

A

close

91
Q

In the drawing of the EHM FCU, to reduce fuel flow, the metering valve must move _____ (direction)

A

up, closing

92
Q

The cam plate on the power lever shaft sets the RPM in __________ mode

A

Manual

93
Q

The PLA Pot sets the RPM in __________ mode

A

Normal

94
Q

in Normal mode, the manual mode piston is forced against the stops by _____ pressure

A

Pr pressure

95
Q

The fuel shutoff valve is held in the open position by _____ pressure

A

P2

96
Q

The Ultimate Overspeed Solenoid is energized by the __________

A

EEC needs to have computer on to work, normally close

97
Q

When the Ultimate Overspeed Solenoid is energized, it is in the__________position

A

open

98
Q

6 Inputs of the EEC

A

-N1 -N2 -Tt2 -Pt2 -PLA -ITT

99
Q

The fuel shutoff valve is held in the open position by _____ pressure

A

P1

100
Q

when the metering valve is up is open or close

A

close

101
Q

identify A,B,C,D,E,F,

A

A=Inlet pressurizing valve 140-160 psi

B=by-pass valve

C=Delta P bellows 49-53 psi

D=Accel Bellows

E=Evac Bellows

F=Metrering Valve

102
Q

identify G,H,I,J,K,L,

A

G=Outlet pressurization valve

H=fuel shut-off valve

I= Fuel/oil heater

J=Ultimate over speed selenoid

K=flow divider

L= PDC limiter or P3 limiter

103
Q

identify ,M,N,O,P,Q

A

M= Manual mode selenoid (N.C)

N= Seed Governor (105% AUTO)N2

O=Fuel boost pump 35-40 psi

P=High Pressure relieve valve 1450 psi

Q=Torque Meter

104
Q

identify R,ST,U,V

A

R=Anti ice sensor

S=Overboard drain

T= Anti ice valve

U= High pressure pump

V=Inlet filter

105
Q

identify W,X,Y,Z

A

W=Flter by pas 6.5 psi

X=power level

Y=PLA POT Power level angle potenciometer

Z=Electronic Engine Computer

106
Q

identify 1,2,3,4,5,6

A

1=Manual mode adjustment

2= metal filter 40 microns

3=rotary valve

4=fuel/oil cooler

5=primary fuel nozzles

6=secondary fuel nozzles

TURBINE 360 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions