Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Avit 325 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

The Piper Seminole has a total fuel capacity of [_]gallons, the total usable fuel is
[__]gallons.

A

110, 108

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The Piper Seminole’s engine can produces [_] HP at [___] RPM at sea level.

A

180, 2700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A [_] uses exhaust gases to compress induction air and boost engine power output
at higher altitudes.

A

turbocharger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When both L/R ALTR FAIL annunciators illuminate in the G1000 Seminole the
essential bus voltage is [_] volts or less, therefore the aircraft’s electrical system is
being powered by the [__].

A

24, battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The four flap positions in the Piper Seminole are [_], [__], [___], and [____] degrees.

A

0, 10, 25, 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is not an electrical bus on the G1000 Seminole?

A

Tie bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In the G1000 Seminole, if both the L ALTR FAIL and R ALTR FAIL annunciator lights
illuminates during ight, what is your initial source of electrical power?

A

The 13.6-amp hour battery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the Garmin GFC 700 Autopilot
system installed on the Piper Seminole?

A

The minimum speed for its use while on an approach is 90 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following forces is the primary force that moves the Piper Seminole’s
propeller toward a low pitch angle, high RPM?

A

Oil Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is the primary force that will move the Piper Seminole’s
propeller toward a high pitch angle, low RPM?

A

Nitrogen Charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of following methods will disengage the autopilot system on the Piper
Seminole?

A

All of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of Aileron’s is the Piper Seminole equipped with?

A

Deferential Frise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the purpose of the unfeathering accumulator in the Piper Seminole’s
propeller system?

A

Stores oil under pressure to unfeather propeller.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements is true about the Seminole’s heater?

A

The fresh air blower automatically shuts off when a gear up limit
switch is in the closed position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In the Piper Seminole’s gear system, what shuts the pump OFF during gear
retraction?

A

The pressure switch reaching approximately 1800 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the quickest way to manually disengage the Garmin GFC 700 Autopilot
system?

A

Press the red A/P DISC/TRIM INTER switch on the left control

wheel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the squat switch on the Piper Seminole’s left main gear control?

A

Disables the landing gear pump to prevent inadvertent gear

retraction on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When using pneumatic de-icing boots to remove ice accumulation on an aircraft’s
wing:

A

Use the method described by the aircraft’s applicable operating
manual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The storm window in the Seminole should not be opened above what speed?

A

129 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the Piper Seminole’s gear system, what shuts the pump OFF during gear
extension?

A

All three down limit switches closing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During engine shutdown the Seminole’s propeller is prevented from going in the
feather position by:

A

Anti-feathering pins which lock in place below 950 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many minutes will the emergency battery in the G1000 Seminole provide
power to the standby instruments and PFD and Comm. 1 radio?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of the thermal relief valve on the Seminole’s hydraulic gear
system?

A

Provides pressure relief in the event heat expands the hydraulic
fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What action should the pilot take if the cylinder head temperature is too high?

A

Open the cowl flaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is indicated when there is sluggish RPM control and propeller overspeed with
poor RPM recovery after rapid throttle application?

A

The propellers nitrogen charge is low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Seminole POH recommends that prolonged slips and skids which result
in excess of _______ feet of altitude, or other radical or extreme maneuvers
which could cause uncovering of the fuel outlet must be avoided as fuel flow
interruption may occur when the tank being used is not full.

A

2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If the R ALTR FAIL annunciator light illuminates during ight this is an indication
that _______ alternator(s) have failed?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The luggage compartment on the Seminole has a maximum weight capacity
of ___________ lbs.

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The Seminole has an emergency exit window located on the ___________ of the
aircraft.

A

left side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The purpose of the elevator down spring is __________.

A

Drive the elevator to a nose down position during deep stalls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A T-Tail aircraft, like the Seminole, requires _______ movements at _______ speeds
when compared to an airplane with a conventional placed horizontal stabilizer.

A

Larger / slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In the event alternate static is required what configuration should be used?

A

Storm window closed / cabin vents closed / heater & defroster
on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The purpose of the impulse coupling on the magneto is to ___________.

A

Provide rotation for late and hot spark.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the functions of the alternator control units in the Seminole electrical
system?

A

Voltage regulation, Load sharing ,Over voltage protection. (ALL THE ABOVE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

On the Seminole landing gear system, what holds the gear in the UP position?

A

Hydraulic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For normal operations, electrical power on the G1000 carbureted Piper Seminole is
provided by two 28-volt 80-amp alternators and one 24-volt 13.6-amp hour
battery.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Emergency gear extension in the Piper Seminole is provided by a free fall
mechanism which releases pressure from the high pressure side.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The electric fuel pumps must be on to operate the fuel primer for the
carbureted Seminole.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The probe type fuel vent on the Piper Seminole is heated.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The landing gear in the Piper Seminole cannot be in the down and locked
positions at speeds above 109 KIAS (Vle).

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Oil from the aircraft’s engine is boosted by the governor to a higher pressure
and used to drive the propeller to a High Pitch/Low RPM condition.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The heater in the Piper Seminole will not turn on unless the fresh air intake is
partially or fully open.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

On the G1000 carbureted Seminole, after one alternator fails the load on the
remaining alternator should be reduced below 75 amps to prevent the
alternator control unit from taking the remaining alternator off line.

A

true

44
Q

The G1000 Seminole does not have a vacuum pump, the backup attitude
indicator is electrically driven.

A

true

45
Q

When selecting carburetor heat it is acceptable to select partial heat.

A

false

46
Q

In the Seminole fuel system, cross-feed allows fuel to be transferred from the
left fuel tank to the right fuel tank.

A

false

47
Q

With respect to the operation of the gear on the Piper Seminole, which of the
following statements are true?

A

The gear can be extended at any speed equal to or less than 140
KIAS.
The gear has to be retracted at any speed less than or equal to
109 KIAS.
When cycling the gear, do not reverse directions when the pump
is running.

48
Q

If you were operating a Piper Seminole that weighed 3600 lbs., what speed would
you use for Vo?

A

131 KIAS

49
Q

On climb out, you experience a hard roll and yaw force to the right with a
significant reduction in climb rate and speed – what is most likely the problem?

A

The right engine has failed.

50
Q

Which of the following speeds in the Piper Seminole would give you the best single
engine climb rate?

A

88 KIAS

51
Q

Which of the following speeds in the Piper Seminole is the minimum speed at
which directional control can be maintained with on engine operating under FAR
Part 23 certication standards?

A

56 KIAS

52
Q

Which of the following statement is True about Vmc?

A

Vmc will decrease with an increase in density altitude (normally
aspirated engine).

53
Q

The published Vmc speed for the Piper Seminole was calculated under which of
the following conditions?

A

Landing gear retracted.

54
Q

Which of the following factors is true about Vmc?

A

Vmc decreases as engine power output decreases.

55
Q

What CG location and gross weight would lead to the lowest Vmc speed?

A

Forward CG at the heaviest weight.

56
Q

What action should a pilot take if they begin to lose directional when operating
single-engine?

A

Decrease engine power on the good engine.

Pitch down to increase airspeed

57
Q

The aircraft’s single-engine service ceiling is the:

A

Highest altitude the aircraft can maintain a 50 FPM climb rate when
single engine.

58
Q

The aircrafts service ceiling is:

A

Highest altitude the aircraft can maintain a 100 FPM climb rate

59
Q

Zero side slip condition in the Piper Seminole is identifed as:

A

½ ball deflection and 2-3 degrees of bank.

60
Q

In the Piper Seminole which engine, if failed, would most adversely affect
performance and controllability?

A

Neither engine

61
Q

In the Piper Navajo, a conventional rotating twin, which engine would most
adversely affect performance and controllability if it failed?

A

Left engine

62
Q

V1 is defined as?

A

takeoff decision speed

63
Q

The distance required to accelerate the aircraft on takeoff to liftoff speed,
experience an engine failure, and come to a complete stop is?

A

Accelerate-stop distance

64
Q 
There are four factors we described in class that make the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ engine critical,
what factor reduces the airow over the rudder?
A

Left, accelerated slipstream

65
Q

V2 is defined as?

A

Takeoff safety speed

66
Q

Increasing gross weight

A

Decreases Vmc

67
Q

Moving the CG to the aft limit

A

Increases Vmc

68
Q

Aircraft in ground effect

A

Decreases Vmc

69
Q

Power decreased on the operating engine (opposite propeller feathered).

A

Decreases Vmc

70
Q

Flaps extended

A

Decreases Vmc

71
Q

Landing gear retracted

A

decreases vmc

72
Q

Decrease in density altitude from 10,000’ to 3,000 ‘(normally aspirated engines)

A

Increases Vmc

73
Q

Moving the CG to the forward limit

A

Decrease Vmc

74
Q

Propeller windmilling

A

Increases Vmc

75
Q

Decreasing gross weight

A

Increases Vmc

76
Q

Indicated stall speed and Vmc speed decrease as density altitude increases
(assume normally aspirated engine).

A

false

77
Q

In all multi-engine aircraft stall will always occur before losing directional
control.

A

false

78
Q

Vmc is calculated with the inoperative engines propeller windmilling unless
the aircraft is equipped with an autofeather system.

A

true

79
Q

If the pilot uses the wings level method for aircraft control following an engine
failure the aircraft is considered coordinated (no slip of skid)?

A

false

80
Q

To achieve maximum performance single-engine the pilot should pitch for
Vyse and establish zero sideslip.

A

true

81
Q

An obstacle departure procedure (ODP) is established if a minimum gradient is
penetrated by an obstacle. What is the slope of that gradient?

A

152fpnm

82
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions needed to depart runway
15 for a ight being conducted under FAR Part 135 if you cannot meet the climb
gradient requirements?

A

3,300ft ceiling and 3 sm visibility

83
Q

Based on questions 2, if your ground speed after departure is 100kts,
what is your required climb rate in feet per minute (select closest answer by
rounding up)?

A

1017

84
Q

After crossing the UBG VOR at what altitude and airspeed can you expect
to cross OLM VOR if you’re ying a turbojet aircraft when landing south?

A

280 kt. / 17,000 feet

85
Q

Before beginning your descent on the OLM SIX Arrival an ATC controller
must issue which clearance in order for your aircraft to start a descent on the
arrival procedure?

A

N1234 descend via the Olympia 6 Arrival

86
Q

At what point must your aircraft be at 250kts on the Olympia six arrival if
landing north?

A

When crossing the OLM VOR.

87
Q

While navigating on a victor airway, ATC issues you an approach clearance to an
airport not serviced by a control tower. When may you begin descending based on
the following information?
Aircraft Location: 10 NM from IAF on victor airway
Clearance: “Bonanza 3BR maintain 5000 until established on a published
portion of the approach, cleared VOR runway 13 approach, report FAF
inbound”

A

When the aircraft is on a published portion of the approach.

88
Q 
An IFR ight plan is required to operate IMC in class G airspace when weather
conditions are less than VMC.
A

false

89
Q

While climbing into Class A airspace what pilot action is required?

A

Reset altimeter to 29.92

90
Q

An IFR ight plan/clearance can be defined as?

A

It allows an appropriately rated pilot to operate in weather conditions
less than VMC in controlled airspace with an appropriate ATC
clearance.
Facilitates separation between IFR aircraft in controlled airspace
through ATC.
Required anytime you enter controlled airspace when weather
conditions are below VFR.

91
Q

Your neighbor is a successful contractor and wants to buy an airplane that enables
him to visit more job sites in a shorter amount of time. He decides to buy a
Beechcraft Baron (B58) and ask you to be his pilot. Can you legally y for hire; you
are a commercial pilot with AMEL and instrument rated?

A

Yes, as long as he buys the aircraft.

92
Q

You friend started her own successful software development business and want to
lease and airplane to y to business meetings. The local FBO (not a Part 135
operator) oered to lease your friend an aircraft and provide the pilot. Your friend
calls you up and asks you if this is legal?

A

No, it is a wet lease and is considered a commercial operation.

93
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums for a twin-engine aircraft ight departing
an airport under FAR Part 135 with no prescribed takeoff minimums?

A

1 sm visibility

94
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required if departing KGEG FAR under Part
135?

A

When the ceiling is reported less than 200ft or visibility is less than
1800FT RVR.

95
Q

When approaching to land at KGEG FAR under Part 91 on the ILS RWY 3,
prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900ft
RVR. The approach will be own as published.

A

The pilot may start the approach

96
Q

When approaching to land at KGEG FAR under Part 135 on the ILS RWY 3,
prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900ft
RVR. The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the
airport that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS

A

The pilot may not start the approach.

97
Q

When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 under FAR Part 91,
after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700ft RVR.
The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the airport
that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS

A

The pilot may continue the approach.

98
Q

When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 under FAR Part 135,
after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700ft RVR.
The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the airport
that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 ALS OTS

A

The pilot may continue the approach.

99
Q

When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3, at decision height only the
approach light system is visible to the pilots, but not the runway. The can the pilot
can legally do?

A

Continue the approach but y no lower than 100ft above TDZE unless
the red side row or red terminating bars are in view of the pilot.

100
Q

Except for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum altitude a pilot may y when
operating a FAR Part 135 ight under day VFR?

A

500 feet above the surface.

101
Q

What grade pilot certicate is required by FAR Part 135 in order to act as PIC when
operating a multi-engine aircraft in a commuter passenger carrying operation?

A

ATP

102
Q

How much ight experience must the PIC have in order to operate a passenger
carrying FAR Part 135 ight under IFR without an SIC?

A

At least 100 hours PIC ight time in the make and model of

aircraft

103
Q

Ops Specs are defined as?

A

A document that air operators write and the FAA approves that
species the authorizations and limitations under which each type of
operation must be conducted.

104
Q

Under FAR Part 135, when are flight attendants required?

A

An aircraft has more than 19 passenger seats

105
Q

(True or False) FAR 135 operators are required to use FAA certifed dispatchers?

A

false

Avit 325 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions