Final Flashcards
The Piper Seminole has a total fuel capacity of [_]gallons, the total usable fuel is
[__]gallons.
110, 108
The Piper Seminole’s engine can produces [_] HP at [___] RPM at sea level.
180, 2700
A [_] uses exhaust gases to compress induction air and boost engine power output
at higher altitudes.
turbocharger
When both L/R ALTR FAIL annunciators illuminate in the G1000 Seminole the
essential bus voltage is [_] volts or less, therefore the aircraft’s electrical system is
being powered by the [__].
24, battery
The four flap positions in the Piper Seminole are [_], [__], [___], and [____] degrees.
0, 10, 25, 40
Which of the following is not an electrical bus on the G1000 Seminole?
Tie bus
In the G1000 Seminole, if both the L ALTR FAIL and R ALTR FAIL annunciator lights
illuminates during ight, what is your initial source of electrical power?
The 13.6-amp hour battery.
Which of the following statements is true about the Garmin GFC 700 Autopilot
system installed on the Piper Seminole?
The minimum speed for its use while on an approach is 90 knots
Which of the following forces is the primary force that moves the Piper Seminole’s
propeller toward a low pitch angle, high RPM?
Oil Pressure
Which of the following is the primary force that will move the Piper Seminole’s
propeller toward a high pitch angle, low RPM?
Nitrogen Charge
Which of following methods will disengage the autopilot system on the Piper
Seminole?
All of the above.
What type of Aileron’s is the Piper Seminole equipped with?
Deferential Frise
What is the purpose of the unfeathering accumulator in the Piper Seminole’s
propeller system?
Stores oil under pressure to unfeather propeller.
Which of the following statements is true about the Seminole’s heater?
The fresh air blower automatically shuts off when a gear up limit
switch is in the closed position.
In the Piper Seminole’s gear system, what shuts the pump OFF during gear
retraction?
The pressure switch reaching approximately 1800 psi.
What is the quickest way to manually disengage the Garmin GFC 700 Autopilot
system?
Press the red A/P DISC/TRIM INTER switch on the left control
wheel.
What does the squat switch on the Piper Seminole’s left main gear control?
Disables the landing gear pump to prevent inadvertent gear
retraction on the ground.
When using pneumatic de-icing boots to remove ice accumulation on an aircraft’s
wing:
Use the method described by the aircraft’s applicable operating
manual.
The storm window in the Seminole should not be opened above what speed?
129 KIAS
In the Piper Seminole’s gear system, what shuts the pump OFF during gear
extension?
All three down limit switches closing.
During engine shutdown the Seminole’s propeller is prevented from going in the
feather position by:
Anti-feathering pins which lock in place below 950 RPM
How many minutes will the emergency battery in the G1000 Seminole provide
power to the standby instruments and PFD and Comm. 1 radio?
30
What is the purpose of the thermal relief valve on the Seminole’s hydraulic gear
system?
Provides pressure relief in the event heat expands the hydraulic
fluid.
What action should the pilot take if the cylinder head temperature is too high?
Open the cowl flaps.
What is indicated when there is sluggish RPM control and propeller overspeed with
poor RPM recovery after rapid throttle application?
The propellers nitrogen charge is low.
The Seminole POH recommends that prolonged slips and skids which result
in excess of _______ feet of altitude, or other radical or extreme maneuvers
which could cause uncovering of the fuel outlet must be avoided as fuel flow
interruption may occur when the tank being used is not full.
2000
If the R ALTR FAIL annunciator light illuminates during ight this is an indication
that _______ alternator(s) have failed?
right
The luggage compartment on the Seminole has a maximum weight capacity
of ___________ lbs.
200
The Seminole has an emergency exit window located on the ___________ of the
aircraft.
left side
The purpose of the elevator down spring is __________.
Drive the elevator to a nose down position during deep stalls
A T-Tail aircraft, like the Seminole, requires _______ movements at _______ speeds
when compared to an airplane with a conventional placed horizontal stabilizer.
Larger / slow
In the event alternate static is required what configuration should be used?
Storm window closed / cabin vents closed / heater & defroster
on.
The purpose of the impulse coupling on the magneto is to ___________.
Provide rotation for late and hot spark.
What are the functions of the alternator control units in the Seminole electrical
system?
Voltage regulation, Load sharing ,Over voltage protection. (ALL THE ABOVE)
On the Seminole landing gear system, what holds the gear in the UP position?
Hydraulic pressure
For normal operations, electrical power on the G1000 carbureted Piper Seminole is
provided by two 28-volt 80-amp alternators and one 24-volt 13.6-amp hour
battery.
true
Emergency gear extension in the Piper Seminole is provided by a free fall
mechanism which releases pressure from the high pressure side.
true
The electric fuel pumps must be on to operate the fuel primer for the
carbureted Seminole.
true
The probe type fuel vent on the Piper Seminole is heated.
false
The landing gear in the Piper Seminole cannot be in the down and locked
positions at speeds above 109 KIAS (Vle).
false
Oil from the aircraft’s engine is boosted by the governor to a higher pressure
and used to drive the propeller to a High Pitch/Low RPM condition.
false
The heater in the Piper Seminole will not turn on unless the fresh air intake is
partially or fully open.
true
On the G1000 carbureted Seminole, after one alternator fails the load on the
remaining alternator should be reduced below 75 amps to prevent the
alternator control unit from taking the remaining alternator off line.
true
The G1000 Seminole does not have a vacuum pump, the backup attitude
indicator is electrically driven.
true
When selecting carburetor heat it is acceptable to select partial heat.
false
In the Seminole fuel system, cross-feed allows fuel to be transferred from the
left fuel tank to the right fuel tank.
false
With respect to the operation of the gear on the Piper Seminole, which of the
following statements are true?
The gear can be extended at any speed equal to or less than 140
KIAS.
The gear has to be retracted at any speed less than or equal to
109 KIAS.
When cycling the gear, do not reverse directions when the pump
is running.
If you were operating a Piper Seminole that weighed 3600 lbs., what speed would
you use for Vo?
131 KIAS
On climb out, you experience a hard roll and yaw force to the right with a
significant reduction in climb rate and speed – what is most likely the problem?
The right engine has failed.
Which of the following speeds in the Piper Seminole would give you the best single
engine climb rate?
88 KIAS
Which of the following speeds in the Piper Seminole is the minimum speed at
which directional control can be maintained with on engine operating under FAR
Part 23 certication standards?
56 KIAS
Which of the following statement is True about Vmc?
Vmc will decrease with an increase in density altitude (normally
aspirated engine).
The published Vmc speed for the Piper Seminole was calculated under which of
the following conditions?
Landing gear retracted.
Which of the following factors is true about Vmc?
Vmc decreases as engine power output decreases.
What CG location and gross weight would lead to the lowest Vmc speed?
Forward CG at the heaviest weight.
What action should a pilot take if they begin to lose directional when operating
single-engine?
Decrease engine power on the good engine.
Pitch down to increase airspeed
The aircraft’s single-engine service ceiling is the:
Highest altitude the aircraft can maintain a 50 FPM climb rate when
single engine.
The aircrafts service ceiling is:
Highest altitude the aircraft can maintain a 100 FPM climb rate
Zero side slip condition in the Piper Seminole is identifed as:
½ ball deflection and 2-3 degrees of bank.
In the Piper Seminole which engine, if failed, would most adversely affect
performance and controllability?
Neither engine
In the Piper Navajo, a conventional rotating twin, which engine would most
adversely affect performance and controllability if it failed?
Left engine
V1 is defined as?
takeoff decision speed
The distance required to accelerate the aircraft on takeoff to liftoff speed,
experience an engine failure, and come to a complete stop is?
Accelerate-stop distance
There are four factors we described in class that make the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ engine critical, what factor reduces the airow over the rudder?
Left, accelerated slipstream
V2 is defined as?
Takeoff safety speed
Increasing gross weight
Decreases Vmc
Moving the CG to the aft limit
Increases Vmc
Aircraft in ground effect
Decreases Vmc
Power decreased on the operating engine (opposite propeller feathered).
Decreases Vmc
Flaps extended
Decreases Vmc
Landing gear retracted
decreases vmc
Decrease in density altitude from 10,000’ to 3,000 ‘(normally aspirated engines)
Increases Vmc
Moving the CG to the forward limit
Decrease Vmc
Propeller windmilling
Increases Vmc
Decreasing gross weight
Increases Vmc
Indicated stall speed and Vmc speed decrease as density altitude increases
(assume normally aspirated engine).
false
In all multi-engine aircraft stall will always occur before losing directional
control.
false
Vmc is calculated with the inoperative engines propeller windmilling unless
the aircraft is equipped with an autofeather system.
true
If the pilot uses the wings level method for aircraft control following an engine
failure the aircraft is considered coordinated (no slip of skid)?
false
To achieve maximum performance single-engine the pilot should pitch for
Vyse and establish zero sideslip.
true
An obstacle departure procedure (ODP) is established if a minimum gradient is
penetrated by an obstacle. What is the slope of that gradient?
152fpnm
What are the minimum weather conditions needed to depart runway
15 for a ight being conducted under FAR Part 135 if you cannot meet the climb
gradient requirements?
3,300ft ceiling and 3 sm visibility
Based on questions 2, if your ground speed after departure is 100kts,
what is your required climb rate in feet per minute (select closest answer by
rounding up)?
1017
After crossing the UBG VOR at what altitude and airspeed can you expect
to cross OLM VOR if you’re ying a turbojet aircraft when landing south?
280 kt. / 17,000 feet
Before beginning your descent on the OLM SIX Arrival an ATC controller
must issue which clearance in order for your aircraft to start a descent on the
arrival procedure?
N1234 descend via the Olympia 6 Arrival
At what point must your aircraft be at 250kts on the Olympia six arrival if
landing north?
When crossing the OLM VOR.
While navigating on a victor airway, ATC issues you an approach clearance to an
airport not serviced by a control tower. When may you begin descending based on
the following information?
Aircraft Location: 10 NM from IAF on victor airway
Clearance: “Bonanza 3BR maintain 5000 until established on a published
portion of the approach, cleared VOR runway 13 approach, report FAF
inbound”
When the aircraft is on a published portion of the approach.
An IFR ight plan is required to operate IMC in class G airspace when weather conditions are less than VMC.
false
While climbing into Class A airspace what pilot action is required?
Reset altimeter to 29.92
An IFR ight plan/clearance can be defined as?
It allows an appropriately rated pilot to operate in weather conditions
less than VMC in controlled airspace with an appropriate ATC
clearance.
Facilitates separation between IFR aircraft in controlled airspace
through ATC.
Required anytime you enter controlled airspace when weather
conditions are below VFR.
Your neighbor is a successful contractor and wants to buy an airplane that enables
him to visit more job sites in a shorter amount of time. He decides to buy a
Beechcraft Baron (B58) and ask you to be his pilot. Can you legally y for hire; you
are a commercial pilot with AMEL and instrument rated?
Yes, as long as he buys the aircraft.
You friend started her own successful software development business and want to
lease and airplane to y to business meetings. The local FBO (not a Part 135
operator) oered to lease your friend an aircraft and provide the pilot. Your friend
calls you up and asks you if this is legal?
No, it is a wet lease and is considered a commercial operation.
What are the standard takeoff minimums for a twin-engine aircraft ight departing
an airport under FAR Part 135 with no prescribed takeoff minimums?
1 sm visibility
When is a takeoff alternate required if departing KGEG FAR under Part
135?
When the ceiling is reported less than 200ft or visibility is less than
1800FT RVR.
When approaching to land at KGEG FAR under Part 91 on the ILS RWY 3,
prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900ft
RVR. The approach will be own as published.
The pilot may start the approach
When approaching to land at KGEG FAR under Part 135 on the ILS RWY 3,
prior to reaching glideslope intercept, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1900ft
RVR. The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the
airport that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS
The pilot may not start the approach.
When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 under FAR Part 91,
after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700ft RVR.
The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the airport
that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 TDZL OTS
The pilot may continue the approach.
When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3 under FAR Part 135,
after intercepting the glideslope, ATC advises you that the visibility is 1700ft RVR.
The approach will be own as published. There is also a NOTAM for the airport
that reads:
GEG 01/145 GEG RWY 3 ALS OTS
The pilot may continue the approach.
When approaching to land at KGEG on the ILS RWY 3, at decision height only the
approach light system is visible to the pilots, but not the runway. The can the pilot
can legally do?
Continue the approach but y no lower than 100ft above TDZE unless
the red side row or red terminating bars are in view of the pilot.
Except for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum altitude a pilot may y when
operating a FAR Part 135 ight under day VFR?
500 feet above the surface.
What grade pilot certicate is required by FAR Part 135 in order to act as PIC when
operating a multi-engine aircraft in a commuter passenger carrying operation?
ATP
How much ight experience must the PIC have in order to operate a passenger
carrying FAR Part 135 ight under IFR without an SIC?
At least 100 hours PIC ight time in the make and model of
aircraft
Ops Specs are defined as?
A document that air operators write and the FAA approves that
species the authorizations and limitations under which each type of
operation must be conducted.
Under FAR Part 135, when are flight attendants required?
An aircraft has more than 19 passenger seats
(True or False) FAR 135 operators are required to use FAA certifed dispatchers?
false
