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1
Q

U1: What things are needed to be classified as living?

A

a. some sort of metabolic processes to carry out internal activities.
b. some sort of instructions, such as DNA.
c. the ability to grow and reproduce.

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2
Q

U1: What two things are needed to grow and prosper as a lineage?

A
  1. ) Ability to grow and reproduce

2. ) Ability to evolve.

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3
Q

U1: What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?

A

Hypo- An idea back with some scientific reasoning that needs further testing.
Theory- “fact” supported with scientific evidence.

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4
Q

U1: What is the difference between the independent and dependent variable?

A

The independent variable dictates the result of the dependent variable.

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5
Q

U1: Who were the founders of natural selection?

A

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

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6
Q

U1: What was Bishop Willam Paley’s theory?

A

(watch maker) Organisms are complex and well-adapted because they were made by God

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7
Q

U1: Who was the founder of Catastrophism and what does it state?

A

Georges Cuvier: God plus action’s plus catastrophic events have lead the earth to the way it is.

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8
Q

U1: What does the fossil record suggest?

Which Theory challenges the fossil record?

A

Multiple layers of fossilized species show that they are increasingly similar.
Catastrophism.

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9
Q

U1: What is Charles Lyell known for?

A

Uniformitarianism/Gradualism: slow and gradual changes to the earth is the reason the earth is the way it is.

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10
Q

U1: What and Who developed Lamarckian evolution?

A

Jean Baptist Lamarck, believed that organisms could spontaneously adapt and evolve to fit the needs of the environment,

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11
Q

U1: What was Thomas Malthus theory?

A

Populations tend to increase over time Increases in food production cannot keep pace with growth

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12
Q

U1: What is required for evolution of natural selection to take place?

A

a. Individuals must vary in their phenotypes.
b. Differences in phenotypes must have a genetic basis.
c. Differences in phenotypes must have consequences for fitness.

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13
Q

U1: An increase in an organisms fitness is directly proportional to its ability’s…?

A

Reproduce.

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14
Q

U1: Explain the differences between hard and soft selection:

A 
Hard= the desirable traits live 100% of the time
Soft= Higher likelihood of the desirable traits living but not a grantee.
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15
Q

U1: What is Evolution?

A

Change in a species genetic frequencies.

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16
Q

U1: What is Natural Selection?

A

A mechanism of evolution resulting from individuals with different traits showing differential fitness.

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17
Q

U1: What is an adaptation?

A

An increase in fitness due to evolution, or A trait that improves the fitness of an individual

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18
Q

U1: Genotype vs Phenotype?

A

Genetic makeup vs. Physical traits as a result of the genetic make up.

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19
Q

U1: Single Locus vs. Multi Locus?

A

1 gene controls the value of a trait vs. multiple genes influencing a trait.

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20
Q

U1: At what level does evolution occur at, population or individual?

A

populations.

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21
Q

U1: What is phenotypic selection?

A

Process resulting in the specific traits increasing fitness levels.

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22
Q

U1: t/f Variation is a result of mutation?

A

True.

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23
Q

U1: t/f evolution can anticipate the needs of the species.

A

False, it cannot.

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24
Q

U1: what are the differences between macro and micro evolution?

A

Macro- major evolutionary changes that occur over long periods of time.
Micro-small scale evolutionary changes (within a single population).

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25
Q

U1: What are the four means by which evolution can occur through?

A

Genetic drift
Gene flow
Mutation
Natural selection

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26
Q

U1: comparative vs. experimental approach?

A

Comparative- Compare populations or species from naturally-differing environments
Experimental-Actively manipulate the populations or environments to create differences

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27
Q

U1: What is a common garden experiment?

A

Bring population samples into lab and raise in the same conditions

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28
Q

U1: What is Rifampin?

A

Binds to RNA polymerase and interferes with transcription-Bacteriostatic antibiotic.

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29
Q

U1: What being a is the trends of a graph showing a

rifampin treatment period and the last 14 weeks being rifampin-free

A

steady for 6 weeks and then a gradually decline.

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30
Q

U1: what is the ropB gene?

A

If mutation occurs on this gene the cell is resistant to Rifampin.

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31
Q

U1: What is a transitional form?

A

forms of species in-between the initial and current.

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32
Q

U1: What forms of evidence show transitional forms?

A
  • The fossil record

* Comparative studies of extant species

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33
Q

U1: t/f Are related species found closer in proximity, and if so why?

A

T
•Global distribution patterns
•Island biogeography

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34
Q

U1: What is Wallace’s line?

A

Separates region where marsupials dominate from regions where placentals dominate.

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35
Q

U1: What are Homologous Traits?

A

similar structures that evolved from a common ancestor.

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36
Q

U1: What are Vestigial Structures?

A

A structure that lacks any function but shows evidence of a common ancestor.

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37
Q

U1: What is Mendelian Inheritance?

A

Each gene has two copies, in each individual, on homologous chromosomes. Each homologous chromosome can have a different allele

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38
Q

U1: Describe the Hardy-Weinberg Equations:

A

p+q=1

p^2+2pq+q^2

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39
Q

U1: What are the assumptions associated with Hardy-Weinberg?

A 
No natural selection occurring
No genetic drift occurring
No gene flow occurring
No new mutations
Mating is random
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40
Q

U1: Why is Inbreeding bad?

A

It increases the frequency of individuals with homozygous deleterious alleles in
the population.

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41
Q

U1: Disruptive selection?

A

Favors both ends of distribution

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42
Q

U1: Balancing selection?

A

Favors less-common form

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43
Q

U1: Directional selection?

A

Favors one end of distribution

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44
Q

U1: Stabilizing selection?

A

Favors intermediate values

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45
Q

U1: What limits evolutionary response to natural selection?

A

Genetic- Limited genetic variation
Chemical -The rate and nature of biochemical processes
Physical-The physical characteristics of biological materials
Historical- So new traits must evolve from old ones

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46
Q

U1: Why is genetic inbreeding bad?

A

increase of deleterious genes.

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47
Q

U1: Increasing adaptation in one way may reduce it in another, Trade-offs may involve:

A

Morphological characters
Physiological characters
Biochemical characters
Energy allocation

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48
Q

U1: what is Assortative mating?

A

Mate chosen based on similarity or dissimilarity to self

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49
Q

U1: what is Inbreeding?

A

Mate chosen based on close familial relationship

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50
Q

U1: what is sexual selection?

A

Particular traits are more generally more attractive to mates.

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51
Q

U1: what are the sub categories of natural selection?

A

Sexual selection,

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52
Q

U1: what is sexual dimorphism?

A

Differences in phenotype of sexes. (usually large and displayful)

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53
Q

U1: what is the fundamental asymmetry of sex?

A
  • females usually invest more in offspring than males do
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54
Q

U1: what is intersexual selection?

A

Females may choose mates on the basis of physical characteristics.
These may signal male genetic quality resources or parental care provided by males.

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55
Q

U1: what is an example of female sexual selection?

A

Traits that improve performance, or a display of an ability (nest/den building and hunting).

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56
Q

U1: what is intrasexual selection?

A

Male vs. Male competition, resulting in the winner being able to mate with the female.

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57
Q

U1: what are the means of evolution?

Describe the four.

A

Natural selection: Most favorable traits for the conditions are selected for.
Gene flow: Alters allele frequency & tend to reduces genetic variability
Gene drift: Alters allele frequency & tends to increase genetic variability
Mutation: Increases genetic variability

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58
Q

U1: what is the average for mutations per individual?

A

1

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59
Q

U1: what are four important points regarding mutations?

A

Most mutations with an effect on fitness are deleterious
A small number are beneficial
Some mutations are neutral
Mutations are random, not directed

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60
Q

U1: what is the bottle neck effect?

A

Populations that temporarily drop in size are likely to experience drift.

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61
Q

U1: what is founder’s effect?

A

Drift can also occur when a small group founds a new population Known as founder effect.

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62
Q

U1: Gene flow results from movement of alleles from blank to blank population.

A

source to sink

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63
Q

U1: what are the major approaches to identifying species, and what do they do?

A

Morphological species-Based on phenotype of individuals.
Biological species- All individuals that can potentially interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
Phylogenetic species- Groups with sufficient separation on the phylogenetic tree are considered species.

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64
Q

U1: who is the Father of binomial taxonomy?

A 
Carl Linnaeus (1707-1778)
Linnean taxonomy
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65
Q

U1: what is convergent evolution?

A

Two distantly related species that converged independently, but have similar body plans.

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66
Q

U1: what two mechanism’s can speciation occur under?

-Describe the two of them.

A

Allopatric- Speciation through physical separation of populations
Sympatric- Speciation through genetic divergence within a population

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67
Q

U1: by what can allopatric speciation occur through?

A

Dispersal/Colonization- separated movement of individuals to new location
Vicariance event: Appearance of physical barrier

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68
Q

U1: how does sympatric speciation occur?

Describe both ways:

A
  • Disruptive selection- Low fitness of intermediate phenotypes leads to two sub-groups within a population
  • Polyploid mutants- possible reproductive isolation is typical, due to an incompatible number of gametes
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69
Q

U1: what is fusion?

A

Two species diverged, but little evolution took place so when these groups reproduced your left with the original species.

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70
Q

U1: what are the possible out comes of hybridization?

A
  • Formation of persistent hybrid zone
  • Formation of new species through hybridization
  • Reinforcement of trend towards speciation
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71
Q

U1: describe a stable hybrid zone:

what is made necessary for this to occur?

A
  • Two separate species mate in an area to create a new species. Thus giving you an additional species.
  • Hybrids have as high or higher fitness than parents in some locations,
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72
Q

U1: what is reinforcement?

A

when two species produce a hybrid species that is less fit than both parent species.

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73
Q

U1: what is a phylogeny?

A

indicates the evolutionary relationship among different groups

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74
Q

U1: what is the difference between monophyletic paraphyletic and synapomorphy groups?

A

Mono- consists of all the species sharing a single ancestral population
Para- is missing some species
Synapomorphy-(“uniting form”) is a shared, derived character

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75
Q

U1: what is a homology?

A

If groups share a trait that is the same due to common ancestry.

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76
Q

U1: what is a homoplasy?

A

If groups share a trait that is not due to common ancestry

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77
Q

U1: what is adaptive radiation?

what causes adaptive radiation?

A
  • Rapid and extensive diversification of an evolutionary group.
  • Open ecological niches & Key adaptation
78
Q

U1: what is mass extinction?

what is mass extinction caused by?

A
  • Rapid disappearance of many species

- Major physical disturbances

79
Q

U1: major instances occurred from what?

A

Cambrian explosion

80
Q

U1: what was the result of the Cambrian explosion?

A
  • External and internal skeletons
  • Cephalization
  • Major sensory structures
  • Locomotory appendages
81
Q

U1: describe the following from the Cambrian explosion:
Doushantuo fossils
Ediacaran fossils
Burgess Shale fossils

A

Doushantuo fossils- From ancient deposits, displaying embryos.
Ediacaran fossils- Australian deposits, showing more organized structure
Burgess Shale fossils- Canadian deposits showing complex structures and most major animal groups present.

82
Q

U1: what was the Permian-Triassic Extinction?

what was likely the cause and how do we know this ?

A

-“Mother of mass extinctions”
96% of marine species. All eurypterids (sea scorpions), trilobites .70% of terrestrial species
-Vulcanism/ Impact event/Massive climate change

83
Q

U1: what was The Cretaceous-Tertiary Extinction?

A

Massive asteroid impact ~65mya = Loss of 75% of terrestrial and marine species in complex pattern.

84
Q

U1: how do we know The Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction was likely a result of a large asteroid shower?

A

Iridium is present at high concentration inrocks formed 65 million years ago

85
Q

U1: During what eon/era did the birds first appear?

A

Menzoic

86
Q

U1: t/f is this in the correct sequential order: Precambrian, Mesozoic, Paleozoic ?

A

false, Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic

87
Q

U1: describe the genotypes of the Hb (sub s) and Hb (sub a) .

A
  • Heterozygous individuals are protected from malaria.
  • Homozygous individuals Hb(s), will develop sickle-cell disease.
  • Homozygous Hb(a) individuals are normal allele.
88
Q

U2: What do organisms need to be able to do?

A

Intake, process(excrete), reproduce, move, coordinate and control .

89
Q

U2: What is diffusion?

A

Substances in solution tend to move down their concentration gradient

90
Q

U2: What is Osmosis?

A

the movement of water down its concentration gradient

91
Q

U2: Define the following terms: Osmolarity, Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Osmolarity-is determined by the combined concentration of all solutes in a solution.
Hyperosmotic- means that a solution has a higher concentration than another.
Hypoosmotic- means that a solution has a lower concentration than another.
Isosmotic-means two solutions have the same osmolarity

92
Q

U2: What is the result of the following cell states: Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic, Isosmotic.

A

Hyperosmotic: Net flow of water out of cell; cell shrinks
Hypoosmotic: Net flow of water into cell; cell swells or even bursts
Isosmotic: No net flow fluctuation

93
Q

U2: What is water potential and what is it determined by?

What do these have in common?

A
  • tendency for water to flow
  • Hydrostatic pressure, Osmotic pressure, and Cohesion/Adhesion forces
  • there all negative potentials
94
Q

U2: what are these linked with: Matrix, solute, pressure (potentials)?

A

Matrix Potential- cohesion and adhesion
Solute Potential-Osmotic pressure
Pressure Potential- Hydrostatic pressure

95
Q

U2: Fick’s Law can be used to predict rates of diffusion except in cases with particles that are ?

A

Charged

96
Q

U2: Describe the Phospholipid bilayer:

A

Hydrophilic and lipophobic head and Hydrophobic and lipophilic tail

97
Q

U2: What is anther word for the use channel proteins?

A

Permeation

98
Q

U2: What is anther word for diffusion facilitated Carrier Protein.)

A

Facilitated Diffusion.

99
Q

U2: Uniport vs. Antiport

A

Uni- active transport transport in one direction

anti- moves in two directions and uses an electrochemical gradient.

100
Q

U2: What is secondary active transport?

A

When a ion moves back into the cell via a symporter and the created electrochemical gradient.

101
Q

U2: What does primary active transport require?

A

Atp via an Atp pump

102
Q

U2: What moves through a phospholipid bilayer easiest?

A

small and chargeless molecules move through the easiest.

103
Q

U2: t/f channel proteins move particles against their electrochemical gradient?

A

F, carrier proteins

104
Q

U2: Who is the Father of modern animal physiology?

A

Claude Bernard

105
Q

U2: What does ECF consist of?

A

Blood and interstitial fluid

106
Q

U2: What are the geometric consequences of getting bigger?

A
  • Increased distance between surface and center
  • Decreased SA to Volume ratio.
  • Resulting in: Decreased diffusion rates and
107
Q

U2: How to calculate volume and SA

A
  • SA: 6 x Length squared

- V: L cubic

108
Q

U2: What does increased surface complexity lead to?

A

Increased area for diffusion.

109
Q

U2: What do plant cells contain?

A

Cell wall, vacuoles and chloroplast.

110
Q

U2: What is the plant cell wall composed of?

A

Mostly cellulose

111
Q

U2: What is the difference between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Primary- Young and growing, it is composed of pectin.

Secondary- rigid and old cells, it is composed of lignin

112
Q

U2: What is the layer located in between the primary and secondary cell wall?

A

Lamella.

113
Q

U2: What are the openings in primary wall cells?

A

-Plasmodesma

114
Q

U2: What does the central vacuole?

A

Contains ( Enzymes, salts, pigments, alkaloids, other chemicals) used to create turgor pressure.

115
Q

U2: roots vs shoots

A

roots- Below ground, they serve to uptake water and nutrients as well as anchor the plant.
shoots- Above ground (stems, leaves, flowers) , they serve to harvest light, exchange gas, make sugars, and reproduce.

116
Q

U2: Describe the function of lateral roots, root hairs, root cap:

A

Lateral roots- branch off to increase root reach
Root hairs- absorb water/nutrients
Root cap-protects growing tip

117
Q

U2: what is the purpose of pneumatophores?

A

provide gas exchange

118
Q

U2: What is the leaf?

A

Sunlight harvesting organ

119
Q

U2: What process does building a plant body require?

A

Growth

Differentiation: cells assume a particular identity and function.

120
Q

U2: Where do new cells arrive?

A

Meristems

121
Q

U2: new meristematic cells are (blank)

A

Totipotent

122
Q

U2: Apical vs Lateral meristems:

A

-produce primary tissues and root tips (length)
{RAM} {Sam}
-Produce secondary tissues (width)
{vascular and cork cambium}

123
Q

U2: How do cells expand?

A
  • loosen’s up

- Generates turgor pressure

124
Q

U2: How do cells generate turgor pressure?

A
  1. transport solute into vacuoles

2. water moves in via osmosis

125
Q

U2: What is intermediate growth?

A

Plant can continue to grow new tissue.

126
Q

U2: What are three types plant tissues?

A

dermal- Epidermis of the plant
Vascular- xylem (water conduction) and phloem (food conduction)
ground- Bulk of plant, designated for storage.

127
Q

U2: What is the purpose of cuticle?

A

Prevent water loss and pathogen entry

128
Q

U2: What do the stomata do and what do they have?

A

Pours that allow gas exchange, and they have guard cells.

129
Q

U2: What do the guard cells do?

A

use turgor pressure to open and close stomata.

130
Q

U2: What do trichomes do?

A

Hair-like projections to protect and defend.

131
Q

U2: What are the major types of ground tissue?

A

Parenchyma-
Collenchyma-
Sclerenchyma-

132
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in xylem and what do they do?

A

Tracheid’s- found in all vascular plants

Vessel elements- in angiosperms and gnetophytes only.

133
Q

U2: What are the two types of conducting cells in phloem and what do they do?

A

Sieve tube elements- transport vessels

Companion cells- metabolic support for STE’s

134
Q

U2: what does secondary growth do?

A

Produces wood and length.

135
Q

U2: in growth which vascular tissue comes first?

A

-xylem before phloem

136
Q

U2: How does water move through xylem of the plant?

A

Via capillary action and transpiration.

137
Q

U2: What shows the lowest water potential when a plant is undergoing transpiration?

A

The leaves

138
Q

U2: How high can transpiration can lift water up?

A

100 meters

139
Q

U2: What is transpiration?

A

Evaporation from mesophyll surfaces in leaves.

140
Q

U2: Why does water movement occur?

A
  1. Transpiration lowers water potential
  2. Cohesion-tension pulls water up xylem
  3. Water is taken up by roots
141
Q

U2: What does increased sunlight do to transpiration and stomata?

A

increased transpiration rates and increased stomata openings.

142
Q

U2: How is water loss reduced by?

A
  • reduced leaf SA
  • Thickened cuticle
  • reduced stomata
  • derived forms of photosynthesis
143
Q

U2: What is translocation?

A

Movement of sugars by bulk flow in sap.

144
Q

U2: What is phloem loading?

A
  1. move sugars in the phloem

2. generate high water potential in phloem

145
Q

U2: What is phloem unloading?

A
  1. Move sugars out of phloem

2. Generate low water potential in phloem

146
Q

U2: what is the source of plants biological materials?

A

Co2

147
Q

U2: inorganic vs organic soil.

A

Inorganic: rocks
Organic: (humus) consisting of dead organismal tissue and animal waste.

148
Q

U2: What is topsoil?

A

Crucial for healthy and stable plant community.

149
Q

U2: what is the zone of maturation?

A

the site where new root hairs absorb the most nutrient uptake.

150
Q

U2: What and why does nitrogen fixation occur?

A
  • Nitrates and Ammonia

- This is the way the plant can absorb nitrogen

151
Q

U2: What is symbiotic bacteria?

A

Bacteria like ( Rhizobia and legumes) that has a mutualistic relationship with plants.

152
Q

U2: What are nodules?

A

Infected root tissues that bacteria grow into.

153
Q

U2: What do clay heavy soils hold?

A

Lots of nutrients

154
Q

U2: What allows for nutrient uptake in plants?

A

Proton pumps create an electrochemical gradient, drawing in nutrients.

155
Q

U2: what is transduction in plants?

A

Receptor cells convert sensory information into chemical messages.

156
Q

U2: What are the hormones involved with Growth, Growth ending, stress respones:

A

GP: Auxin, Gibberellins
GE: ethylene
SR: abscisic acid

157
Q

U2: What tropism?

A

Reaction of growth in response to tropism

158
Q

U2: What is morphogenesis:

A

None directional growth response to a stimulus.

159
Q

U2:Phototrophism, Thigmotropism, Gravitropsim:

A
  • response to light
  • response to touch
  • response to gravity
160
Q

U2: Thigmomorphogenesis:

A

change in shape due to mechanical perturbation.

161
Q

U2: What is the Krummholz effect?

A

Growing in a direction to response to a wind.

162
Q

U2: Nastic movements?

A

A non directional response

163
Q

U2: Thigmonastic:

A

Movement is a response to touch

164
Q

U2: Nyctinasty:

A

Movements based on time of day

165
Q

U2: What is the coleoptile?

A

The first part of the shoot to emerge in a monocot seedling. Where the light is sensed.

166
Q

U2: How does the coleoptile communicate its message to the rest of the plant?

A

Via water soluble chemical.

167
Q

U2: Why is there a greater growth on the shady side of plants?

A

Increased auxin on that side via lateral transport.

168
Q

U2: What is the difference between hypersensitive response and systemic acquired resistance:

A

Hypersensitive: Localized defense acting against pathogens, and is triggered by Hr.
Systemic acquired response: Whole plant defense activated via MeSA.

169
Q

U2: What is the herbivore resistance in plants?

A
  • Damaged cells release a hr called systemin.
  • Systemin causes jasmonic acid to be produced in -cells, which promotes transcription of proteinase.
  • Limiting digestion.
170
Q

U2: What are volatile chemical messengers?

A

Gasses released by plants alerting them that there is potential danger nearby.

171
Q

U2: how is light detected in plants?

A

phototrophins, or PHOT1 and PHOT2 receptors

172
Q

U2: How do plants perceive gravity?

A

amyloplasts

173
Q

U2: Plants that are fully parasitic often lack (blank)?

A

well-developed leaves.

174
Q

U2: what do statoliths do?

A

control the distribution of auxin

175
Q

U2: What do dry roots release?

A

Abscisic acid (promotes stomatal closing)

176
Q

U2: What is the alternation of generations?

A

In plants both haploid and diploid stages occur in multicellular forms.

177
Q

U2: Describe the process of sporophyte to sporophyte.

A

Sporophyte (2n) - spores (n) - Gametophyte (n) - gametes (n via mitosis) - zygote - sporophyte.

178
Q

U2: name a sporophyte and gametophyte dominated life cycle.

A

Spor- flowering plant

Gameto- moss

179
Q

U2: sexual vs asexual reproduction:

A

Sexual: sporo dominated and alternation of generations
Asexual: clonal copies of parents.

180
Q

U2: How do flowers sexually reproduce?

A

angiosperms

181
Q

U2: describe the function of the following: Sepals, petals,

A

Sepal- Outer-most modified leaves.

Petals- Used to draw in pollinators

182
Q

U2: What is and what does the stamen consist of?

A

-Anthers and filaments

Produce pollen and Elevate anthers

183
Q

U2:What is and what does the carpels consist of?

A

Stigma: Receives pollen
Style: Elevate stigma
Ovary: Contains ovules

184
Q

U2: What do the carpels fuse together to make?

A

The pistil

185
Q

U2: Describe pollen development?

A

Microsporocytes(2n) - Microspores - Pollen

186
Q

U2: in angiosperms what does the ovule become?

A

fruit

187
Q

U2: What is scarification?

A

The physical abuse required to germinate.

188
Q

U2: Bee pollinated?

A

Bright colors (not red)

189
Q

U2: Fly pollinated?

A

dark and foul in oder

190
Q

U2: Moth pollinated

A

Opens at night and usually white

191
Q

U2: hummingbird pollinated?

A

Long floral tube, usually red orange or yellow

192
Q

U2: wind pollinated?

A

Pollen is lightweight and not sticky

Biology Final-A (4 decks)

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