Final 9,10,11,12 Flashcards
1
Q
The prescribing physician should keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for _______years.
A
Two years
2
Q
A physician prescribes a narcotic pain medication for a woman with breast cancer. A copy of this order should be filed in the __________________________.
A
Patient Record
3
Q
The role of the medical assistant concerning compliance with __________regulations is to remind the physician of license renewal dates, to keep accurate records for scheduled drugs, to maintain an accurate inventory and inventory records, and to ensure the security of scheduled drugs kept in the office.
A
DEA
4
Q
A physician prescribes cough medicine with codeine for a patient with a persistent cough. This drug belongs to the category known as Schedule _______drug.
A
V
5
Q
Schedule III refers to nonnarcotic _________________________system depressants.
A
Central Nervous
6
Q
A drug such as Xanax® has a low potential for abuse and has a currently accepted medical uses in the United States. This drug is an example of a Schedule ______drug.
A
IV
7
Q
One criteria for the potential for abuse is a significant diversion of the drug from legitimate drug channels, such as might occur when heroin is sold on the street. This type of drug is categorized as a Schedule _______drug.
A
I
8
Q
Schedule _________drugs have been used strictly for research.
A
I
9
Q
A pharmacist ________________drugs by delivering controlled substances in some type of bottle, box, or other container to a patient.
A
Dispenses
10
Q
The federal law giving authority to the Drug Enforcement Administration to regulate the sale and use of drugs is known as the __________________________________.
A
Controlled Subtance Act
11
Q
The ________________________________, a branch of the Department of Justice, regulates the sale and use of drugs, including controlled substances.
A
Drug Enforcement Act
12
Q
In 2001, Bayer Pharmaceuticals withdrew Baycol, a popular statin, from the market when data showed that 31 patients taking Baycol had died from a severe muscle disorder called rhabdomyolysis. This type of drug recall is under the jurisdiction of the agency known as the _____________________________________.
A
Food and Drug Administartion
13
Q
The _____________________________________, an agency within the Department of Health and Human Services, tests and approves drugs before releasing them for public use.
A
Food and Drug Administartion
14
Q
A patient attempts to hide her battered face from a physician by wearing make-up and sunglasses. This is an example of a(n) ____________________sign of abuse.
A
Behavioral
15
Q
As of February 2011, 35 states recognized the death of an unborn child, in certain circumstances, as ______________________.
A
Homicide
16
Q
The _________________________________Act, also called Laci and Conner’s Law, is a 2004 federal law that provides for the prosecution of anyone who causes injury to or the death of a fetus in utero.
A
Unborn Victims Of violence
17
Q
A physician is treating a mentally challenged adult patient who was the victim of bullying in a group home. This patient may be protected under some states as a _________________________________.
A
Vuneral Adult
18
Q
The 1987 Amendments to the Older Americans Act defines elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation, but does not deal with______________________.
A
Enforcement
19
Q
The ___________________ Act created the Administration on Aging and outlined 10 objectives aimed at preserving the rights and dignity of older citizens.
A
Older Americans
20
Q
Unlike cases of child abuse, most state laws do not specifically require a physician to report______________ abuse, unless the victim admits his or her injuries were the result of it.
A
Spousal
21
Q
A physician suspects a child patient is a victim of child abuse. The ___________________________________Act requires this physician to report the abuse.
A
Child and abuse prevention
22
Q
The _____________________________________Act requires physicians and other health care providers administering vaccines to report adverse events following vaccination and to keep permanent records on vaccines administered and health problems occurring after vaccination.
A
National Childhood Vaccine injury
23
Q
A physician administers a vaccination to a child who has an adverse reaction to the vaccine. Compensation for this child may be provided by the ____________________ _______________________________Program.
A
National Childhood Vaccine Compesation
24
Q
Federal law requires ______________________________ prepared by the CDC, be handed out to recipients, parents, or legal representatives of certain vaccines.
A
Vaccine Info statements
25
The _____________________________________________program is a no-fault system designed to compensate those individuals, or families of individuals, who have been injured by childhood vaccines.
National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP)
26
When children reach school age, most states ask for proof of __________________ for children entering the public school system for the first time.
Vaccination
27
In some states epilepsy must be reported to determine an individual's eligibility to ______________________________.
Drive a Vehicle
28
One noncommunicable disease that must be reported in some states to determine environmental causes is ________________________.
Cancer
29
On April 4, 2003, at the request of the Centers for Disease Control, President George W. Bush signed Executive Order 13295, adding ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬_______________________________ to the list of communicable diseases for which federal isolation and quarantine is authorized.
Severe Acute respiratory Syndrome
30
Most of the 50 states now have laws that require individuals infected with _______________________to notify past and present sexual partners.
HIV
31
A physician is treating a patient diagnosed with gonorrhea. In most states, this type of __________________ transmitted infection must be reported whenever diagnosed.
Sexually
32
Diseases that may have mandated reporting if a higher than normal incidence occurs are influenza and streptococcal and _________________ infections.
Staphylococcal
33
__________________diseases that are most likely to have mandated reporting by state statutes include: diphtheria, cholera, meningococcal meningitis, plague, smallpox, tuberculosis, anthrax, HIV and AIDS, brucellosis, infectious and serum hepatitis, leprosy, malaria, rubeola, poliomyelitis, psittacosis, rheumatic fever, rubella, typhoid fever, trichinosis, and tetanus.
Communicable
34
Since enforcing public health laws is vital to the health of individuals within communities, the states have enforcement power granted through each state's ______________________.
Constitution
35
The state and federal government both mandate that patient medical records be kept confidential. Health care professionals must follow whichever guidelines are most stringent when keeping medical records. This sharing of power of the governments is called______________________.
Federalism
36
The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from the ____________Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, included in the Bill of Rights.
Tenth
37
A person is trained to help identify a criminal, victim, and others involved in a crime. This person is called a crime scene _______________________.
Investigator
38
___________________ is a division of medicine that incorporates law and medicine and involves medical issues or medical proof at trials having to do with malpractices, crimes, and accidents.
Forenics
39
A ________________________ is a physician, frequently a pathologist, who investigates suspicious or unexplained deaths in a community.
Medical Examiner
40
If a death did not occur under suspicious circumstances, consent from _________________________ or a legally responsible party must be obtained for an autopsy to be performed.
Next of kin
41
A person dies as a victim of a fatal shooting in an attempted robbery. In this case, the ___________________or medical examiner must sign the death certificate.
Coroner
42
A person dies with no discernable cause of death. In this case a(n) _______________ or postmortem examination may be performed to determine the cause or to obtain physiological evidence.
Autopsy
43
After a person is pronounced dead, the _______________physician must complete the medical portion of the certificate of death.
Attending
44
A midwife nurse delivers babies in patient's homes. The person responsible for filing the birth certificates for these babies is the ____________________________
Midwife nurse
45
An obstetrician delivering babies in a hospital knows that all live births must be reported to the _________________________.
State registar
46
A U.S. citizen is applying for a passport to travel. A copy of this person's ____________________________is a permanent record required in this process.
Birth Certificate
47
To assess population trends and needs, state and federal governments collect _______________________.
Vital Statistics
48
On what type of scheduled prescriptions are no refills allowed?
Schedule 2
49
Which of the following is an example of a Schedule V drug?
Cough medicine with codeine
50
A physician prescribes pentobarbital for a patient who is experiencing seizures. Phenobarbital is an example of what schedule of drug?
Schedule II
51
Which of the following schedules of drugs are used strictly for research?
Schedule I
52
A physician issues a medical prescription for a patient. What is the term for this practice?
Prescribed
53
General regulations mandated by the Controlled Substances Act require physicians who purchase, prescribe, dispense, administer, or in any way handle controlled drugs to follow certain procedures. Which of the following accurately describes one of these procedures
The physician must keep records concerning the administering or dispensing of a controlled drug on file for two years.
54
Which of the following agencies tests and approves drugs before releasing them for public use?
Food and Drug Administration
55
A health care practitioner is treating a female patient who presents with signs of abuse. Her husband is standing protectively nearby. Which of the following is a recommended initial action when treating this patient?
Place a sign with tear-off hotline numbers for battered women in the restroom.
56
A health care practitioner suspects a female patient has been abused by her husband. Which of the following type of questions/statements might be used to encourage the patient to
Has someone harmed you?"
57
Which of the following is an example of a behavioral sign of abuse?
Illogical explanation for injuries
58
As of February 2011, 35 states recognized the death of an unborn child, in certain circumstances as which of the following?
Homicide
59
Which of the following victims was the Laci and Conner's Law passed to protect?
Fetuses
60
Which of the following is an example of a vulnerable adult who many states have passed laws to protect?
A mentally challenged adult
61
Which of the following acts created the Administration on Aging and outlined 10 objectives aimed at preserving the rights and dignity of older citizens?
The Older Americans Act
62
To help prevent violence against children, in 1974 Congress passed the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act, mandating the reporting of cases of child abuse. Which of the following is a provision of this act?
Failure to report suspected cases of child abuse may be a misdemeanor.
63
Which of the following cases in most states is not mandated as a reportable injury?
A physician suspects spousal abuse; however, the patient does not admit it occurred.
64
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act requires physicians and other health care providers administering vaccines to keep permanent records on vaccines administered and health problems occurring after vaccination. Which of the following information does not need to be documented in the patient's permanent medical record?
Location of the vaccine manufacturer
65
Which of the following children may be declared exempt from vaccination programs on medical grounds?
Children with egg allergies
66
Several years ago a British physician named Andrew Wakefield published speculation that a relationship between the MMR vaccines and what disorder in children existed?
Autism
67
Which of the following children would be most likely to receive an influenza vaccination annually?
A child who has asthma
68
Who decides who will get compensation as a result of problems caused by vaccines?
U.S. Court of Federal Claims
69
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 created the National Vaccine Injury Compensation Program (VICP). For which of the following was this legislation created to protect?
Vaccine manufacturers
70
Immunization records are confidential and anyone who fails to protect this confidentiality is guilty of which of the following?
Misdemeanor
71
A physician injects a drug containing a vaccination into the body of a patient. What is the term for this process?
Administer
72
In some states, certain noncommunicable diseases must also be reported, to allow public health officials to track causes and/or treatment or to otherwise protect the public's health and safety. Which of the following is one of these diseases?
Epilepsy
73
Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease that has largely been eradicated in the United States?
Smallpox
74
For which of the following individuals would requirements for reporting communicable disease be more stringent?
A waitress
75
On April 4, 2003, at the request of the Centers for Disease Control, President George W. Bush signed Executive Order 13295, adding which of the following diseases to the list of communicable diseases for which federal isolation and quarantine is authorized
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
76
hich of the following persons with a sexually transmitted disease would be required by most states to tell a sexual partner of this disease?
A person with HIV
77
What is the main reason health care practitioners are required to report sexually transmitted infections (STIs) to the state health department?
To treat others who may be infected
78
Certain sexually transmitted infections (STIs) must be reported whenever diagnosed. Which of the following is not a reportable STI?
Cervical cancer
79
Under each state's public health statutes, physicians, other health care practitioners, and anyone who has knowledge of a case must report to county or state health agencies the occurrence of certain diseases that, if left unchecked, could threaten the health and well being of the population. Which of the following diseases is most likely to have mandated reporting by the state?
Diphtheria
80
Which of the following examples of public health statutes is enforced by citations for noncompliance?
Smoking bans
81
Which of the following is an example of a state law that requires behavioral changes on the part of the public?
Promoting the use of child safety seats
82
The state of Virginia checks all restaurants to make sure the conditions are sanitary. This is an example of which of the following?
Public health statutes
83
Which of the following is an example of federalism?
A state retains police powers not expressively granted to the federal government.
84
The power of the states to initiate public health statutes is inferred from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution, included in the Bill of Rights?
Tenth Amendment
85
Which of the following accurately describes the role of the coroner or medical examiner in the event of a violent death?
A medical examiner who is frequently a pathologist may order and perform an autopsy.
86
A death has occurred under normal circumstances and the body released to the funeral home. Who is responsible for filing the death certificate with the state?
The mortician
87
A person dies as a victim of a carjacking. Who is responsible for signing the death certificate for this individual?
The coroner
88
In which of the following cases would it be legal for a physician to sign a death certificate?
If the physician attended to the deceased before the death
89
Which of the following is not information that is usually found on a death certificate?
Date of birth
90
Who completes the medical portion of a death certificate after a person is pronounced dead?
Attending physician
91
Generally, birth and death certificates are not required for fetal deaths occurring prior to what week of gestation?
20th
92
An obstetrician who delivers babies knows that all live births need to be recorded. To which of the following agencies should these statistics be reported?
State registrar
93
A physician is completing a death certificate for a patient who died of cancer. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for this procedure?
Do not use rubber stamps or initials in place of signatures.
94
Who is responsible for gathering and filing many of the vital statistics collected by the state and federal government?
Health Care Practitioner
95
The state and federal governments collect vital statistics in the U.S. including births, deaths, marriages, divorces, and changes in civil status. What is the main purpose for collecting this information?
To assess population trends and needs
96
Prior to government regulations a physician who owned a physician's office could hire a nurse with a traditional "employment-at-will" concept in place. Which of the following best describes this type of employment?
The employer or employee can end the employment anytime for any reason.
97
A hospital administer fires a nurse and cannot provide a legal reason for the dismissal. This is an example of which of the following?
Wrongful discharge
98
Which of the following may be used as evidence of just cause should a wrongful discharge lawsuit be filed by an employee against an employer?
The employee is sexually harassing another employee.
99
An employee is fired for acting for "the common good" by challenging workplace policies that put patients at risk for harm. What is the term for the common law concept of wrongful discharge when an employee has acted for the "common good"?
Public policy
100
A female nurse is fired because she is an "older adult" and the employer claims she is not up-to-date on current procedures. This would be considered what kind of form?
Discrimination
101
Which of the following acts makes sexual discrimination and sexual harassment illegal?
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
102
The1980 Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) defined sexual harassment. Which of the following is a condition that must be met for sexual harassment to occur?
Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance.
103
The first two parts of the 1980 Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) definition of sexual harassment prohibit quid pro quo sexual harassment. Which of the following is an example of this type of harassment?
A surgical resident is offered opportunities to scrub in on a procedure if he dates the surgeon.
104
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 addresses discrimination in hiring and firing. To which of the following businesses does this act apply?
Businesses with 15 or more employees working at least 20 weeks of the year
105
Which of the following federal laws makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities?
Wagner Act of 1935
106
A hospital administrator sets up programs to give preferential treatment to minority persons who did not have opportunities given to them in the past. What is the term for this policy?
Affirmative action
107
Which of the following is a provision of the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
Employees may collect punitive damages for discrimination.
108
Which of the following wage and hour laws provides for overtime pay and a minimum wage?
1938 Fair Labor Standards Act
109
The Family Leave Act of 1991 applies to employers with 50 or more employees and mandates allowing employees to take unpaid leave time for certain conditions. Which of the following conditions is not covered by this act
Recovering from substance abuse
110
OSHA was passed in 1970 and has had a major impact on the operation of health care facilities. What is the major concern covered by this legislation?
Safety in the workplace
111
All employers must know the OSHA standards that apply to their business. Which of the following is the best source of information for these standards?
The Federal Register
112
An OSHA inspector finds that a construction company is operating under unsafe conditions that could endanger the lives of employees. What is the initial action that would be taken by the inspector?
Ask the employer to voluntarily remedy the situation.
113
Which of the following is the second highest priority of workplace inspections?
Investigation of fatalities or accidents
114
Which of the following occurs when an OSHA compliance officer informs an employer that he is subject to "Failure to Abate" alleged violations?
The business is subject to daily fines.
115
Many states have employee right-to-know laws. What employee right do these laws protect?
Protection from unsafe work environments
116
Increasing health care practitioners' awareness of risk, improving work practices and appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and reducing injuries and illnesses are goals of which of the following OSHA mandates?
Hazard Communication Standard
117
OSHA standards for medical settings and health care workers are often influenced by or associated with guidelines issued by which of the following organizations?
CDC
118
Employees in medical facilities often use hazardous materials in their workplace. Which of the following is a guideline for safely handling these materials?
The employer must provide a Material Safety Data Sheet for each hazardous chemical.
119
Which of the following specifically states that any equipment that may pose a health risk is included as a hazard?
General Duty Clause
120
Which of the following acts mandated that employers maintain a sharps injury log and involved nonmanagerial employees in selecting safer medical devices?
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
121
By authority of the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, OSHA can levy fines for violations leading to employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens, based on guidelines issued by the CDC. Which of the following is a CDC Guideline for Universal Precautions for Hospitals?
Decontaminate work surface when spills occur and daily when work is completed.
122
Which of the following is an OSHA guideline for disposal of medical wastes?
Dispose of chemicals in a glass or metal container.
123
Each employer who is subject to OSHA record-keeping requirements must maintain a log of all occupational injuries and illnesses. How long should logs of occupational injuries and illnesses be kept?
Five years
124
Which of the following is not a requirement of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)?
Follow maximum quality standards for lab testing.
125
Federal and state workers' compensation laws establish procedures for compensating workers who are injured on the job. Which of the following accurately describes an aspect of these laws?
The injured employee can file a claim with the government instead of suing.
126
An employee of a medical facility is injured on the job and files for workers' compensation. Which of the following types of state compensation benefits would be available to this injured worker?
Permanent disability indemnity in the form of weekly cash payments
127
A hospital employee is injured on the job. What is the initial action that should be taken by this employee following the injury?
A hospital employee is injured on the job. What is the initial action that should be taken by this employee following the injury? Report the injury to a supervisor.
128
An employee who is laid off from his job files for unemployment insurance. Which of the following accurately describes the management of unemployment funds available to this worker?
In all but a few states the total cost is born by the employer.
129
Out-of-work employees should contact a state unemployment office to determine whether they qualify for unemployment benefit. Which of the following employees would most likely qualify for unemployment benefits?
An employee is laid off due to downsizing.
130
Which of the following is needed for a claimant to file for unemployment benefits?
Wage records for the past 18 months
131
Under which of the following acts do employers contribute to a fund that is paid out to eligible unemployed workers?
FUTA
132
A hospital administrator is interviewing employees to staff a new emergency department. Which of the following information can an employer legally ask of a prospective employee?
Education
133
Which of the following is not an area of questioning appropriate for the employer to ask a job applicant?
Birth date
134
An employer asks a job candidate how long she has been married. What is the best response of the job candidate?
May I ask how this relates to the position?"
135
An employer of a large medical facility is interviewing nurses to fill several vacant positions. Which of the following is a recommended guideline for conducting the interviews?
Stick to a list of questions that relate specifically to the job description
136
In some medical offices and other workplace locations where employees are responsible for collecting fees and handling financial matters, prospective employees may be asked whether they are bondable. What does this term mean?
An employee can be insured in case he or she embezzles funds
137
Which of the following information is not included in a new employee's paperwork to comply with federal and state regulations?
Marital status
138
A bonded employee in a medical office embezzles money from the employer. In most situations, from whom will the money ultimately be recovered?
The employee
139
The law requires employers to withhold specified amounts from employees' pay and to keep records of and send these sums to the proper income tax center. Which of the following is true regarding these taxes for persons who are self-employed?
Health care practitioners who are self-employed do not have to deduct withholding.
140
Which of the following information should not be included on an employee's W-2 form?
Amounts deducted for life insurance
141
A concept of employment whereby either the employer or the employee can end the employment at any time, for any reason is called
Employment-at-will
142
An employer fires an employee without having just cause. This employee may have cause for litigation under the precedent for _________________________.
Wrongful discharge
143
An employer orally promises an employee a certain position and salary within the company and later fires the employee without just cause. This oral promise may be used as ______________________should the employee file a wrongful discharge against the employer.
Evidence
144
An employer fires an employee for embezzling money from the company. This legal reason for termination of employment is called ______________________.
Just cause
145
The common law concept of wrongful discharge when an employee has acted for the "common good" is called ________________________.
Public policy
146
An employer fails to hire a qualified candidate for a nursing position based on her race. This action is termed ____________________________.
Discrimination
147
An employee becomes a "whistleblower" after witnessing unsafe practices in the workplace. The employer fires the employee and the employee sues for wrongful discharge. This is an example of the common law concept of wrongful discharge known as ____________________________.
Public Policy
148
Several employees in a research lab are fired for joining a union. This is an example of __________________________.
Discrimination
149
Most states have passed laws that add to the federal list of prohibited discriminatory employment practices. Title VII of the ____________________________ makes sexual discrimination illegal.
Civil rights Act
150
The agency that defined sexual harassment is the 1980 _____________________________________________.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
151
A physician tells the nurse working for him that she will get a raise if she goes to dinner with him. This is an example of _________________________sexual harassment.
Quid pro quo
152
The _______________________ of 1935 makes it illegal to discriminate in hiring or firing because of union membership or organizational activities.
Wagner Act
153
A clinic employs 20 people working 40 weeks of the year. This employer is known to have discriminated against several employees based on their race. This business is in violation of the _____________________________of 1964.
Civil Rights act
154
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 specifically prevents federal judges from using __________________plans—programs intended to remedy the effects of past discrimination—just to correct an imbalance between the percentage of minority persons working for a specific employer and the percentage of qualified minority members in the workplace.
Affirmative Action
155
Executives of a large pharmaceutical company accused of discrimination are ordered to utilize ________________________ plans to hire a certain quota of minority persons.
Affirmative action
156
Title VII created the ________________________________________ to enforce Title VII provisions, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, the Equal Pay Act, and Section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act.
U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
157
An older adult who was fired files an age discrimination lawsuit based on the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967. To prove age discrimination, this person must be age __________or older.
40
158
The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 applies to employers with federal contracts of $_________________ or more.
2,500
159
A nurse working for a physician's office is 6 months pregnant. The law making it illegal to fire her due to pregnancy is the __________________________________ of 1976.
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
160
A large manufacturing company may be mandated to make existing facilities and grounds wheelchair accessible under the ______________________________ Act of 1990.
Americans with Disabilities
161
A victim of discrimination receives damages for emotional stress related to incidents of discrimination. This right to collect damages for this type of emotional distress is guaranteed by the __________________________of 1991.
Civil Rights Act
162
A person tests positive for the Huntington Disease gene. The act protecting this person from discriminations in health insurance related to this disease is the __________________________________Act of 2008
Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
163
The hospital insurance program known as _____________________is administered by the 1935 Social Security Act.
Medicare
164
The act that provides for overtime pay and minimum wages for employees is the 1938 ______________________________Act.
Fair Labor Standards
165
A female physician working in a hospital setting determines that a male physician is receiving higher compensation for performing the same duties as she is. This practice is prohibited under the __________________________Act of 1963.
Equal Pay
166
Employers cannot prevent employees from collecting ________________________ from plans covered by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974.
Retirement benefits
167
An employee in a medical research lab reports that his employer is not following procedures for properly disposing of hazardous materials. This whistleblower's job is protected by the ____________________________________________Act of 1970.
Occupational Safety and Health
168
A nurse working in a large hospital decides to take unpaid leave to care for an adopted baby. This right is guaranteed by the __________________Act of 1991.
Family Leave
169
In the 1960's job-related disabilities and injuries caused more lost workdays in U.S. companies than did strikes. As a result of increasing concern over such statistics, in 1970 Congress passed the ___________________________________Act to provide for workplace safety.
Occupational Safety and Health
170
OSHA Standards cover four areas of employment—general industry, maritime, construction, and ___________________.
Agriculture
171
A construction company has not met the code sets for a project and places employees in imminent danger for injury in the workplace. OSHA would give inspection of this site ____________priority.
Top
172
_________priority for OSHA inspections goes to formal employee complaints of unsafe or unhealthful working conditions and to referrals from any source about a workplace hazard.
Third
173
Last on the list of priorities for OSHA inspections are ____________________ inspections.
Follow-up
174
An employer fails to correct an unsafe condition in the workplace environment as mandated by OSHA. Upon follow-up inspection, the OSHA compliance officer would inform the employer that he or she is subject to "__________________________" alleged violations.
Failure to Abate
175
State laws that allow employees access to information about toxic or hazardous substances, employer duties, employee rights, and other workplace health and safety issues are called ________________________laws.
Right-to-know
176
An OSHA standard intended to increase health care practitioners' awareness of risks, improve work practices and appropriate use of personal protective equipment, and reduce injuries and illnesses in the workplace is the _______________________________ Standard.
Hazard Communication
177
Employers must obtain and keep on file a ____________________________for each hazardous chemical in use in the office.
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
178
An x-ray machine that may pose a health risk for employees using it is included as a hazard under the ___________________________of the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS).
General Duty Clause
179
The Standard for Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories, or the ____________________________, further clarifies the proper handling of hazardous chemicals in medical laboratories.
Chemical Hygiene Plan
180
A medical facility takes steps to protect its employees from exposure to HIV and Hepatitis B virus as well as other blood borne pathogens. The regulation that mandates this protection is the ____________
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard
181
As mandated by the _________________________ Act, passed by Congress in 2000, the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, 29 CFR 1910.1030, was revised in 2001 to include new provisions requiring employers to maintain a sharps injury log and to involve nonmanagerial employees in selecting safer medical devices.
Needlestick Safety and Prevention
182
OSHA is conducting an inspection of hazardous medical wastes in a medical facility. Authority for this inspection is granted by the _____________________________Act.
Medical Waste Tracking
183
Each employer who is subject to OSHA record-keeping requirements must maintain a log of all occupational injuries and illnesses for _________years.
Five
184
A physician is performing a pelvic exam on a female patient. The physician is wearing protective equipment when performing the exam as recommended by the __________________________________ guidelines.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
185
The legislation that established minimum quality standards for all laboratory testing is the __________________________________ Act.
Clinical Laboratory Improvement
186
A custodian in a medical facility is injured while using chemicals to disinfect an operating room. The legislation passed to compensate workers injured on the job is the federal and state ______________________________ laws.
Workers' compensation
187
A large hospital is laying off employees due to financial cutbacks. These employees may apply for __________________________ funds for out-of-work employees.
Unemployment insurance
188
Former employees are denied unemployment compensation for three main reasons: (1) They quit their jobs without cause, (2) They were fired for misconduct, or (3) They are unemployed because of a _____________________.
Labor dispute
189
Under the ___________________________ Act, employers contribute to a fund that is paid out to eligible unemployed workers.
Federal Unemployment Tax
190
A job candidate is not hired based on his religion. This is an example of ____________________ in hiring
Discrimination
191
Questions concerning one's Social Security number, qualifications (including license or certificate), and _____________ experience may be asked in an interview
Job
192
An employer can purchase a ___________________ for a specific amount of money from an insurance carrier to protect the employer from embezzlement on the part of the employee
Surety bond
193
An employer is required to provide each employee with a Form W-2 ______________________ Statement by January 31 of each year.
Wage and tax
194
A health care practitioner is self-employed. This practitioner is required to make city, state, and federal income tax payments ___________ times a year.
four
195
Self-employed individuals must pay _____________________ via a self-employment tax percentage that is higher than the rate paid by individuals who are not self-employed.
Social Security taxes
196
Both children of a family with biological parents who have blue eyes also have blue eyes. What is the science that explains these similarities?
Genetics
197
A 40-year-old woman is tested for the apolipoprotein E—APOE—gene to prepare for her future years. What disease state does this gene represent?
Alzheimer's disease
198
A physician studies the science that accounts for natural differences and resemblances among organisms related by descent. What is the term for this science?
Genetics
199
Which of the following is an example of heredity?
A couple has a baby that has facial features similar to them
200
The combination of proteins called nucleotides that are arranged to make up each human is known as which of the following?
DNA
201
How many chromosomes are found inside the nucleus of every human cell except egg and sperm cells?
46
202
Which of the following do chromosomes carry that are responsible for all human characteristics from eye, skin, and hair color to height, body type, and intelligence?
Genes
203
How are the chromosomes that make up the human genome inherited from parents?
½ from the mother and ½ from the father
204
The Human Genome Project, funded by the U.S. government, was started in 1990. What was the purpose of this project?
To locate and map the location of all 46 genes
205
A gene that predisposes a woman to breast cancer has been discovered by scientists. Women who are tested to see if this gene is present are using what type of genetic testing?
Predictive
206
A woman who is pregnant opts for prenatal testing to see if harmful genes are present in her baby. Which of the following is used in this testing?
Amniotic fluid
207
Which of the following is an inherited condition that is often detected through amniocentesis?
Down syndrome
208
Which of the following is a newborn genetic test for a condition that if left untreated will lead to mental retardation?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
209
An African-American couple is having their baby screened for genetic diseases. Which of the following disease is most often diagnosed in African Americans?
Sickle cell anemia
210
Newborn screening tests are performed routinely to check for treatable, harmful genetic conditions or diseases, some of which may lead to mental retardation. Which of the following genetic diseases if found, wouldnot lead to mental retardation?
Elliptocytosis
211
A permanent change in DNA is the usual cause of genetic diseases. What is the term for this harmful effect?
Mutation
212
Mutations can involve one gene or more than one gene. Which of the following is an example of a genetic disorder involving more than one gene?
Diabetes
213
Which of the following examples of genetic disorders is caused from an abnormality in the number of whole chromosomes?
Down Syndrome
214
Many mutations occur in nuclear DNA, but diseases can also result from mutations in Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which multicelled organisms inherit mostly from mothers. Which of the following is an example of a mutation in Mitochondrial DNA?
Parkinson's disease
215
An obstetrician is caring for a young woman who wants to undergo genetic testing prior to becoming pregnant. What would be the best response to this patient?
Refer the woman to a qualified genetic counselor.
216
Harvard Medical School's Lisa N. Geller and her colleagues conducted a comprehensive and still often-quoted study throughout the 1990s. Partially due to this study, there are now laws in place to prevent:
Genetic discrimination
217
Which act, passed in 1996 prevents health insurers from denying coverage based on genetic information for individuals moving between group health insurance plans?
HIPAA
218
Scientists are able to manipulate DNA within the cells of plants, animals, and other organisms to ensure that certain advantageous traits will appear and be passed on, or that certain harmful trails are eliminated. What is the term for this process?
Genetic energeering
219
One type of genetic engineering that is extremely controversial is cloning. Which of the following statements accurately describes an aspect of this process?
A clone is genetically identical to the parent.
220
Which of the following is an objective of cloning farm animals?
To produce medically useful substances
221
Some cloned animals have lived normal life spans while others, like the famous Dolly the sheep, have died young, suffering from conditions usually associated with which of the following?
Aging
222
Which of the following animals are being cloned to grow a potential source of organs and tissue for transplanting into human patients?
Pigs
223
Transplanting animal tissues and organs into humans is called xenotransplantation. Which of the following is one difficulty making this process problematic
Animals cells produce sugar that human cells do not produce.
224
Which of the following accurately describes a proven aspect of animal cloning?
30% of cloned animals are born with "large-offspring syndrome."
225
Stem cells that develop into neuronal tissues could be used to treat patients with which of the following conditions/disorders?
Alzheimer's disease
226
Which of the following statements regarding stem cell use is true?
Embryonic stem cells have greater potential to treat a wider variety of diseases.
227
A physician is using somatic gene therapy for a patient with a severe genetic disorder. What is involved in this process?
nserting normal copies of the gene
228
Infertility is considered to be the failure to conceive in how many months or longer?
12 months
229
A fertility specialist brings an infertile couple's eggs and sperm together in a test tube and when fertilization occurs, he transplants the resulting embryo back into the female uterus. What is the term for this type of fertilization?
In vitro fertilization
230
Which of the following accurately describes the difference between a traditional and gestational surrogate mother?
A traditional surrogate is related to the fetus and the gestational surrogate is not
231
Many infertile couples resort to infertility treatments and surrogacy to produce a baby. Which of the following is true regarding this process?
There is not a large volume of case law related to surrogacy
232
A young infertile couple asks their physician about adopting a baby. Which of the following statements is true regarding the process of adoption
Any adult who shows the desire to be a fit parent may adopt a child.
233
An infertile couple who is adopting a child locates a birth mother and then asks an agency to take over the adoption process. This is an example of what type of adoption?
Identified adoption
234
Which of the following types of adoption generally involves placing children who have been orphaned or whose parents have lost or relinquished parental rights through abuse, abandonment, or inability to support?
Agency adoption
235
A state agency removes a 10-year-old male child from the home of parents who abused him. What is the name of the legal doctrine that allows the state to act in the best interest of the child?
Parens patriae
236
Which of the following legislations allows physicians to legally withhold treatment, including food and water, from infants who are chronically and irreversibly comatose?
Federal Child Abuse Amendment
237
A new mother leaves her infant daughter in a safe place at a nurse's station in a hospital. This mother is protected from legal prosecution or with reduced legal prosecution by what legislation?
Safe Haven Law
238
Which of the following is true regarding the legal rights of newborns in the United States
They are the same as for any other American citizen of any age.
239
A 17-year-old male teenager lives with his parents and meets the requirements to give informed consent to have his tonsils removed. Which of the following would this teenager be considered?
Mature minor
240
Which of the following is a right guaranteed to emancipated minors?
Right to privacy
241
A teenager who is pregnant receives an abortion without parental notice due to "judicial bypass." What does this term signify?
The teenager has obtained approval from a judge for the abortion without parental notification.
242
12. For which of the following reasons did pagan tribes begin the custom of covering the face of the deceased with a sheet?
They believed that the spirit of the deceased escaped through the mouth.
243
An early custom for mourners was to go barefoot and to wear sackcloth and ashes. What was the purpose of this practice?
To avoid making the dead envious
244
From which ancient custom do wakes held today originate?
Keeping watch over the deceased hoping life would return
245
What was the significance of placing a funeral wreath on a coffin in pagan times?
. What was the significance of placing a funeral wreath on a coffin in pagan times? Keeping the dead person's spirit within bounds
246
States have their own criteria for determining when death actually occurs, but most have adopted the definition of brain death proposed by which of the following?
Uniform Determination of Death Act
247
According to the Uniform Determination of Death Act, which of the following is a criteria for death?
Entire brain ceases to function
248
Persistent vegetative state(PVS) exists as a result of severe mental impairment, characterized by irreversible cessation of the higher functions of the brain, most often caused by damage to which of the following organs?
Cerebral Cortex
249
Technically, it can be said that death results from lack of which of the following?
Oxygen
250
A patient dies under suspicious conditions. Which of the following might occur to determine cause of this patient's death?
Autopsy
251
What may be the consequential result of autopsies performed in hospitals to confirm or correct clinical diagnoses?
Quality Assurance
252
Autopsies must be performed in cases in which the death is suspicious or due to homicide. Which of the following is true regarding current trends in performing autopsies?
A reason for fewer autopsies is the unavailability of pathologists in small hospitals.
253
A patient has been diagnosed with incurable lung cancer and it is determined that death is imminent. What type of care would best serve this patient?
Pallative
254
For which of the following patients would palliative care be most appropriate?
A 35-year-old male with incurable pancreatic cancer
255
Which of the following is not a goal of palliative care?
Using current research studies to effect a cure for a terminal illness
256
The Center to Advance Palliative Care, based in New York, provides information to help patients and their families receive care that addresses all of the patient's needs. According to the organization's statistics, what percent of U.S. hospitals provide palliative care?
58%
257
Traditionally, in educational programs for health care practitioners, courses of study have placed more emphasis on what type of care?
Curative
258
A physician suggests hospice care for a patient with aggressive brain cancer that is not responding to curative care. Which of the following is true about hospice care?
It is not designed to target the underlying disease process.
259
For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians usually must certify that they are not expected to live beyond how many months?
6
260
Which of the following correctly describes an aspect of hospice care?
Most in-home hospice programs are independently run.
261
A 1995 study published in the Journal of the American Medical Association (JAMA) found that nearly 4 out of every 10 terminally ill patients spend at least how many days in intensive care connected to life-sustaining machines?
10
262
The six-year Study to Understand Prognoses and Preferences for Outcomes and Risks of Treatment (SUPPORT) conducted by the Robert Wood Johnson Foundation in 1996, showed that more than what percent of people dying in hospitals suffered from uncontrolled pain, and that decisions to medicate were inappropriately timed?
50%
263
A 2010 British study that surveyed 8,500 physicians found that their religious beliefs often affected the quality of end-of-life care administered. According to this study, which of the following physicians would be most likely to discuss comfort care only for critically ill patients?
A physician who is an agnostic
264
Increasingly, schools that train health care providers are offering courses in thanatology. What is the focus of this course of study?
Death and psychological methods of coping with it
265
The right to die first became a matter for the courts to deliberate in 1976, with the death of whom?
Karen Ann Quinlan
266
The l989 Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act serves as a guideline for state legislatures in constructing laws addressing which of the following?
Advance directives
267
Which of the following state legislations was the first to permit physician-assisted suicide in certain circumstances?
Oregon's Death with Dignity Act
268
In 1992, which state became the 50th state to enact advance-directive legislation?
Pennsylvania
269
In 1967, what entity devised the original living will?
Euthanasia Society
270
A physician is caring for a patient who asks him "Can you help me die in peace?" The physician agrees to withhold medical treatment for this patient. This is an example of what type of Euthanasia?
Passive
271
The Patient Self-Determination Act was passed in 1990. What patient's concern did this legislation address?
Advance Directives
272
Which of the following is not considered an advance directive?
Voluntary suicide
273
Which of the following is the legal term for an advance directive that specifies an individual's end-of-life wishes for medical treatment without necessarily appointing a designee to make legal decisions for him or her?
Living will
274
How is a health care proxy different from a durable power of attorney?
A health care proxy can only make health care decisions.
275
Passed in 1984, what does the National Organ Transplant Act address?
Shortages of organ
276
Studies conducted by the United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) in 2004 found the increasing need for more donor organs a recurring theme, especially for which of the following types of transplants?
Kidneys
277
Over the decade from 1992 to 2002, the organ transplant waiting list increased by what percent?
150%
278
What was the goal of the Model for End-State Liver Disease (MELD)?
Put the sickest candidates on the top of the list.
279
Which of the following was the goal of the Organ Donation and Recovery Improvement Act, passed in 2004?
Increase organ donations.
280
What was the purpose of the creation of the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act?
To allow individuals to donate their bodies to science after death
281
Which of the following is one of the provisions of the Uniform Anatomical Gift Act?
Except in autopsies, the donor's rights override those of others.
282
Which of the following in not an organ that can be transplanted?
Brain
283
A person signs up to be an organ donor through his driver-licensing agency. Which of the following is true regarding the process of organ donation?
A donor's name is released to recipients only if both parties agree to it.
284
Which of the following statements best describes the term "grief"?
Grief is the human reaction to loss
285
What aspect of death and dying did the late Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD describe?
Coping methods of persons who are grieving
286
Which of the following is an example of a person who is experiencing the third stage of grief according to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, MD?
A person who is dying asks God to keep her alive to see the birth of her grandchild.
287
Which of the following occurs in Stage V of Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's grieving process?
Acceptance
288
Which of the following is a stage of grief described by Roberta Temes, PhD in her book, Solace: Finding Your Way Through Grief and Learning to Live Again (New York: Amacon Books, 2009)?
Disorganization
289
Which of the following is a recommendation for talking to a dying patient (adapted from "I Don't Know What to Say...": How to Help and Support Someone Who Is Dying (Little, Brown, 1989), by oncologist Dr. Robert Buckman)?
Do not give unsolicited advice because it stops the dialogue.
