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Food Funds Lab Exam > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q

The crispiness of a potato chip from a newly-opened bag is an example of _

A

mouthfeel

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2
Q

Adding a little sugar will _

A

decrease bitter, sour and salt flavours

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3
Q

Flavor = _ + _

A

aroma + taste

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4
Q

What is anosmia

A

The lack of ability to smell

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5
Q

What does sound of food suggest?

A

The degree of freshness ad crispiness

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6
Q

What can be deceiving?

A

Senses

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7
Q

What would enriching the color of milk make us perceive?

A
  • higher fat
  • smoother texture
  • more flavour
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8
Q

What are analytical tests used for?

A

to detect differences, in smaller groups

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9
Q

What are affective (acceptance or preference) tests used for?

A

to detect individual preferences, larger groups

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10
Q

What is the difference between sensory/subjective and objective tests?

A

Sensory : analytical or affective

Objective : physical or chemical

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11
Q

Difference tests are what kind of tests?

A

Analytical tests > Discriminative

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12
Q

What are sensitivity tests for?

A

Detect flavour: threshold and dilution

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13
Q

What are the types of difference tests?

A 
Triangle
Duo-trio
Paired comparison
Ranking
Ordinal
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14
Q

Which difference test has the lowest chance probability?

A

Triangle

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15
Q

What is a hedonic test?

A

Related to pleasure

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16
Q

What coagulates proteins?

A

Heat, acid, agitation

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17
Q

Which of the Maillard/caramelization reaction occurs at the highest temperature?

A

caramelization

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18
Q

What are 5 effects of heat on food?

A
  • coagulation
  • gelatinization
  • caramelization
  • maillard reaction
  • water evaporation
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19
Q

Between a tomato, watermelon and an orange which has the highest water content

A

tomato

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20
Q

Between peanut butter, bread, butter, which has the lowest water content

A

peanut butter

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21
Q

What are the 2 methods of heating food?

A

Dry heat

Moist heat

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22
Q

Broiling, grilling, roasting, baking, sautéing, pan-frying, deep-fat frying are __ methods

A

Dry heat

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23
Q

Poaching, simmering, boiling, steaming, sous-vide (under vacuum) are __ methods

A

Moist heat

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24
Q

Microwaves are non-ionising or ionising waves?

A

non-ionising

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25
Q

Microwaves are : _, _, _

A

absorbed, transfered, reflected

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26
Q

In a microwave oven, the transfer of heat is via __ radiation

A

electromagnetic

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27
Q

What is the vacuum electron tube that converts household electricity into microwaves

A

magnetron

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28
Q

Which watts are of general use?

Of commercial use?

A

General: 500-750 watts
Commercial: 1000-1300 watts

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29
Q

How to microwaves work?

A

Dielectric heating = high frequency, alternating electromagnetic field heats a dielectric material

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30
Q

Can plastic go in the microwave?

A

Yes : needs to be heat-tempered

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31
Q

What can’t go in the microwave?

A
  • metal
  • aluminum foil
  • recycled paper/brown bag
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32
Q

What is the rule when heating several containers?

A

keep the middle empty : space them apart

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33
Q

Which items are best cooked with a conventional method?

A

Hashbrowns

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34
Q

Which pathogen is not killed when cooking meat?

A

Trichinella Spiralis

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35
Q

Cooking meat in the microwave is best for which cuts?

A

Tender cuts

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36
Q

What is ideal to cook in microwave oven?

A

Fish

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37
Q

Can you make bread in the oven?

A

NO dry heat for dextrinization, Maillard rx, caramelisation

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38
Q

Microwave is or is not recommended for home canning?

A

is NOT

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39
Q

What can destroy pathogens or bacteria in microwave:

A
  • even intense temp for a long time
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40
Q

What is the minimal recommendation of F&V?

A

5 (best is 10)

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41
Q

Which decrease the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Apples, pear, citrus fruit, green leafy veg, cruciferous, salads

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42
Q

Which decrease risk of cancer?

A

Cruciferous, green-yellow veg

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43
Q

What are the plastids (storage organelle) in a plant cell?

A
  • leucoplast
  • chloroplast
  • chromoplast
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44
Q

Which plant fibres are found on the outer portion of skin?

A

cellulose and hemi-cellulose

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45
Q

What are 4 plant fibres

A
  • cellulose
  • hemicellulose and pectic substances
  • lignin
  • gums
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46
Q

Which plant fibre causes cloudiness in juice?

A

Pectic substances

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47
Q

What are the 3 types of pectic substances?

A
  • protopectin
  • pectin/pectinic acid
  • pectic acid
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48
Q

Which pectic substance is used in industry?

A

Pectin (pectinic acid)

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49
Q

What are the 8 parts of plants we can eat?

A
  • flower
  • seed
  • stem/shoot
  • root
  • tuber
  • bulb
  • fruit
  • leaves
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50
Q

Sweet potato is part of __

Potato is part of __

A
  • roots

- tuber

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51
Q

Broccoli is part of __

Kale is part of __

A
  • flower

- leaves

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52
Q

Example of a bulb

A

garlic, onion, leek

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53
Q

Example of a root

A

carrot, radish, sweet potato

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54
Q

Example of a stem

A

asparagus, celery, fennel

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55
Q

Lentils and peas are part of __

A

seeds

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56
Q

Difference between tuber an root

A

Root: 1 plant for 1 veg
Tuber: not just 1 per plant, many different tubers per plant

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57
Q

Legumes are part of which family? How can you identify them?

A

Leguminosae

= seeds containing a pod

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58
Q

What are fruits?

A

The part of the plant that contains a seed, derived from flowers
ex: cucumber, avocado

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59
Q

What are vegetables?

A

All other edible parts of the plant: flowers, stems, leaves, roots, tubers

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60
Q

Which legume is higher in protein and fat ?

A

soybeans

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61
Q

What are 3 types of fruit classification

A
  • simple
  • aggregate
  • multiple
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62
Q

Which part of the fruit composes the perianth?

A

Petal : corolla

Sepal : calyx

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63
Q

F&V are high in:

A
  • fiber

- water

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64
Q

F&V are low in:

A
  • kcal
  • protein
  • carbs
  • fat
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65
Q

Which fruits are high in fat?

A

avocado, coconut, olives

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66
Q

Which vegetables are high in kcal

A

starchy vegetables

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67
Q

What is TVP made from?

A

Soy or other legumes

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68
Q

Are nuts & seeds a source of protein?

A

Yes

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69
Q

Do whole grains have protein?

A

Yes, mostly pseudo-grains (ex: Seitan)

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70
Q

What are legumes limited in

A

methionine (+ tryptophan)

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71
Q

What are nuts limited in

A

lysine (+ methionine, tryptophan)

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72
Q

What are grains limited in

A

lysine (+tryptophan and threonine)

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73
Q

What are seeds limited in

A

lysine (+methionine)

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74
Q

True or False:

You have to complement protein in the same meal to provide all the essential amino acids

A

False, it is over the course of the day not just a meal

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75
Q

How to enhance non-heme iron?

A
  • cook in an iron pot

- add an acid

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76
Q

Which vegetable is an excellent source of calcium?

A

kale

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77
Q

True or False:

Nutritional Yeast is naturally rich in vitamin B 12 and should be consumed in a vegan diet

A

False

Nutritional yeast is fortified with vitamin B12

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78
Q

Which legume has the highest fiber?

A

Lentils

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79
Q

Which minerals are restricted in people with kidney disease?

A

Phosphorous, Calcium, potassium

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80
Q

Is soybean high in starch?

A

No it is different than most legumes, it won’t gelatinise

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81
Q

Why do legumes cause flatulence?

A

Due to oligosaccharides or FODMAPs (Fermentable Oligo Disaccharides, Monosacch)

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82
Q

Is sucrose digestable

A

By most people yes but not in large quantities

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83
Q

What are the FODMAPs

A

raffinose, stachyose, verbascose

=> aren’t digestible

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84
Q

What does baking soda do when cooking legumes?

A
  • decreases oligosaccharides
  • B vitamin loss
  • mushy product
  • protein loss
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85
Q

In what ratio do you soak beans?

A

10:1 ratio (water:beans)

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86
Q

What is beano?

A

Enzyme that cuts the sugars (oligosacch) and makes them easier to be digested by gut

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87
Q

What is more stable in an acidic environment?

A

Hemicellulose

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88
Q

Which anti-nutrient is found in red kidney beans?

A

Lectins

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89
Q

Which anti-nutrient is found in butter beans (Lima beans)?

A

Cyanide

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90
Q

What can be sprouted (=germinated)?

A

Any whole grain or legumes

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91
Q

What does sprouting increase? Decrease?

A

Increases vitamin C content, increases alpha amylase

Decreases availability of iron (bind to fiber or phytate)

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92
Q

What are the health risks of bean sprouts?

A

Salmonella and E. Coli

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93
Q

Why should water be changed daily when sprouting?

A

To prevent mould growth

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94
Q

What happens if dried beans are stored in a humid environment?

A

Beans will be difficult to cook

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95
Q

Which coagulants in tofu increase volume?

A

calcium/magnesium sulfate dehydrate

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96
Q

Which coagulants in tofu increase firmness and calcium?

A

calcium/magnesium chloride

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97
Q

Why is homemade soy milk bitter?

A

Lipoxygenase enzyme

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98
Q

Homemade soy milk needs to be boiled for 20 minutes to destroy:

A

Trypsin inhibitor and lipoxygenase

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99
Q

Which milk alternative has the most protein?

A

Soy milk > pea milk > hemp milk

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100
Q

Which moulds are in soy sauce?

A

Aspergillus oryzae or Aspergillus sojae

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101
Q

What is the fermenting agent in tempeh?

A

Rhizopus oligosporus

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102
Q

Does tempeh contain B12?

A

Yes -> inactive form

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103
Q

What are cereal grains?

A

Edible seeds from the grass family: Gramineae or Poaceae

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104
Q

What is a grain composed of?

A
  • Husk
  • Bran
  • Endosperm
  • Germ (embryo)
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105
Q

Which layer is underneath the bran

A

aleurone layer = very nutritious (has protein, phosphorous, B vitamins, fat, antioxidants)

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106
Q

Which part of the grain is the densest in nutrition?

A

the germ (embryo)

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107
Q

What makes a complete protein?

A

Pairing legumes and grains

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108
Q

Which vitamins are lost during processing?

A

B vitamins

E vitamins

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109
Q

Which parts of the grain contains fiber?

A

Endosperm and bran

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110
Q

True or False:

Whole grains have more fiber

A

True

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111
Q

What are the layers with the highest phytochemicals?

A

Bran & Aleurone layer & germ

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112
Q

Phytochemicals depend on:

A

Type of grain and processing method

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113
Q

Processing decreases _ but may increase _

A

phytochemical content ; bioavailability

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114
Q

What is removed in the milling process?

A

husk, bran, germ

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115
Q

What do refined/white grains contain?

A

endosperm

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116
Q

What regulates food fortification?

A

Food and Drug Regulations

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117
Q

What is flour in Canada enriched in?

A

thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, iron

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118
Q

Which flour doesn’t need to be fortified?

A

Whole wheat

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119
Q

A package has : “100% Whole Wheat Flour”, would you buy it?

A

NO

best = 100% whole grain whole wheat flour

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120
Q

Are oats whole grain?

A

YES, the bran is usually not removed

121
Q

Farro, spelt, emmer, freekeh are all part of:

A

wheat

122
Q

Foxtail, finger, pearl are part of:

A

millet

123
Q

Cereal grains with the highest protein

A

oats

124
Q

The pseudo cereals are:

A

quinoa, amaranth, buckwheat

125
Q

_ is a good source of magnesium, copper, manganese

A

buckwheat

126
Q

_ is a good source of magnesium, phosphorous, manganese

A

amaranth

127
Q

_ is a good source of magnesium, folate, phosphorous, manganese

A

quinoa

128
Q

What is an excellent source of folic acid

A

quinoa

129
Q

What are the 2 fractions of gluten?

A
  • gliadins (soluble)

- glutenins (insoluble)

130
Q

Which role does gluten play in baking?

A
  • elasticity, viscosity, cohesiveness of the dough

- allow dough to hold CO2 molecules produced by yeast => fluffy texture

131
Q

Gluten-containing grains:

A
  • wheat
  • rye
  • barley
  • triticale
    => they develop gluten
132
Q

Gluten-free grains

A
  • amaranth
  • quinoa
  • buckwheat
  • teff
  • millet
  • rice
  • oats
  • cornmeal
    => they don’t develop gluten
133
Q

What is the pb with gluten-free products

A
  • more sugar and fat
  • not fortified
  • more expensive
134
Q

3 gluten replacers are:

A
  • Xanthum gum
  • Guar gum
  • Ground seeds (chia, flax, psyllium)
135
Q

Which products have hidden gluten?

A

beer, chocolate, soy sauce, soup, broth, prepared sauces, sauces and prepared meats

136
Q

A person has: fatigue, abdominal pain, flatulence, diarrhoea, ulcers, bone pane, headaches, what could they have?

A

Celiac disease

137
Q

A person has: “foggy mind”, joint pain, what could they have?

A

Non-celiac gluten sensitivity

138
Q

Which toxin does cooked rice produce?

A

Bacillus cereus

139
Q

What is the smallest grain (true cereal)?

A

Teff

140
Q

Complex carbs are polymers of?

A

alpha-D-glucose

141
Q

2 types of starch granules=

A

amylose

amylopectin

142
Q

Which has the best gelling capacity between amylose and amylopectin?

A

amylose

143
Q

__ = when starch granules are heated in the presence of a liquid

A

gelatinization

144
Q

What is a good gelling agent?

A

cornstarch

145
Q

The more amylose, the more it forms: _

A

a gel (because it is linear, it packs better)

146
Q

__ = leakage/ separation of a liquid from the gel after a long standing time

A

retrogradation

147
Q

What is retrogradation accelerated by?

A

freezing

148
Q

What influences gelatinisation ?

A

water, temperature, timing, stirring, acid, sugar, fat/protein

149
Q

Resistant starches are found in

A

green banana, some potatoes

150
Q

What do regraded starches resist?

A

dispersion in water and digestion by alpha-amylase

151
Q

Examples of modified starches

A

cross-linked starch, oxidised starch, pregelatinized starch

152
Q

which starches are used as sweeteners?

A

dextrose, syrups

153
Q

Difference between heifer and cow?

A

heifer: no calf, used for meat
cow: >1 calf, not used for meat, more hormones, less tender

154
Q

Différence between steer and bull?

A

steer: castrated, gains weight fast, more tender, less hormones
bull: uncastrated, processed meat, pet foods

155
Q

How old is a calf?

A

8-12 months

156
Q

Beef is classified by : _ and _

A

age and sex

157
Q

How old is veal?

A

3 weeks- 3 months

=> very tender, pale color, milky flavour

158
Q

The meat is more or less tender if “free-range”

A

less tender

159
Q

How old is a lamb?

A

<14 months

160
Q

How old is a mutton?

A

> 14 months

161
Q

Pork is slaughtered at what age?

A

7-12 months

162
Q

Most processed meats: ham, bacon, come from

A

pork

163
Q

What are myofibrillar proteins in meat composed of?

A

myosin and actin

164
Q

What is composed of sarcomere units?

A

muscle fibril

165
Q

Is ATP consumed during muscle contraction?

A

yes

166
Q

What happens during contraction of the muscles?

A

filaments slide across each other and form actomyosin cross-links (this shortens the sarcomere)

167
Q

Where is connective tissue found?

A

muscle, ligaments, tendons

168
Q

Connective tissue is composed of:

A

proteins + mucopolysaccharides

169
Q

An animal that doesn’t move much has: a lot or little CT?

A

little

170
Q

What are the 3 connective tissue proteins

A
  • collagen (most abundant)
  • elastin
  • reticulin
171
Q

Regarding collagen, what happens when animal mature

A
  • increase in collagen cotent

- increase in covalent cross-links between collagen strands

172
Q

Liquid collagen =

A

gelatin

173
Q

Cooking collagen needs :

A
  • Heat
  • Time
  • Water /moisture
174
Q

In which parts of meat is elastin present?

A

neck and shoulder

175
Q

Which connective tissue dissolves with heat, which one doesn’t?

A

elastin : doesn’t dissolve

reticulin : does

176
Q

Between lamb & mutton, which one needs more cooking and why?

A

Mutton needs more because is older and has more collagen

177
Q

The thick white fat seen in beef is which adipose tissue?

A

intermuscular fat

178
Q

What are 4 types of adipose tissue

A
  • subcutaneous fat
  • visceral fat
  • intermuscular
  • intramuscular
179
Q

The type of fat in meat reflects :

A

the degree of softness

180
Q

Yellow marrow is more present in which bones?

A

Long bones

181
Q

What are the 2 pigment-containing proteins?

A

Myoglobin and hemoglobin

182
Q

True/False

Hemoglobin contributes mostly to the red colour and transports oxygen throughout the body

A

False

183
Q

What is added so that meat stays red?

A

carbon monoxide

184
Q

The iron is in which state in : metmyoglobin

A

fe3+

185
Q

What does industry add to maintain bright red-pink meat, slow bacterial growth and impart the development of rancid flavours

A

nitrite (NO2-)

186
Q

In Nitrosylmyoglobin, the iron is in which state

A

Fe2+

become Fe3+ when denatured

187
Q

__ servings of meat are recommended per week

A

3-4

188
Q

Which compound in meat can cause a damage to intestinal lining?

A

N-nitroso compounds

189
Q

What is grading about? (2)

A
  • quality

- yield

190
Q

When is rigor mortis?

A

6-24 hours after slaughter

191
Q

At what temperature are enzymes activated?

A

55-75°C

192
Q

For which animal is electrical stimulation?

A

beef and lamb

193
Q

__ of meat is processed

A

1/3

194
Q

What are methods that use little adding fat?

A

Grilling, broiling, roasting, poaching

195
Q

Meat becomes more/less tender when cooking? Why

A

More

because of breakdown of fat, CT, protein

196
Q

Add what temperature doesn’t connective tissue dissolve into gelatin

A

66°C

197
Q

Tender cuts require _ heat preparation

A

dry

198
Q

Less-tender cuts require _ heat preparation

A

moist

199
Q

What should be the internal temperature for beef?

A

60°C - rare
70°C - medium
77°C - well done

200
Q

What should be the internal temperature for veal?

A

74°C - well done

201
Q

What should be the internal temperature for lamb?

A

60°C - rare
70°C - medium
77°C - well done

202
Q

What should be the internal temperature for pork?

A

55-60°C - heated ham
60°C - medium cooked before
70°C - medium smoked loin
77°C - well done

203
Q

How should you carve meat?

A

across the grain

204
Q

Which of the following is true about nutrient cooking losses in meat?
A. Cooking meat using boiling/simmering methods only affects b vitamin content
B. No vitamin loss because they are heat stable
C. Using the water used to cook meat in soup/sauces will increase B vitamin intake
D. None of the above

A

C

vitamins aren’t heat stable, B vitamins are water soluble

205
Q

What is the difference between roasters and broilers/fryers

A

broilers: slaughtered @7weeks
roasters: slaughtered @10-12 weeks

206
Q

Why are capons plumper?

A

are mastered, sold under 4 months, don’t have hormones

207
Q

True or False

Roasters are males slaughtered at 10-12 weeks

A

False, can be females

208
Q

Which poultry is considered a luxury

A

chicken or turkey

209
Q

All meats in canada are free-run or free-range

A

free-run

210
Q

Poultry is higher in which micronutrient?

A

niacin

211
Q

True/False

Poultry is always lower in cholesterol and fat than other types of meat

A

False

212
Q

True/ False

Ducks or geese have more fat than chickens/Turkey

A

True

213
Q

Which diet to reduce CHD, risk of coronary artheroscleris

A

Mediterranean

214
Q

Which agency is in charge of poultry inspection?

A

Canadian Food Inspection Agency

215
Q

The poultry grade is based on which 4 factors?

A
  • conformation
  • flesh
  • fat
  • dressing
216
Q

What does a dressed poultry have removed:

A

blood, feathers, crop are removed

217
Q

Does a ready-to-cook poultry still have internal organs

A

yes, but they have been cleaned out

218
Q

Brining =

A

submerge the chicken completely in solution, store the pot in the fridge

219
Q

What is recommended for stuffing?

A

Prepare and cook stuffing separately

if cooked with poultry = 165°F

220
Q

Internal temp for a whole poultry?

A

185F = 85C

221
Q

Internal temp for parts of poultry?

A

165F = 74C

222
Q

Which moist-heat method is used for older birds?

A

Braising

223
Q

The sauce is strained in braising or stewing?

A

braising

224
Q

Chicken breasts in microwave:

A

for 10 minutes

-> not recommended for stuffed poultry or frozen raw breaded chicken

225
Q

What are the food safety limitations of cooking sous-vide?

A

Clostridium botulinum

226
Q

Potential hazards of handling poultry:

A

listeria, salmonella

227
Q

Someone has fever, chills, diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, headache, nausea, vomiting => what to they have?

A

Salmonella

healthy people recover without treatment

228
Q

What should never be done before cooking poultry ?

A

Rinsing under water

229
Q

Which vitamin B complex does milk have?

A

Riboflavin (B2)

230
Q

Vitamin C is added in which milk?

A

Evaporated

231
Q

Vitamin A is added in which milk?

A

skim + partially skimmed

232
Q

What are the proteins in milk?

A

casein and whey

233
Q

Casein is precipitated by what?

A
  • acid or enzymes (rennin)
234
Q

What are symptoms of lactose intolerance?

A

nausea, abdominal cramps and bloating, flatulence, diarrhoea

235
Q

What are symptoms of milk allergy?

A

vomiting, nausea, wheezing, chronic cough, skin rashes, headaches

236
Q

Which enzyme is measure in regular pasteurisation?

A

alkaline phosphatase -> killed above temperature of pathogenic bacteria, determines the safety

237
Q

What occurs to make milk uniform?

A

Homogenisation (= reduction of fat particles to prevent separation of fat)

238
Q

What are the cultured dairy products?

A

acidophilus milk, buttermilk, yogurt, kefir, sour cream

239
Q

Why does greek yogurt have more protein?

A

because it is strained, more whey comes out and there is more calcium and lactose in the liquid

240
Q

Why are milk containers opaque?

A

To retain riboflavin

241
Q

True/False

In milk denatured proteins often separate from liquid by coagulation

A

True

242
Q

True/False

Adding acid to milk will cause whey to curdle

A

False

243
Q

What is the enzyme used for coagulation, it comes from the stomach of milk-fed calves

A

chymosin or rennin

244
Q

What is the result of a cheese with high levels of calcium phosphate?

A

tougher/grainy texture

245
Q

Which pathogens can you get on cheese?

A 
Listeria monocytogenes  (on soft cheese)
and mold
246
Q

Which eggs can’t be frozen?

A
  • cooked eggs

- whole raw eggs

247
Q

What does egg yolk contain?

A

phospholipids + proteins

248
Q

What is best for foaming egg whites?

A
  • room temp eggs
  • fresh eggs
  • copper/zinc bowl (stop the disulphide connection, adding acid does the same)
  • adding sugar (=hygroscopic)
    => want to relax the proteins
249
Q

How much protein, fat and cholesterol is in 1 large egg?

A

7 g protein
9 g fat
213mg chol

250
Q

Is the iron in egg bioavailable?

A

No, it is bound to phosvitin

251
Q

What protein makes up most of the egg white?

A

ovalbumin

252
Q

What is the main allergen in egg?

A

ovalbumin

253
Q

Why do you plunge eggs after boiling?

A

creates a temperature differential that forces hydrogen sulphide to go back into the egg yolk.

254
Q

Grade B eggs are sold to :

A

commercial baking of future processing

255
Q

Grade C eggs are used for :

A

production of processed egg products

256
Q

What should you do before freezing?

A
  • pasteurised before freezing

- break egg and freeze

257
Q

How long can eggs be stored in the fridge?

A

1 week to 1 month
yolk : 2 days
white : 4 days

258
Q

true/ false

usually internal egg contamination occurs

A

false, during handling and preparation

259
Q

External egg shells are exposed to which pathogen?

A

Salmonella enteritidis

=> eggs are sanitized

260
Q

How do you break an ester linkage in a TG?

A

through hydrolysis

261
Q

What are monounsaturated sources

A

avocado, peanut butter, olives, olive oil, canola oil

262
Q

What are polyunsaturated sources

A

vegetable oils, mayonnaise, certain nuts, fish oils, most margarine

263
Q

Which fats & oils have a low melting P?

A
  • cis
  • short chains
  • unsaturated
    => liquid at room temp
264
Q

Melting point is influenced by:

A
  • Degree of saturation or unsaturation
  • Length of fatty acid
  • Cis/trans configuration
  • Crystalline structure of fat: has to be due to the solid phase that packs crystals
265
Q

What has a similar structure to cholesterol and may block its absorption?

A

Phytosterols

266
Q

Which has a higher melting point: waxes or TG

A

waxes

267
Q

Which has a lower smoke point: refined or unrefined oil?

A

unrefined oil

268
Q

What are the worst oils in terms of HNE?

A

polyunsaturated

269
Q

Lard, shortening and most oils should be stored:

A

at room temp, away from light, covered

270
Q

Rancidity is accelerated by

A

light, heat and oxygen

271
Q

What are 2 types of rancidity?

A

Oxidative, hydrolytic

272
Q

What are the 3 steps of oxidative rancidity

A

initiation - propagation - termination

273
Q

Which vitamin is naturally found in vegetable oils

A

vitamin E (tocopherols)

274
Q

Oils are cooled and kept at low temperatures for some time, liquid and solids are separated by filtration =

A

winterization

275
Q

A more sophisticated process than winterisation is

A

fractionation

276
Q

Low fat cooking methods

A

steaming, grilling, baking, poaching, use parchment paper

277
Q

Difference between palm kernel oil and palm oil

A

palm kernel oil = oil from the nut

palm oil = oil from the fruit

278
Q

Fresh/salt water and fatty/lean:

  • lake trout
  • catfish
  • halibut
  • mackerel
  • herring
A
  • fresh water, fatty
  • freshwater, lean
  • salt water, lean
  • saltwater, fatty
  • saltwater, fatty
279
Q

Mollusk or crustaceans?

  • crab
  • shrimp
  • mussels
  • clam
  • abalone
A
  • crustacean
  • crustacean
  • mollusk : bivalve
  • mollusk : bivalve
  • mollusk : univalve
280
Q

What are the steps in making Surimi?

A

alaskan pollock -> skinned -> deboned -> minced -> washed -> strained -> shaped

281
Q

In canada, what is surimi made from

A

Pollock or Pacific whiting

282
Q

The strong smell of fish is due to which compound?

A

Trymethylamine

283
Q

What happens to a fish when it gets older (when dead)

A
  • eyes sink in and get opaque

- bloated fish due to enzymes and bacteria

284
Q

The gut of a fish smells like sea, is it fresh?

A

Yes

Not fresh = smells like ammonia

285
Q

Industry freezes fish when it is in which state?

A

rigor mortis

286
Q

True/False

all fish contain A & D vitamins and B vitamins

A

False, only oily fish have A & D vit

287
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for a histamine allergy

A

histidine decarboxylase

288
Q

True/False

The gempylotoxin present in escolar is toxic

A

False, it is not toxic but indigestible

289
Q

Does health Canada recommend washing fish

A

NO

290
Q

What are the best choices of salmon?

A
  • wild pink salmon
  • wild sockeye salmon
  • atlantic salmon
291
Q

Which has higher omega 3s: farmed of wild (Pacific) salmon?

A

farmed (fed oil pellets)

292
Q

Which method is best for the fish

  • recirculating aquaculture system
  • net penned
A

net penned

293
Q

What is responsible for browning and bruising of fruits as they ripen?

A

phenolic compounds

294
Q

What is present in soybeans and have a similar structure to oestrogen?

A

genistein

295
Q

Which enzyme is involved in oxidative browning?

A

polyphenol oxydase

296
Q

Best storage for potatoes? why?

A

dark, dry, cool place

=> no solanine

297
Q

Which compounds do canned peas have?

A

pheophytin

298
Q

Which types of carotenes contain vitamin a?

A

alpha, beta, gamma carotenes

cryptoxanthin

Food Funds Lab Exam (7 decks)

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