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Infection Control > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

who does poliomyelitis mainly affect?

A

young children

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2
Q

what are the symptoms of poliomyelitis?

A

fever, fatigue, headache, vomiting, stiff neck and pain in the limbs

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3
Q

what can poliomyelitis cause but only in a small proportion?

A

paralysis

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4
Q

when should vaccinations for polio begin?

A

at an early age

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5
Q

what can the vaccine for polio do if you get it at a young age?

A

can establish a life long immunity to the disease

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6
Q

what does MMR stand for?

A

Measles Mumps Rubella

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7
Q

Is the MMR vaccine safe and effective?

A

yes

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8
Q

what are the dangers of measles mumps rubella?

A

dangerous and sometimes deadly diseases cause by viruses

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9
Q

what was a case where Measles Mumps Rubella effected people?

A

there have been a few hundred cases after travellers brought the virus back to Canada where it would spread but only locally

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10
Q

what is measles?

A

a severe respiratory infection and is highly contagious.

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11
Q

is measles highly contagious?

A

yes

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12
Q

what are some complications with measles?

A

secondary ear or lung infections

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13
Q

can antibiotics kill measles?

A

No antibiotics will not kill the measles virus itself but may be used if these complications do occur

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14
Q

what is mumps?

A

a contagious viral infection

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15
Q

when do signs and symptoms occur with mumps?

A

signs and symptoms usually appear 2-3 weeks after exposure to the virus

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16
Q

is there a treatment for mumps?

A

virus there is no treatment except to take pain medications to decrease the symptoms and bring down the fever.

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17
Q

what is rubella?

A

different from measles and is generally a mild disease in children or young adults.

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18
Q

how is rubella spread?

A

contagious and is transmitted by airborne droplets by coughs and sneezes

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19
Q

how many does of the MMR vaccine do children get in Canada?

A

2

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20
Q

who will have received MMR vaccine as a child?

A

people born by 1970

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21
Q

what does Tdap stand for?

A

Tetanus, Diphtheria and Pertussis

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22
Q

is tetanus common or rare

A

rare

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23
Q

what is tetanus also known as?

A

lock jaw

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24
Q

what is tetanus?

A

It causes tightening of muscles which can be extremely painful. It can also affect the muscles of the neck making swallowing or breathing extremely difficult.

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25
Q

what percent of tetanus infected patients do not survive even when receiving early treatment?

A

10%

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26
Q

how is tetanus transmitted?

A

can enter the body from contact with infected soil, dust or manure through a cut, scratch or wound

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27
Q

is Diphtheria common or rare?

A

rare

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28
Q

what is Diphtheria?

A

Infection of the nose, throat and skin causing sore throat, fever and chills and can lead to breathing complications, heart failure and nerve damage

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29
Q

when do symptoms occur for Diphtheria?

A

2-5 days after becoming infected

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30
Q

what was the leading cause of death in children before 1940?

A

Diphtheria

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31
Q

how is Diphtheria transmitted?

A

spread from person to person through secretions from coughing and sneezing

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32
Q

what is another name for pertussis?

A

whooping cough

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33
Q

what is Pertussis (Whooping Cough)?

A

Common disease which causes prolonged cough illness, can affect all ages but is especially serious for infants

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34
Q

what age is Pertussis (Whooping Cough) serious in?

A

infants

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35
Q

what can Pertussis (Whooping Cough) do to your health?

A

Coughing can last for several weeks and make it hard to eat, drink or breathe

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36
Q

where does Pertussis (Whooping Cough) infect inside the body?

A

The infection attaches to the lining of the upper respiratory system and releases toxins that lead to inflammation/swelling.

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37
Q

how is Pertussis (Whooping Cough) transmitted?

A

spread from person to person through secretions from coughing and sneezing

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38
Q

before vaccines there were __________ cases of both Diphtheria and Pertussis in the USA?

A

200 000

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39
Q

Before these vaccinations, there were _________ of cases of tetanus?

A

hundreds

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40
Q

what age is Tdap usually given?

A

11-12 years

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41
Q

When is the Tdap booster given?

A

every 10 years

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42
Q

what does the Tdap booster cover?

A

tetanus and diphtheria

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43
Q

what is Tuberculosis caused by?

A

bacteria that spread from person to person through microscopic droplets released into the air (coughing and sneezing)

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44
Q

where In the body does TB effect?

A

lungs, but can also affect glands, the bones, joints, kidneys, brain and reproductive organs

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45
Q

can you have TB and not show symptoms?

A

yes

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46
Q

what are the 3 facts to be aware of with TB?

A
  1. Although tuberculosis is contagious, it is not easy to catch
  2. You’re much more likely to get tuberculosis from someone you live or work with than from a stranger.
  3. Most people with active TB who have had appropriate drug treatment for at least 2 weeks are no longer contagious.
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47
Q

what are the 2 types of tests for health care workers?

A
  1. Initial baseline testing upon hire using two-step testing with a TB skin test or a TB blood test (2-step Mantoux tuberculin skin test)
  2. Annual screening determined by the province or risk assessment outcomes
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48
Q

what is step 1 in the tuberculin skin test (TST)?

A

If positive reaction - consider TB infected, 2nd TST not needed and evaluate for TB disease
If negative reaction - a 2nd TST is needed 1-3 weeks after the first one is read

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49
Q

what is step 2 in the tuberculin skin test (TST)?

A

If positive reaction - same as above

If negative reaction - consider person not infected/exposed

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50
Q

what is the process of the tuberculin skin test?

A
  • Administer the Tuberculin skin test intradermally on the anterior surface of the forearm
  • “Read” TST 48-72 hours after administration it is read in millimeters of the induration
  • A change from prior negative to a positive test result is evidence of recent TB infection
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51
Q

What does LTBI stand for?

A

Latent Tuberculosis Infection

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52
Q

what does LTBI mean?

A

the patient is infected with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis but they do not have active tuberculosis

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53
Q

what is an important part of controlling the controlling LTBI?

A

The identification and treatment of people with Latent TB is an important part of controlling the disease

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54
Q

Patients with LTBI have __________ bacteriological tests after the results of a positive test but these tests are not 100% accurate

A

Patients with LTBI have negative bacteriological tests after the results of a positive test but these tests are not 100% accurate

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55
Q

About half of those who develop TB will do so within the ___________ of infection

A

two years

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56
Q

can LTBI be treated?

A

yes to prevent progression to Active TB

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57
Q

what immunizations could a hospital employer ask for?

A
  • TDAP proof or vaccine and a booster every 10 years.
  • MMR blood test unless you can show documentation of the 2 dose vaccine as a child.
  • Influenza annual vaccine
  • TB test, 2-step performed 1-3 weeks apart on hiring then one step each year
  • Varicella blood test (chicken pox)
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58
Q

Before disinfection, bacteria contamination was found on __________ of probes

A

98.8%

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59
Q

following analysis how many different species were found on the probe without disinfection?

A

36

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60
Q

what bacteria was found on the probes that weren’t disinfected?

A
  • Staphylococcus Aureus
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Pseudomonas
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61
Q

Intracavity probes if used without a probe cover are considered ________

A

semi critical

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62
Q

why are Intracavity probes if used without a probe cover are considered semi critical devices?

A

because they come in contact with mucous membranes of the vagina, rectum or pharynx

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63
Q

should invasive probes that enter the rectum, vagina, or trachea be disinfected with high level disinfection?

A

yes because the probe covers can fail

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64
Q

what chemical is recommended to be used when using the high level disinfection?

A

2% glutaraldehyde

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65
Q

what is required to wipe down with cavi wipes?

A

probe, handle, and electrical cord

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66
Q

any intra cavity examination must undergo ________________

A

high level disinfection (HLD)

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67
Q

when is another time we use HLD on a patient?

A

if the patient is on isolation precautions or if the sonographer believes the patient is unclean

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68
Q

what is used to clean the probes and why?

A

sani cloth plus
-commonly used as it kills the most bacteria while still maintaining the integrity of the inner workings of the transducer

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69
Q

what bacteria does sani cloth plus kill?

A
  • E Coli
  • MRSA
  • TB
  • Pseudomonas
  • Staph aureus
  • Salmonella
  • VRE

Also Herpes, Simplex, Influenzas A, RSV

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70
Q

what are some reasons a station could not be cleaned properly?

A
  • time
  • space
  • training
  • knowledge
  • clear identifiers
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71
Q

look at Slide 12 and 13 on lesson 9

A

I didn’t know how to makea question for this

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72
Q

what are the benefits of an automated HLD?

A
  • no special equipment needed
  • safer since the process is completely enclosed
  • protects environment and its worker
  • allows staff to multitask
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73
Q

summing up the benefits of the Trophon EPR

A
  • easy to use
  • very compact
  • easily moved
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74
Q

how do you start using the Trophon?

A
  1. push the ON button
  2. screen will say WARMING UP and when done it will say LOAD PROBE
  3. the probe must be clean and dry
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75
Q

what must you make sure is done before putting the probe in the Trophon?

A

the probe is CLEAN and DRY

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76
Q

what is the probe gland?

A

a short sleeve at the back of the handle covering the electrical cable

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77
Q

how do you load the probe into the Trophon?

A
  • put on gloves
  • hold the probe handle and press the top pf the probe gland into the gland seal
  • Push the probe electrical cable into the cable clamp at the top of the chamber
  • The probe must be straight and not touching the walls or bottom of the chamber
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78
Q

once placed in the Trophon, what must you make sure when looking at the probe position?

A

The probe must be straight and not touching the walls or bottom of the chamber

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79
Q

what is the strip of paper called that is placed inside the chamber?

A

chemical indicator

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80
Q

what colour should the indicator be when placing it into the Trophon?

A

red

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81
Q

where should the chemical indicator be placed inside the chamber?

A

on the floor of the chamber

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82
Q

can you reuse a chemical indicator?

A

no

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83
Q

how do you know what colour has to been seen at the end on a chemical indicator?

A

colour assessment chart is on the box

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84
Q

why cant their be several chemical indicator boxes open at once?

A

because there is a different colour needed for each box

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85
Q

do you have to lock the chamber door or will it automatically lock?

A

it will automatically lock

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86
Q

what will happen if the doesn’t close properly?

A

a message will display saying close chamber door

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87
Q

what will the Trophon do once the door is locked?

A

ask “is the probe clean and dry?” and you ask yes

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88
Q

what will the Trophon do before beginning?

A

will do a self check then say “press start to begin” then you press start or cancel

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89
Q

what will the Trophon do if you answer no to the question that says “is the probe clean and dry?”

A

the screen will say “remove and clean the probe”

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90
Q

what will the screen on the Trophon say when its disinfecting?

A

“disinfecting”

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91
Q

what will the machine do when the cycle is finished?

A

the screen will say “cycle complete remove probe” and the device will sound an audible alarm

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92
Q

should you wear gloves when taking the probe out?

A

yes because the items inside the chamber have the potential to potential residual peroxide

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93
Q

what do you do if the Trophon says “cycle failed”?

A

start a new disinfection cycle from the beginning

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94
Q

what must you do once the Trophon says “cycle complete”?

A

a manual inspection of the chemical indicator and probe

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95
Q

what must you do once you remove the probe from the chamber?

A

wipe with a dry single use cloth to remove any residual peroxide and visually inspect the probe

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96
Q

when can you remove your gloves when using HLD?

A

after visually inspecting the probe

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97
Q

where is the chemical indicator placed once done with it?

A

in the garbage

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98
Q

what will the Trophon print once the cycle is complete?

A

a sheet indicating if the cycle passed or failed

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99
Q

where is the hydrogen peroxide placed inside the Trophon?

A

cartridge which is inserted at the side of the device

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100
Q

should gloves be used when inserting the hydrogen peroxide into the Trophon?

A

yes

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101
Q

how does the Trophon work?

A

A quantity controlled ultra fine hydrogen peroxide mist enters the chamber via side ports and gently swirls around to cover the entire surface of the probe and it’s handle

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102
Q

when should sterile gel be used?

A

for all invasive procedures that pass through tissue

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103
Q

what type of gel is used when mucous membranes are intact?

A

bacteriostatic gel packaged in single used containers

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104
Q

how often should gel warmers be cleaned?

A

weekly or immediately if warmer becomes soiled

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105
Q

what do you clean gel warmers with?

A

low level disinfectant

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106
Q

how is gel placed on the patient?

A

indirectly (bottle doesn’t touch patient)

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107
Q

why is the gel not placed onto the transducer?

A

patient safety (infection control) it would contaminate the bottle

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108
Q

why do we follow the intracavity safety procedures?

A
  • keep the sonographer safe from bodily fluids

- protect patient from cross contamination

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109
Q

what should be worn when doing invasive procedures?

A
  • GLOVES

- gown if circumstances indicate a heavier amount of fluid

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110
Q

how do you clean the probe before putting it into the Trophon?

A

wash the probe thoroughly and visually inspect it. Once washed clean, rinsing under warm water will ensure any residual gel is gone from crevices. Once you inspect the probe you can dry it completely before starting the HLD

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111
Q

where is cleaning and HLD preformed?

A

in the dirty room which is equipped with a sink, eye wash station, and any cleaning agents required

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112
Q

what is the difference between disinfecting and sterilizing?

A

Disinfectant is the process of eliminating or reducing harmful bacteria and sterilization is killing all harmful bacteria

113
Q

what invasive procedure require sterile instruments?

A

biopsies and aspirations

114
Q

what is low level disinfection used for?

A

Noncritical items that come in contact with intact skin

115
Q

what are noncritical patient care items?

A

bedpans and blood pressure cuffs

116
Q

what are noncritical environmental surfaces?

A

bed rails, food utensils and bedside furniture

117
Q

what is intermediate level disinfection used for?

A

Noncritical items that may come in contact with non-intact skin but for a brief period of time

118
Q

what are intermediate level disinfectants?

A

chemical agents that do not kill bacterial spores but are tuberculocidal and kill other disease producing microbes

119
Q

what is high level disinfection used for?

A

Semi critical items that come in contact with mucous membranes or non intact skin

120
Q

what instruments would you use high level disinfection on?

A

anaesthesia equipment, endoscopes, cystoscopes and ultrasound probes for certain exams

121
Q

what should also be considered when choosing a disinfectant?

A

whether the chemical will degrade the plastic

122
Q

what is sterilization used for?

A

Critical items with high risk for infection if contaminated with microorganisms

123
Q

when would you use sterilization?

A

any invasive procedures including surgeries, cardiac and urinary catheters, biopsies, aspiration

124
Q

who sterilizes the instruments?

A

the sonographer but in bigger departments, nurses or a certain worker dedicated to that will do it

125
Q

describe steam sterilization

A

Steam sterilization saturates the item with steam under high pressure. Steam under pressure gets hotter

126
Q

is steam sterilization always used?

A

This method is not used on some instruments due to corrosion or a reduced ability to transmit light such as a laryngoscope

127
Q

when is low temperature sterilization used?

A

used for temperature and moist sensitive medical devices

128
Q

what temperature is used in low temp. sterilization?

A

under 60

129
Q

what gas does low temp. use?

A

ethylene oxide (ETO) alongside a stabilizing gas

130
Q

what is another low temperature sterilization?

A

chemical sterilization using hydrogen peroxide gas plasma

131
Q

what is chemical sterilization using hydrogen peroxide gas plasma used for?

A

plastics and electrical devices that cannot tolerate high temperatures or humidity. The cycle is less than an hour

132
Q

when are dry heat sterilizers required?

A

items damaged by moist heat and those items impenetrable to moist heat

133
Q

how do you maintain sterility once your instruments are sterilized?

A

Rigid containers, peel open pouches or sterilization wraps

134
Q

are chemical indicators heat or chemical sensitive?

A

both

135
Q

Following the sterilization process, how must medical and surgical devices must be handled?

A

using the ASEPTIC technique

-reducing the risk of contaminating

136
Q

what is the ASEPTIC technique?

A

opening a sterile box

137
Q

how do you open a sterile box?

A
  • open flap away from you
  • NEVER touch the inside
  • do not reach over it
  • don’t go over the margin of error (Inch)
  • open the sides
  • open last flap towards you
138
Q

is the package is wet on the outside is it considered sterile?

A

no because we don’t know if the water is dirty or bacteria can grow (that’s why drying hands completes washing hands)

139
Q

how do we know a package stays sterile?

A
  • organizations will date their sterilized packages
  • first in, first out policy is used (oldest one gets used first)
  • some organizations say its sterile until an event occurs such as torn or wet
140
Q

what factors could affect maintained sterility?

A
  • how they were prepared

- if the chemicals used expired or no longer effective

141
Q

what do you do if you dropped an instrument or a package is wet or torn?

A

items should be re-cleaned, packages in new wrap and sterilized again

142
Q

should our console be wiped in between each patient?

A

yes, our hands are considered dirty

143
Q

when could we be outside the scan room and in the administrative area?

A

Going to get patient, writing reports outside of scan room, talking to radiologist, transferring a patient, if you need help (ultrasound guided surgery, e.t.c)

144
Q

what are the 2 things we will most likely touch when outside the scan room?

A

computer or phone or scanning of a requisition

145
Q

why are pens, paper clips, e.t.c a concern?

A

We use them so often so we don’t realize that there a possible way of transmission

146
Q

why might no one clean regular office supplies like pens, paper clips, e.t.c?

A

There using them so they don’t want to interfere with work

147
Q

should you perform hand hygiene after doing administrative duties?

A

yes

148
Q

how many times does your hands touch your face?

A

50 times an hour

149
Q

what questions need to be asked when on the phone with a patient?

A

do they have allergies, letting them know if they have to fast, e.t.c, if there coughing ask if they are sick (because if they show 2 or more symptoms then they need a mask)

150
Q

what do you do if the patient has a disease such as MRSA?

A

the patient must be flagged in such a way that upon reception certain procedures can take place

151
Q

Where do we seat a patient on contact precautions & why?

A

Limit the amount of places their touching, limit the amount of contact with staff or other people, so place them directly in the room that all scans can be done with one staff member

152
Q

should the table or chair of an infected person be cleaned?

A

yes it should be wiped down

153
Q

if the patient is under contact precautions then what should the sonographer wear?

A
  • gloves

- gown

154
Q

what are some infectious diseases needed to be taken under precaution?

A
  • MRSA
  • VRE
  • C. Diff
155
Q

where does C. Diff infect in the body?

A

intestines

156
Q

where does VRE infect in the body?

A
  • more in the back end of intestines
  • bladder
  • wounds
  • female genital tract
157
Q

how do you clean if a patient has no issues of bowel control loss?

A

preform routine cleaning of the work surface

158
Q

what do you ask a patient if they mention over the phone that they have a respiratory infection?

A

ask if they have a fever

if so then they need a mask

159
Q

what protects the people at a reception desk?

A

Conversations aren’t long, Glass barriers (violence, infection control privacy), wide desk for a barrier

160
Q

when is a sterile tray opened?

A

directly before the exam

161
Q

when can items be added to an open tray?

A

right after it is opened, usually contained in peal packs

162
Q

what is antigenic shift vs. antigenic drift?

A

drift=mutations-new traits (green eyes)

shift=shared traits-traits are coming together (blonde, curly hair)

163
Q

does TB have a cure or treatment?

A

cure

164
Q

does Hep B have a cure or treatment?

A

treatment

165
Q

does Hep C have a cure or treatment?

A

cure

166
Q

Does HIV have a cure or treatment?

A

treatment

167
Q

what is the difference between a treatment and cure?

A

treatment reduces symptoms and cure eliminates pathogen from the body

168
Q

why do we learn infection control?

A

infections can cause pandemics, epidemics which could harm or kill people. Diseases can spread quickly and easily if your precautions aren’t correct or aren’t followed. This cause have economic impacts because it becomes costly to get and prepare instruments, treatments, e.t.c. The more people that are sick the more it effects society. Such as less people working and providing for others. we don’t just spread locally but also internationally and certain people don’t have access to meds, treatments, e.t.c. Disease mutate and the more people the diseases are infecting, the stronger they can get

169
Q

what are some possible means of contact with blood borne pathogens?

A
  • needle injuries
  • cuts, wounds
  • mucous membranes
170
Q

what are some potentially infected body fluids?

A 
Semen, vaginal secretions,
cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid,
pleural and peritoneal fluid,
amniotic fluid,
saliva
Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood
171
Q

what factors affect the risk of exposures of blood?

A
  • number of infected individuals
  • type of contact
  • number of contacts
172
Q

do most exposures result in infection?

A

NO

173
Q

what do you do following a blood exposure?

A
  • wash needle sticks and cuts with soap and water
  • flush splashes to nose, mouth, or skin with water
  • irrigate eyes with water or saline (many departments have eye wash stations
174
Q

how can occupational exposures be prevented?

A
  • wear PPE
  • be careful and mindful
  • cover sharps when not being used
  • use sharps safety
175
Q

what do you do if you cut yourself at work?

A
  • let it bleed and wash
  • let superior know
  • get treatment if exposed
176
Q

what are the 3 most common pathogens?

A
  • HBV
  • HCV
  • HIV
177
Q

What is HBV not spread from?

A

HBV is NOT spread from sharing utensils, hugging or kissing, or coughing or sneezinf

178
Q

how is HBV most commonly contracted?

A

through sex fluids or pregnancy

179
Q

how is HCV contracted?

A

blood and sexual transmission or pregancy

180
Q

how can the public contract HCV?

A

public by sexual transmission (same as hepatitis) and blood exposure

181
Q

is the flu or HCV easier to catch?

A

the flu

182
Q

Is HCV or HBV more commonly contracted?

A

HCV

183
Q

can HCV, HBV, and HIV live outside the body?

A

no

184
Q

are you at any risk if you have received the HBV vaccine?

A

no risk for infection

185
Q

how much more infectious is HIV than HBV?

A

50-100x

186
Q

can you get HBV from intact skin?

A

no

187
Q

can you get HCV from intact skin?

A

no

188
Q

can HCV infect you from a splash to the eye?

A

yes

189
Q

what percent is the risk after exposure to non-intact skin?

A

0.1%

190
Q

since the HBV vaccine what percent has the number of infections decreased by?

A

95%

191
Q

what percent of hospital healthcare workers have evidence if HCV infection?

A

1% but 3% in USA

192
Q

in a period of 16 years CDC has received reports of 57 documented cases and 138 possible cases of what?

A

occupationally-acquired HIV infection

193
Q

is the Hep B vaccine available?

A

yes

194
Q

when should workers be tested after vaccine is completed to make sure the vaccination provided immunity?

A

1-2 months

195
Q

what is helpful with preventing HBV infection after an exposure?

A

Hep B immune globulin (HBIG) and vaccine

196
Q

for HVC treatment what is not recommended after exposure?

A

immune globulin or antiviral therapy

197
Q

for HIV what is recommended for certain occupational exposures posting a risk of transmission?

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)

(a just in case study) unless the exposure has a risk because their is a possibility of side effects

198
Q

what do you do if the exposure to blood id from someone whose infection status is unknown?

A
  • get your blood tested

- assume their infected

199
Q

if once infected, the source cannot be identified, follow up is based on ________

A

extra risk and if their likely to be infected and whether they are likely to be infected with a blood borne pathogen

200
Q

how soon should treatment start after exposure?

A

ASAP

201
Q

are Hep B vaccine and HBIG and HIV FDA drug approved?

A

yes

202
Q

All antiviral drugs for HIV have associated

A

side effects if taken with other medication

203
Q

can pregnant women receive the HBV vaccine?

A

yes, there is no harm to the fetus

204
Q

what are some signs of hepatitis?

A

-mustard yellow skin and eyes

liver cannot process uric acid and goes to body

205
Q

when should HIV follow up occur?

A

antibody should occur as soon as possible after exposure for a baseline and periodically for at least 6 months

206
Q

what are signs and symptoms of HIV virus?

A

involves fever, rash muscle aches, tiredness, malaise or swollen glands or flu like symptoms

207
Q

what are the precautions for HBV once treatment is received?

A

no precautions

208
Q

what are the precautions for HCV once treatment is received?

A

no precautions

209
Q

what are the precautions for HIV after treatment?

A

for the first 6-12 weeks when most are expected to show signs of infection, take all precautions to prevent transmission of HIV

210
Q

what is the best way to prevent occupation infections of HBV, HCV, and HIV?

A

Preventing occupational exposures to blood

211
Q

to prevent occupational exposures we must wear ____. we must handle needles and sharp instruments safely and use devices with _________

A

to prevent occupational exposures we must wear PPE. we must handle needles and sharp instruments safely and use devices with safety features

212
Q

what organization strives to guide and support their clients to achieve the healthiest and safest workplaces.

A

The PSHSA Public Service Health and Safety Association is a designated association under the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act

213
Q

there are policies relates to what?

A

correctly cleaning equipment or furniture, environmental surfaces

214
Q

where can you find policy and procedure manuals?

A

easily accessed on any computer

215
Q

are their policies and procedures to protect an individuals reproductive health? what does this include?

A

yes, includes high risk diseases and hazardous chemicals that could cause harm to a pregnant worker or their nursing child

216
Q

how often are infection control policies reviewed?

A

at least annually

217
Q

who adjusts the infection control policies?

A
  • PHO (public health Ontario)
  • PIDAC (Provincial Infectious Disease Advisory Committee)
  • PHAC (Public Health Agency of Canada)
218
Q

what do quality assurance programs include?

A
  • training records
  • infection data
  • influenza immunization rates
  • program audits
219
Q

what is an program audit that can be placed?

A

hand hygiene

220
Q

what happens if staff acquire certain diseases?

A

work restrictions
(place to prevent transmission to other workers or patient)
ex) norovirus

221
Q

are there policies regarding transport of patients to other areas?

A

yes

222
Q

what do organizations have with immunization programs?

A
  • routine immunizations offered to all staff
  • annual vaccination policies
  • guidelines for susceptible immunocompromised staff regarding immunization, fitness for work and work restriction
223
Q

what are some environmental services infection control?

A
  • daily cleaning of cleaning carts
  • the use of wet and microfibre cloths to prevent dispersion of contaminants into the air
  • schedules
224
Q

what do the schedules for environmental services infection control include?

A
  • frequency of cleaning
  • what disinfectants to use
  • PPE if required
225
Q

how often and with who should the pandemic plan review take place?

A

annually with the Joint Health and Safety Committee (JHSC)

226
Q

what is the difference between internal and external outreaks?

A

ex) inside hospital vs. community

227
Q

what services are given for internal and external outbreaks?

A
  • key government contacts
  • specialized training
  • access to more PPE
  • mock drill
  • support services (both psychological and social)
  • decontamination strategies -screening and surveillance of the workers
228
Q

what is used for notification for an outbreak response?

A

fan-out protocol

229
Q

During an outbreak staff receive immediate resources for training for safe work practices, what does this include?

A
  • signs and symptoms of the disease
  • risk of transmission
  • disease specific precautions
  • proper use and disposal of equipment and hygiene practices
230
Q

what must biomedical waste containers contain?

A
  • leak proof
  • tight fitting cover
  • clearly marked as biomedical waste
231
Q

how often should biomedical waste containers be emptied?

A

daily

232
Q

when you are exposed to blood or bodily fluids it is recorded, what info is recorded?

A
  • date
  • time
  • location of exposure
  • the workers task at the time
  • any equipment involved
  • first aid or advice given to worker
  • post exposure or prophylaxis if required
233
Q

when exposed to blood or bodily fluids what else is done bedsides being recorded?

A

a risk assessment to find contributing factors to the exposure and any steps taken by the organization to minimize injury

234
Q

what PPE is required for airborne exposures?

A

N95 respirators with proper fit testing

235
Q

what is the process called where you select the size of your respirator?

A

N95 respirator fit testing

236
Q

when is a fit testing done again?

A
  • every 2 years

- worker has a change in physical condition (gain weight)

237
Q

how often is inspection of ventilation systems required?

A

every 6 months

238
Q

when are special ventilations implemented?

A

during construction projects due to the potential of infections for the occupants of a healthcare facility

239
Q

how often should negative pressure rooms call for air exchanges and to what disease?

A

12 complete air exchanges per hour with regard to tuberculosis and other airborne precautions

240
Q

can doors and windows to negative pressure rooms be kept open?

A

no they must be closed

241
Q

how long are the doors kept closed to a negative pressure room after discharge?

A

until sufficient time has elapsed to allow removal of the airborne organism

242
Q

what measures are taken for laundry of a sick patient?

A
  • safe handling
  • transport
  • cleaning
  • storage
  • disposal
243
Q

where are soiled linen bags available?

A

at point of use and are impervious (not allowing fluid to flow through)

244
Q

what do laboratory services essentially do analysis of?

A
  • urine
  • feces
  • blood
  • pus
245
Q

what are all work areas, cabinets, and floors made of in a lab?

A

smooth non porous / impervious materials due to the likelihood of spills

246
Q

what do incubators, refrigerators, and freezers have to detect problems related to power supply or temperature?

A

signage of biohazards and have alarms & monitors to detect problems

247
Q

what is a centrifuge?

A

container that spins the specimen

248
Q

what protects the users of a centrifuge from infectious agents?

A

biological safety cabinets

249
Q

how long can manual preprocessing take to complete?

A

20 minutes

250
Q

what has RNA with a protein coat?

A

virus

251
Q

what has DNA with no membrane?

A

bacteria

252
Q

how is a virus treated?

A

vaccine

253
Q

how is bacteria treated?

A

antibiotics

254
Q

what requires a host?

A

virus

255
Q

what are examples of bacteria?

A

micrococcus, staphylococcus, vacillus

256
Q

what are parasites?

A

single celled organisms that divide within a host

257
Q

what is an example of protozoa?

A

toxoplasmosis

258
Q

how is giardiasis contracted?

A

through contaminated water with protozoa giardia

259
Q

helminths excamples

A

round worms or tapeworms

260
Q

what are symptoms of C Diff?

A

abdominal pain and watery diarrhea

261
Q

what does vector mean?

A

an insect has stung/bitten you and gotten these diseases into your bloodstream

262
Q

how is MRSA contracted?

A

enters body through surgical wounds or spread with contact from an infected object

263
Q

can MRSA be treated with antibiotics?

A

not easily

264
Q

where does VRE infect?

A

bowel and urinary tract

265
Q

what are the important pieces of info on the front of a door outside of patients room?

A
  • stop sign
  • type of PPE
  • type of spread
  • go see nurse before entering room
266
Q

when is it necessary to change your gloves?

A
  • torn or ripped
  • visibly dirty
  • between patients
267
Q

what is the correct order for donning PPE?

A
  • gown
  • mask
  • goggles
  • respirator
  • gloves (over gown)
268
Q

what is the correct order for doffing PPE?

A
  • gloves
  • goggles
  • gown
  • mask
  • respirator
269
Q

what are the expanded precautions?

A

contact-gown and gloves
droplet-surgical mask
airborne-respirator and negative pressure room

270
Q

what are the 2 subtypes of influenza A?

A
  • haemagglutinin (18 subtypes)

- neuraminidase (11 subtypes)

271
Q

what are current influenza A viruses found in humans?

A

H1N1

H3N2

272
Q

how long do adults remain infectious?

A

3-5 days after onset symtoms

273
Q

how long do children remain infectious?

A

up to 1 week after onset symptoms

274
Q

what are essential criteria for a sharps container?

A
  • puncture proof
  • sealable lid
  • biohazardous symbol
  • fill line
  • rigid
275
Q

which is more infectious, HIV or HBV?

A

HBV

276
Q

how long is the HIV follow up?

A

6 months

277
Q

where does MRSA affect in the body?

A

mostly skin

278
Q

what are the symtoms of VRE and how is it spread?

A

pain in region of infection and fever

spread through contact

Infection Control (2 decks)

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