FINAL Flashcards

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1
Q

a definition of the variable in terms of precisely how it is to be measured

A

operational definition

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2
Q

Give an operational definition for measuring employee satisfaction.

A

Rating of job satisfaction from 1 (not satisfied) to 9 (extremely satisfied)

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3
Q

Give an operational definition for measuring intelligence.

A

Score on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test

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4
Q

What is the primary method of survey research?

A

questionnaires

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5
Q

What does survey research aim to measure?

A

associations between variables

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6
Q

a non-experimental method of research using a prepared set of written questions for self-completion

A

questionnaire

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7
Q

What does experimental research aim to measure?

A

the relations between the independent variable that is manipulated (cause) and the dependent variable or resultant change in behavior (effect)

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8
Q

experiments that examine the effects of a variable that is not directly under the researcher’s control (student age or gender) on outcomes such as achievement or performance level

A

quasi-experimental designs

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9
Q

in an experiment, the variable that is manipulated by the experimenter as a means of determining cause-and-effect relations

A

independent variable

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10
Q

in an experiment, the variable that is measured to demonstrate whether its value was affected by the independent variable

A

dependent variable

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11
Q

What 3 conditions must be met before we can make a causal inference?

A

1) covariation
2) time-order relationship
3) elimination of plausible alternative causes

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12
Q

How is covariation measured in an experiment?

A

there is a relationship between the independent and dependent variables

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13
Q

How is a time-order relationship measured in an experiment?

A

the presumed cause precedes the effect

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14
Q

How do you eliminate plausible alternative causes in an experiment?

A

by using control techniques, you rule out other possible causes for the outcome

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15
Q
  • a factor other than the independent variable that may cause a result (third variable)
  • provides an alternative explanation for any observed difference in the dependent variable
A

confounding variable

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16
Q

what is present when the independent variable of interest and a different, extraneous variable are allowed to covary (go together)?

A

confounding variable

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17
Q

What does IRB stand for?

A

Institutional Review Board

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18
Q

a committee that is responsible for reviewing research protocols for potential ethical problems

A

IRB

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19
Q

Why do we have in IRB?

A

to protect human subjects involved in research

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20
Q

What 4 things is the IRB looking for (what critical question are they asking) when they are evaluating whether a study can proceed or not?

A

1) risks are minimized
2) benefits outweigh the risks
3) research carried out in a fair manner
4) informed consent procedure is adequate

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21
Q

an approach to the study of psychology which focuses entirely on observable events and the behaviors associated with them, without referring to the mind and emotions

A

behaviourism

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22
Q

What did Pavlov discover with his dog experiment?

A

classical conditioning

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23
Q

the learning of an association between 2 stimuli, the first of which (the conditioned stimulus) predicts the occurrence of the second (the unconditioned stimulus)

A

classical conditioning

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24
Q

What did Skinner discover with his rat experiment?

A

operant conditioning

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25
Q

the learning of a specific behavior or response because that behavior has certain consequences

A

operant conditioning

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26
Q

How does positive reinforcement work?

A
  • You behave in a certain way that results in a reward, and as a result, you are more likely to repeat that behavior (presence of pleasant stimulus)
  • example: A father gives his daughter candy (reinforcing stimulus) for cleaning up toys (behavior)
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27
Q

How does negative reinforcement work?

A
  • you behave in a certain way that results in the removal of something unpleasant, and as a result you are more likely to repeat that behavior (absence of an unpleasant stimulus)
  • example: Kaelyn honks the car horn when the light turns green (behavior) so the car in front of her (aversive stimulus) will move.
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28
Q

A consequence that follows a behavior so you do the behavior less often in the future

A

punishment

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29
Q

What is the end result of reinforcement?

A

increase the behavior

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30
Q

What is the end result of punishment?

A

decrease the behavior

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31
Q

How does positive punishment work?

A
  • a negative consequence is presented after an undesired behavior is exhibited
  • example: A child picks his nose during class (behavior) and the teacher reprimands him (aversive stimulus) in front of his classmates.
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32
Q

How does negative punishment work?

A
  • a certain desired stimulus/item is removed after a particular undesired behavior is exhibited
    example: A child fights with her brother (behavior) and has her favorite toy taken away (reinforcing stimulus removed).
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33
Q

a process of reinforcing a series of responses that increasingly resemble the desired final behavior

A

shaping

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34
Q

learning through imitation

A

observational learning

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35
Q

a theory focused on how children construct their knowledge and understanding based on their experiences; views child as mini-scientist

A

Piaget’s cognitive theory

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36
Q

when there’s an inconsistency between the learner’s cognitive structure and the thing being learned, the child will reorganize his/her already existing structure

A

accommodation

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37
Q

process of matching external reality (new information or experiences) to an existing cognitive structure

A

assimilation

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38
Q

a state experienced by a child when encountering new experiences that do not map onto his or her existing schemes

A

disequilibrium

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39
Q

a child’s ability to understand that objects still exist after they are no longer in sight

A

object permanence

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40
Q

the child understands that changing the form of a substance or object does not change its amount, overall volume, or mass

A

conservation

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41
Q

the ability to recognize relationships among various things in a serial order

A

transitivity

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42
Q

a child’s inability to see a situation from another person’s point of view

A

egocentrism

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43
Q

the distance between what a child can do unaided and what he or she can achieve with the guidance and support of a more competent other

A

zone of proximal development

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44
Q

the way in which a child’s efforts to master a new or challenging task can be supported in a flexible and contingent way by adults or more competent partners

A

scaffolding

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45
Q

what are the main points of Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory?

A
  • social interaction influences cognitive development
  • biological and cultural development do not occur in isolation
  • language plays a major role in cognitive development
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46
Q

Describes cognitive development as changes in processing of information

A

Information-Processing theory

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47
Q

what is the capacity of sensory memory?

A

very low

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48
Q

what is the duration of sensory memory?

A

2-3 seconds or less

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49
Q

what is the capacity of working memory?

A

limited

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50
Q

what is the duration of working memory?

A

less than a minute

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51
Q

what is the capacity of long term memory?

A

unlimited

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52
Q

what is the duration of long term memory?

A

long (permanent)

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53
Q

What is the role of attention in the information-processing theory?

A

taking notice and observing

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54
Q

the process of remembering information stored in long-term memory

A

retrieval

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55
Q

allows the perceived item of use or interest to be converted into a construct that can be stored within the brain and recalled later from short-term or long-term memory; the first stage of memory

A

encoding

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56
Q

repeating information over and over again

A

rehearsal

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57
Q

forming associations between information one is trying to learn with information already stored in memory

A

elaboration

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58
Q

techniques a person can use to help them improve their ability to remember something; a simple shortcut that helps us associate the information we want to remember with an image, a sentence, or a word

A

mnemonics

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59
Q

the process by which the mind divides large pieces of information into smaller units that are easier to retain in short-term memory

A

chunking

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60
Q

the process by which the mind divides large pieces of information into smaller units (chunks) that are easier to retain in short-term memory

A

testing effect

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61
Q

we learn material more effectively and easily when we study it several times spaced out over a longer time span, rather than trying to learn it in a short period of time

A

spacing effect

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62
Q
  • The ability to judge well, to understand well, to reason well
  • the ability to solve problems, to adapt to new environments, to learn from new experiences
A

intelligence

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63
Q

Who developed the Hierarchal Theory of Intelligence?

A

Cattell

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64
Q

the ability to use skills, knowledge, and experience

A

crystallized intelligence

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65
Q

the ability to find and solve novel, abstract problems

A

fluid intelligence

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66
Q

who proposed the single-factor theory of intelligence?

A

Spearman

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67
Q

How does Spearman view intelligence?

A

it is a general cognitive ability that can be measured and numerically expressed

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68
Q

who developed the primary mental abilities theory?

A

Thurstone

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69
Q

how does Thurstone view intelligence?

A

not as a single general ability, but as seven different primary mental abilities:

1) verbal comprehension
2) reasoning
3) perceptual speed
4) numerical ability
5) word fluency
6) associative memory
7) spatial visualization

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70
Q

How does Sternberg view intelligence?

A

“successful intelligence” is comprised of three separate, though interrelated, abilities:

1) analytic intelligence
2) creative intelligence
3) practical intelligence

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71
Q

Who developed the theory of multiple intelligences?

A

Gardner

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72
Q

How does Garner view intelligence?

A

there are eight relatively independent human intelligences based on skills and abilities valued in different cultures:

1) Visual-spatial
2) Verbal-linguistic
3) Bodily-kinesthetic
4) Logical-mathematical
5) Interpersonal
6) Musical
7) Intrapersonal
8) Naturalistic

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73
Q

How do entity theorists view intelligence?

A

it is fixed and stable

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74
Q

how do incremental theorists view intelligence?

A

it is malleable/changeable

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75
Q

who developed the idea of the two implicit theories of intelligence known as “entity” and “incremental”?

A

Dweck

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76
Q

mental steps or “components” used to solve problems

A

analytic intelligence

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77
Q

use of experience in ways that foster insight

A

creative intelligence

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78
Q

ability to read and adapt to the contexts of everyday life

A

practical intelligence

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79
Q

What is IDEA?

A

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act

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80
Q

what are the 6 major principles of IDEA?

A

1) zero reject
2) non-discriminatory identification and evaluation
3) Free Appropriate Public Education (FAPE)
4) Least Restrictive Environment (LRE)
5) procedural safeguards
6) parent and student participation and shared decision making

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81
Q

Which two biological systems are activated in response to stress?

A

1) Sympathetic Adrenal Medullary System (SAM)

2) Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal Axis (HPA)

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82
Q

The biological response to stress is _________.

A

adaptive

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83
Q

The risk of what disease is increased with repeated activation of the stress response system? Through what?

A

cardiovascular disease; atherosclerosis

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84
Q

What three things can sustained activation of the stress response do to the body?

A

1) equal memory and learning impairments
2) suppress immune responses
3) change brain architecture

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85
Q

a range of negative perceptions and reactions experienced when pressure becomes too much

A

stress

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86
Q

the ways in which the HPA axis, the autonomic nervous system, the cardiovascular system and the immune system work together to help the body adapt to stress

A

allostasis

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87
Q

the body is exposed to chronic stressors resulting in physical changes such as increased release of stress hormones and changes in immune system functioning

A

allostatic load

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88
Q

a physiological response to stress leading to the release of adrenalin and noradrenalin to put the body on alert

A

sympathetic adrenal medullary system (SAM)

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89
Q

What response is related to the sympathetic medullary system response?

A

fight or flight

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90
Q

a physiological response to stress leading to the production of the stress hormone known as cortisol

A

hypothalamic pituitary-adrenal axis system (HPA)

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91
Q

the build-up of fatty plaques in the lining of the blood vessels which leads to narrowing of the arteries

A

atherosclerosis

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92
Q

What are the 5 key dimensions of personality in the Big Five Personality Model?

A
Openness to experience
Conscientiousness
Extraversion
Agreeableness
Neuroticism
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93
Q

What traits are associated with openness in the Big Five?

A

imagination, feelings, actions, ideas

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94
Q

What traits are associated with conscientiousness in the Big Five?

A

competence, self-discipline, thoughtfulness, goal-driven

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95
Q

What traits are associated with extroversion in the Big Five?

A

sociability, assertiveness, emotional expression

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96
Q

What traits are associated with agreeableness in the Big Five?

A

cooperative, trustworthy, good-natured

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97
Q

What traits are associated with neuroticism in the Big Five?

A

tendency toward unstable emotions

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98
Q

the tendency to experience negative emotions such as distress, anxiety, fear, and guilt

A

neuroticism

99
Q

What 2 health behaviors are linked to neuroticism?

A

smoking and alcohol consumption

100
Q

Extraverts have high levels of _________ where introverts have low levels of _________.

A

extraversion

101
Q

What positive health behavior has extraversion been linked to? Negative?

A

exercise; smoking

102
Q

the ability to control one’s behavior and complete tasks

A

conscientiousness

103
Q

What type of health behaviors is conscientiousness positively related to? Negatively?

A

protective health behaviors; risky health behaviors

104
Q

an unpleasant feeling arising in an individual when two or more cognitions are inconsistent or when the person’s behavior is inconsistent with their underlying attitudes

A

cognitive dissonance

105
Q

considers the factors that influence the extent to which a message is systematically processed (cognitive elaboration)

A

Elaboration Likelihood Model

106
Q

requires careful and systematic consideration of the message, and so involves significant cognitive effort

A

Central (systematic) route

107
Q

requires little cognitive effort and persuasion depends on the presence of peripheral cues rather than the in-depth processing of messages

A

peripheral (heuristic) route

108
Q

situational, personal, leadership, and team factors that influence performance and satisfaction

A

group cohesion

109
Q

Cohesive groups are characterized by members who…

A
  • past performance, efficacy
  • have role clarity
  • accept and understand the scope of their responsibility
  • know the behaviors necessary to fulfill these roles and how they are evaluated
  • know the consequences should they fail to fulfill their responsibilities
110
Q

includes our emotional, psychological, and social well-being. It affects how we think, feel, and act. it also helps determine how we handle stress, relate to others, and make choices.

A

mental health

111
Q

characterized by prejudicial attitudes and discriminating behavior directed towards individuals with mental health problems as a result of the psychiatric label they have been given

A

social stigma

112
Q

the internalizing by the mental health sufferer of their perceptions of discrimination

A

perceived stigma

113
Q

what are some symptoms of OCD?

A
  • fear of contamination
  • causing harm to others
  • expressing an unacceptably sexual, aggressive, or immoral impulse
114
Q

typified by a constant chronic non-specific worry and anxiety

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)

115
Q

most likely GAD sufferers are not “_____ _________”

A

born worriers

116
Q

individuals with GAD are in a state of _______ ____________.

A

constant hypervigilance

117
Q

those with GAD are more likely to allocate attention to ____________ ________ and information.

A

threatening stimuli

118
Q

GAD sufferers strongly believe that worrying protects them from _________ ________.

A

negative outcomes

119
Q

What are some of the established psychological features?

A
  • intolerant of uncertainty
  • high on perfectionism
  • feel responsible for negative outcomes
  • poor problem-solving confidence
120
Q

Evidence suggests that GAD sufferers may have developed what 3 cognitive biases?

A
  • information processing biases
  • dysfunctional beliefs
  • dispositional characteristics
121
Q

What are the symptoms of depression?

A
  • frequent crying and overwhelming sadness
  • feelings of hopelessness and worthlessness
  • excessive sleeping or the inability to sleep
  • anxiety
  • anger
  • difficulty enjoying previously enjoyed activities
  • headaches or muscle pain
  • difficulty concentrating
  • changes in weight or eating habits
  • thoughts of suicide
122
Q

a theory introducing the idea that depression could be caused by biases in ways of thinking and processing information

A

Beck’s cognition theory

123
Q

What 3 things do those with depression have negative views towards in the negative triad?

A

1) themselves
2) future
3) world

124
Q

a theory of depression that argues that people become depressed following unavoidable negative life events because these events give rise to a way of thinking that makes them learn to become ‘helpless’

A

learned helplessness

125
Q

the argument that people learn to become helpless and hopeless because they explain their behavior and events by attributing them to causes that generate pessimistic thinking

A

attributional theories of depression

126
Q

People who are likely to become depressed attribute negative life events to what 3 factors?

A

1) internal
2) stable
3) global

127
Q

an expectation that positive outcomes will not occur, negative outcomes will occur, and that the individual has no way to change this

A

hopelessness

128
Q

The hopelessness theory differs from basic attributional accounts by predicting that other factors, such as ____ _________, may also be involved as vulnerability factors.

A

low self-esteem

129
Q

What are symptoms of autism?

A
  • The child seems withdrawn
  • Failure to develop normal means of communication
  • Disinterest in his or her surroundings
  • Difficulty learning new skills
130
Q

What are the symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • Disturbances in thought and language, sensory perception, emotion regulation and behavior
  • Sensory hallucinations
  • Thought disorders, which may lead to pervasive false beliefs or delusions about themselves and the world around them
  • Withdrawal from day-to-day activities
131
Q

the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia are thought to be caused by a combination of a ___________ _____________ and ____________ _______.

A

biological predisposition; environmental stress

132
Q

What type of disorder is schizophrenia?

A

heterogeneous

133
Q

What neurotransmitter has been implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

A

dopamine

134
Q

What four factors are important in contributing to the development of the cognitive biases involved in schizophrenia?

A

1) anomalous experiences that have no simple explanation
2) anxiety, depression, and worry
3) reasoning biases
4) social factors

135
Q

the sociogenic hypothesis claims that individuals in ______ socioeconomic status are more vulnerable to develop schizophrenia because of their _______ levels of ________ _____ ______.

A

lower; higher; stressful life events

136
Q

a general term used to describe communication that is difficult for ordinary listeners to follow and leaves them puzzled and unable to share a focus of attention with the speaker

A

communication deviance (CD)

137
Q
  • a qualitative measure of the ‘amount’ of emotion displayed, typically in the family setting
  • high levels of criticism, hostility and emotional involvement between key members of a family
A

expressed emotion (EE)

138
Q

a motivational theory in psychology comprising a five-tier model of human needs

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

139
Q

What is the first (bottom) level of Maslow’s pyramid? Which needs are in this level?

A

Physiological needs: breathing, food, water, shelter, clothing, sleep

140
Q

What is the second level of Maslow’s pyramid? Which needs are in this level?

A

safety and security: health, employment, property, family and social stability

141
Q

What is the third level of Maslow’s pyramid? Which needs are in this level?

A

Love and belonging: friendship, family, intimacy, sense of connection

142
Q

What is the fourth level of Maslow’s pyramid? Which needs are in this level?

A

self-esteem: confidence, achievement, respect of others, need to be a unique individual

143
Q

What is the fifth (top) level of Maslow’s pyramid? Which needs are in this level?

A

self-actualisation: morality, creativity, spontaneity, acceptance, experience purpose, meaning and inner potential

144
Q

a concept showing how individuals go through different stages when working with a particular employer

A

employee life cycle

145
Q

hiring people for work

A

recruitment

146
Q

in occupational psychology research and practice, a paradigm concerned with predicting the extent to which results from particular selection tools are linked to positive performance outcomes in the workplace

A

predictivist perspective

147
Q

What is the aim of the predictivist perspective?

A

matching the right people to particular jobs

148
Q

in occupational psychology research and practice, a paradigm that acknowledges that any selection process is a social one with the focus on matching people to organizations and teams

A

constructivist perspective

149
Q

according the predictivist perspective, a job is a _______ ______ that can be explained, made explicit, and quantified.

A

stable entity

150
Q

What psychometric principles are important in the predictivist perspective?

A

reliability, validity, standardization, freedom from bias

151
Q

What is the aim of the constructivist perspective?

A

match people to organizations/teams

152
Q

What is emphasized in the constructivist perspective?

A

fit

153
Q

what process is used by employees in the constructivist perspective and why is it used?

A

selection process; to find out facts about one another

154
Q

Who has the last decision in the constructivist perspective?

A

applicant

155
Q

What 2 things are important in the constructivist perspective?

A

1) applicant reactions

2) face validity

156
Q

What are the 2 categories of motivation theories?

A

1) content theories

2) process theories

157
Q

What question is answered by content theories?

A

What motivates people’s behavior?

158
Q

what are 2 examples of content theories?

A

1) need theories

2) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

159
Q

individuals perform at their best when innate needs (being secure) are met

A

need theories

160
Q

deal with processes such as cost-benefit calculations, people’s decisions

A

process theories

161
Q

what is an example of a process theory?

A

Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy Theory (VIE)

162
Q

a theory of motivation stating that the level of effort individuals will exert in any task can be computed from three variables: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence

A

Valence-Instrumentality-Expectancy Theory (VIE)

163
Q

the belief that action or effort will lead to a successful outcome

A

expectancy

164
Q

the belief that success will bring rewards

A

instrumentality

165
Q

the desirability of the rewards on offer

A

valence

166
Q

Do groups always work as a team?

A

no

167
Q

system of shared beliefs and values guiding behavior

A

organisational culture

168
Q

allows team members to reflect on performance and overcome difficulties

A

team development

169
Q

what are some examples of process gains?

A
  • social facilitation
  • increased knowledge, ability, and effort
  • conformity
  • diversity of views
  • alignment of team or group task with social identity
170
Q

what are some examples of process losses?

A
  • social inhibition and social loafing
  • failure to use knowledge, ability, and effort
  • group think
  • diversity of views can lead to conflict
  • personal goals and interests more important to identity
171
Q

the process or act of influencing the activities of an organized group in its efforts towards goal setting and goal achievement

A

leadership

172
Q

What are the two styles under the focus of power & influence? (leadership as motivation)

A

1) task-oriented style

2) relationship-oriented style

173
Q

what are the two types of leaders under the origin of power & influence? (leadership as motivation)

A

1) autocratic leaders

2) democratic leaders

174
Q

what 3 factors impact how much leadership control is acceptable?

A

1) acceptability of leader to team members
2) clarity of the task
3) legitimate authority of leader to deliver punishment & rewards

175
Q

what are the 2 types of leaders?

A

1) transactional

2) transformational

176
Q

motivates subordinates to perform expected goals

A

transactional leader

177
Q

inspires people to go further than originally expected

A

transformational leader

178
Q

effective management of ________________ ________ is key to corporate success in today’s business world

A

organizational change

179
Q

a systematic effort applying behavioral science knowledge to the planned creation and reinforcement of organizational strategies, structures, and processes for improving an organization’s effectiveness

A

organizational development

180
Q

All organizational development interventions rely on organizational diagnosis - use of __________ _________.

A

diagnostic methods

181
Q

what are the 3 steps in Lewin’s three-step model of change?

A

1) unfreeze (open up system to change)
2) move (change)
3) freeze (stabilization of change)

182
Q

What are the two types of knowledge acquisition?

A

1) declarative knowledge

2) procedural knowledge

183
Q

refers to knowledge that can be declared or stated - you know that something is the case (facts/figures)

A

declarative knowledge

184
Q

refers to knowledge of procedures - you know how to do something (cognitive/motor skill)

A

procedural knowledge

185
Q

what are three important elements in acquiring declarative knowledge?

A

1) depth of processing
2) meaning
3) organization

186
Q

what are the three types of training involved in acquiring procedural knowledge?

A

1) massed training
2) blocked training
3) random training

187
Q

a lot of training in a short space of time. quicker learning of the skills, but retention is short

A

massed training

188
Q

practice on one task is completed before moving on to the next. more rapid learning of the skill but poorer retention

A

blocked training

189
Q

different tasks are interleaved. better retention and close attention to initiating conditions to make it easier to get it right first time on future occasions

A

random training

190
Q

a theory of decision making concerned with reviewing the options and potential outcomes

A

expected utility theory

191
Q

in the expected utility theory, each outcome has what two attributes?

A

1) value/benefit

2) risk

192
Q

taking the non-optimal choice due to systematic biases in the evaluations made

A

behavioral decision theory

193
Q

People decide which outcomes they consider equivalent, set a reference point and then consider lesser outcomes as losses and greater as gains

A

prospect theory

194
Q

Our thought is bounded by our cognitive limitations, but within these limitations we are rational

A

bounded rationality

195
Q

when we make a judgement based on what we can remember, rather than complete data

A

availability heuristic

196
Q

study of interactions between human workforce & technology at work

A

human-machine interaction

197
Q

through what two components do humans and machines interact through?

A

designs and controls

198
Q

what are the two types of unintended errors in human-machine interaction? What are the two intended errors?

A
Unintended:
1) slips
2) lapses
Intended:
1) mistakes
2) violations
199
Q

intention is correct, action not as intended; failing to attend sufficiently to the task at hand

A

slips

200
Q

intention is correct, actions are omitted; failure of memory

A

lapses

201
Q

intention is correct, action is inappropriate

A

mistakes

202
Q

intention is incorrect

A

violations

203
Q

A cognitive representation of something, symbolising it’s key elements and the relationship between them

A

mental model

204
Q

Theory concerned with individual’s categorization with self and others into in- and out-groups

A

social identity theory

205
Q

instances where the whole is less than the sum of the parts

A

process loss

206
Q

‘false consensus’ generated by conformity pressures

A

group think

207
Q

Individuals may not pull their weight as much in collective contexts than if they are working alone; particularly when the individual is anonymous in the collective context

A

social loafing

208
Q

what are the 3 different types of needs in maslow’s hierarchy?

A

basic needs
psychological needs
self-fulfillment needs

209
Q

correlational designs permit researchers to _______ and _______ ___________.

A

predict and describe behavior

210
Q

Operant conditioning and classical conditioning differ in that operant conditioning involves __________ __________.

A

voluntary behaviors

211
Q

In Pavlov’s experiments, food causes dogs to drool as a natural response. Food is an ___________ stimulus.

A

unconditioned

212
Q

Reorganizing or restructuring your thoughts when there’s an inconsistency between your pre-existing knowledge and something new you’re trying to learn is the basis of Piaget’s idea of ____________.

A

accommodation

213
Q

What is one important idea for Piaget’s idea of constructivism?

A

Learning is an active activity

214
Q

True or false: sensory memory doesn’t involve attention.

A

False; attention is necessary

215
Q

True or False: Long-term memory becomes full and can displace contents to “make room” for new contents

A

False; unlimited capacity

216
Q

True or false: Because long-term memory is limitless, you have access to everything you’ve learned.

A

False; connections decay and other information can interfere

217
Q

The tendency to generate or recognize ideas, alternatives, or possibilities that may be useful for solving problems, communication, or entertaining ourselves is ___________.

A

creativity

218
Q

__________ proposed the “g” factor for general intelligence.

A

Spearman

219
Q

True or false: Crystallized and Fluid intelligence decline with old age.

A

False; Fluid intelligence does, but crystallized intelligence continues to increase.

220
Q

True or false: We have a good understanding of the cause of most learning disabilities.

A

False; but, we do have research-supported strategies that help students learn despite having a disability

221
Q

A researcher measures the IQ of sixty people and then times them on a challenging math test.
What type of study is this?

A

correlational design

222
Q

Allostasis helps the body ______ to ________.

A

adapt to stress

223
Q

Allostatic load occurs when we are ___________ to _______ _________.

A

exposed to chronic stressors

224
Q

People who are neurotic are prone to _______ _______.

A

negative emotions

225
Q

True or false: Neuroticism causes increased physical symptoms.

A

False; Neuroticism is linked to physical symptoms, but it could be that neurotic people are more likely to notice and report symptoms.

226
Q

Someone who takes extra time to double-check their work is likely high in ____________.

A

conscientiousness

227
Q

Cognitive dissonance is a ________ feeling that arises when one’s ________ is inconsistent with one’s attitude.

A

negative; behavior

228
Q

According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, _______ and _______ determine the likelihood that a message is systematically processed.

A

motivation; ability

229
Q

True or false: High-cohesion groups always outperform low-cohesion groups.

A

False

230
Q

As task cohesion tends to decrease, the size of the team __________.

A

increases

231
Q

______ anxiety has been associated with an inappropriate narrowing of attention.

A

trait

232
Q

“Constant chronic non-specific worry and anxiety.” What is this describing?

A

generalized anxiety disorder

233
Q

the theory of learned helplessness includes what specifically?

A

attribution

234
Q

True or false: Work-life balance is considered an interruption to the “Employee life cycle.”

A

true

235
Q

The two perspectives for understanding selection and assessment in career settings are __________ and ___________.

A

predictivist and constructivist

236
Q

According to the Behavioral Decision Theory, ______ tend to lead people to make _______ decisions.

A

biases; non-optimal

237
Q

Match the following:

Slip
lapse
mistake
violation

a. putting your car in the wrong gear
b. speeding because you’re in a hurry
c. dozing off behind the wheel
d. not checking your blind spot before merging

A

slip: a
lapse: d
mistake: c
violation: b

238
Q

According to behavior decision theory, what factor most often leads to non-optimal decision making?

A

systematic biases

239
Q

a means of studying how people make decisions and perform cognitively complex functions in demanding, real-world situations

A

naturalistic decision making

240
Q
  • Specifies under which conditions workers will be motivated to perform jobs effectively
  • aims to increase work motivation and performance
A

Job characteristics model

241
Q

give an example of the availability heuristic.

A

After reading an article about lottery winners, you start to overestimate your own likelihood of winning the jackpot. You start spending more money than you should each week on lottery tickets.

242
Q

the simplest model/theory with the least assumptions and variables but with greatest explanatory power

A

parsimonious

243
Q

represents the causal relationship between the subject variables in a study

A

internal validity

244
Q

represents the generalizability of the study and how well it generalize to a particular population

A

external validity