Final Flashcards

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1
Q

L20. Briefly describe the process of phagocytosis. What is the fate of materials engulfed by
phagocytosis

A

Phagocytosis can be considered to consist of 3 stages:

(1) Entrapment: the cell extends pseudopods (“false feet”) to contact and surround its
“prey;”
(2) Engulfment: the pseudopod membranes fuse, internalizing the prey in a “phagosome;” and
(3) Digestion: the phagosome fuses with a lysosome (or Golgi vesicles deliver lysosomal
enzymes to the phagosome) converting it to a “phagolysosome.”
In the phagolysosome, the “prey” is digested by hydrolytic enzymes (proteases, nucleases,
lipases, glycosidases), and the resulting products transported to the cytoplasm for recycling.

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2
Q

L20. What is autophagy?

A

Autophagy literally means “self eating.” In autophagy, cells surround worn
out organelles with specialized regions of ER, enclosing them into “autophagosomes.” From there,
they are delivered to lysosomes for recycling of their components.

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3
Q

L20. When starved for amino acids, cells of the Baker’s yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
upregulate autophagy, internalizing and digesting their own plasma membrane and plasma
membrane proteins. Why might this be beneficial to the yeast cells?

A

Autophagy of the plasma
membrane (and membrane proteins) and organelles provides a source of amino acids for the cell to
survive periods of starvation (albeit briefly)

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4
Q

L20. Diagram/compare the mechanisms of pinocytosis of lucifer yellow (LY) and receptormediated
endocytosis of low density lipoprotein (LDL). Label the important intermediates and
the compartment in which LDL is uncoupled from receptor (LDL-R), and the fate of the LDL-R.

A

Diagram

Both processes use clathrin-coated vesicles to internalized molecules from outside the cell.
The formation of clathrin coated vesicles in both processes is the same:
(1) Assembly of a coat of adaptins and clathrin, driving invagination and formation of a coated pit. In
“receptor-mediated” endocytosis, receptors are recruited to the coated pits via interactions with
adaptins;

(2) Formation of a clathrin-coated vesicle, requiring GTP hydrolysis by dynamin;
(3) Uncoating, requiring ATP hydrolysis by the “clathrin-uncoating ATPase” (an HSP70 family
member) ;

(4) Delivery to the early endosome.
In pinocytosis, material enters the clathrin-coated pit/vesicle simply by diffusion. Thus the
rate of internalization is highly dependent on the extracellular concentration of the molecule being
taken up (at low concentration, very few molecules will end up in each vesicle). The presence of a cell surface receptor ( thus, “receptor-mediated” endocytosis) serves to concentrate low abundance
molecules into coated pits/vesicles for more rapid/efficient uptake.
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5
Q

L20. What is the source of energy for uncoupling LDL from LDL-R?

A

Energy for uncoupling of LDL from receptor in the early endosome is provided by a pH
gradient (the endosome is acidic relative to the cytoplasm), created by an ATP-driven proton pump
in the endosomal membrane.

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6
Q

L20. What stage(s) of LDL uptake might be blocked by mutations that inactivate: (1) the
cytoplasmic domain of LDL-R? (2) the adaptin complex? (3) dynamin? Explain each.

A
  1. Mutations that inactivate the the cytoplasmic domain of LDL-R disrupt recruitment of LDL-R to
    coated pits.
  2. Mutations that inactivate the adaptin complex would block assembly of the clathrin coat required
    for internalization.
  3. Mutations that inactivate dynamin would block the final budding of the vesicle
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7
Q

L20. Non-hydrolyzable analogs of GTP, such as GTPS or GMPPCP, inhibit the formation and/or
function of both COP-coated and clathrin-coated vesicles. Compare the role of nucleotide
hydrolysis in the assembly/disassembly of COP- and Clathrin-coated vesicles, indicating which
nucleotide provides the energy for assembly/disassembly of the vesicle coat, how hydrolysis is coupled to the cycle of assembly/disassembly, and what cellular protein/enzyme functions as the
“NTPase.”

A

COP-coated vesicles:
A GEF in the donor membrane activates the coat recruitment GTPase (either and
ARF or Sar1) by facilitating exchange of GTP for GDP.
The active, GTP-bound form of the coat recruitment GTPase binds to the donor
membrane and recruits COPs, which cause vesicle budding.
Hydrolysis of GTP by the coat recruitment GTPase releases the GTPase and COPs,
uncoating the vesicle. GTPS blocks UNCOATING.
Clathrin-coated vesicles:
Adaptins and clathrins assemble on the membrane to form clathrin-coated pits,
recruiting cargo receptors and their ligands…
GTP hydrolysis by the GTPase DYNAMIN is required for the final budding/scission
deeply-invaginated coated pits to form the coated vesicle. So GTPS blocks vesicle
SCISSION/FORMATION, but NOT coating or uncoating.
ATP hydrolysis by the CLATHRIN-UNCOATING ATPase is used to remove the
clathrin coats within seconds of vesicle formation.

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8
Q

L21. Because of the cell-type specificity of intermediate filament subunit proteins (IFPs),
antibodies against IFPs can be used to help identify the tissue of origin of human tumors. This
can greatly improve the accuracy of diagnosis and treatment, often improving a patients
prognosis. What type of intermediate filament protein might you expect to find in:

A. a neuroblastoma (tumor of neuronal precursor cells)?

B. a basal cell carcinoma of the epidermal epithelium?

C. a rhabdomysosarcoma (muscle)?

D. a glioma (tumor of glial cells)?

A

A.Neurofilament Proteins
B. Keratins
C. Desmin
D. Glial Fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

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9
Q

L21. Unlike actin filaments and microtubules, intermediate filaments are not “polar.” What does
this mean with regard to intermediate filament structure and function?

A

IF proteins assemble in parallel to form dimers, but dimers associate in an ant-parallel
orientation to form tetramers. In the filament cross-section, there are 8 tetramers. Because there
is an anti-parallel intermediate AND an even number of subunits in the unit filament, the two ends
of the filament look the same (thus the filament is not “polar.”). This contrasts with actin filaments,
where the actin monomers assemble head to tail, giving the filament two ends with distinct
properties (“plus- (barbed)” and “minus- (pointed)” ends), and microtubules composed of 13
protofilaments arranged in parallel.
There are no motor proteins that use IFs for a substrate to generate force… this MAY
(stress may) relate to their lack of directionality… or it may have other more mundane evolutionary
reasons.

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10
Q

L21. Sketch the organization of a skeletal muscle myofibril, including thin and thick filaments,
the Z- and M-lines. Indicate the polarity of the thin filaments. What are some of the major
protein components of each structure?

A

DIAGRAM

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11
Q

L21. In 10 words or less, what is the basic mechanism of muscle contraction?

A

ATP-dependent sliding of actin and myosin filaments.

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12
Q

L21. Myosin and HSP70 are very different proteins with very different functions in the cell.
What common functional characteristic do they share?

A

Both proteins are using nucleotide hydrolysis to power a cycle of making and breaking highaffinity
protein-protein interactions. HSP70, by binding and releasing hydrophobic regions of
unfoled/misfolded proteins & myosin by binding and releasing actin

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13
Q
L21. Briefly outline/discuss
the steps of the “crossbridge
cycle” by which myosin
uses the energy of ATP to
“walk” along the actin
filaments, generating muscle
contraction.
A

Diagram

  1. No nucleotide. Myosin head is tightly bound
    to actin (“rigor”)…
  2. ATP bound to myosin releases myosin from
    actin…
  3. ATP hydrolysis “cocks” myosin (ADP + Pi
    remain bound). Myosin binds actin weakly…
  4. Pi is released, allowing myosin to bind more
    tightly, triggering…
  5. …the “power stroke” and release of ADP…
    Myosin heads “walk” towards the “plus-”
    (“barbed”) -end of actin filaments…

“Myosin is an actin-dependent ATPase that acts as a “molecular motor””

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14
Q
L21.  The post-mortem
condition know as “rigor
mortis” is characterized by
stiffness and rigidity of all
the skeletal muscles. Based
upon your understanding of
the molecular interactions of
myosin and actin, propose a
molecular explanation for
rigor mortis.
A

Once ATP is depleted, all myosin heads will bind tightly to actin, locking all the muscles into
a rigid state known as “rigor mortis.” At the molecular level, cell biologists refer to the bound state
in the absence of ATP as “rigor.”

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15
Q

L21. Why do you think rigor mortis subsides several hours after death?

A

As muscles and other cells die, organelle membranes lyse. Proteases released from the
lysosomes cleave myosin and actin, “tenderizing” the muscle (this is why “aged” beef is more tender).

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16
Q

L21. How does Ca2+
regulate contraction
of skeletal muscle in
vertebrates?

A

Diagram

Tropomyosin dimer binds along actin filament…
Troponin complex binds to tropomyosin…
In the absence of Ca2+, tropomyosin blocks
myosin binding site…
Troponin C binds Ca2+…
Allosteric change in structure of troponins and
tropomyosin uncovers myosin binding site…
Myosin walks on actin and myofibril contracts…
Removal of Ca2+ restores inhibition…

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17
Q

L21. Where does the

Ca2+ come from?

A
Ca2+ is stored
in the “sarcoplasmic
reticulum,” and
released through
voltage-gated Ca2+
channels in response
to an action potential
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18
Q

L21. In the common “sliding filament” assay for myosin
motility, myosin molecules are adsorbed to a glass
coverslip. Fluorescent actin filaments are bound to the
myosin-coated coverslips. When ATP is added, the actin
filaments glide along, with a defined polarity and direction
of motion. If a single headed type I (unconventional)
myosin was adsorbed to the coverslip, which end of the gliding actin filaments (“pointed /minus”
or “barbed/plus”) would lead?

A

Myosins walk towards the plus-end of actin filaments, so the minus- end would lead

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19
Q

L21. In the large internodal cells of some freshwater
algae, an inner layer of cytoplasm “streams” around the
central vacuole at rates >1 m min-1. Streaming is
powered by myosin-dependent sliding of
vesicles/organelles along actin filaments at the interface
between the stationary cortical cytoplasm and the
streaming layer (see fig inset). If the polarity of the actin
is as shown in the figure (plus “+” or minus “-“) , which
direction would the vesicle in the figure move (Circle
the arrow, and briefly explain in <10 words; 2 pts).

A

Diagram

Myosin walks towards the plus end of actin filaments

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20
Q

L21. Sketch the characteristic organization of actin microfilaments in the lamellipodium of a
migrating animal cell, indicating/identifying (A) the polarity of at least two actin filaments; (B)
an ARP 2/3 complex; (C) where actin monomers are added to those filaments; and (D) the site of
actin disassembly. (E) Briefly describe the role of actin and ARP2/3 in lamellipodial extension
and cell motility

A
Arp 2/3 is activated near the
inner face of the plasma membrane
(by Rho family GTPases and other
activating proteins)...
Activated Arp 2/3 complex
nucleates actin assembly and
branching. Arp 2/3 caps minus-ends.
Assembly of the extensively
branched meshwork of actin
filaments drives extension of the
lamellipodium.
Actin filaments then
disassemble (from their minus-ends)
behind the lamellipodium...
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21
Q

L21. What is the difference between an actin cross-linking protein and an actin bundling
protein? What are examples of each?

A

Most actin bundling proteins are rigid rod-like molecules with an actin binding
domain on each end, allowing them to organize actin filaments into parallel bundles.
A good example is a-actinin.

Most cross-linking proteins are longer, more flexible proteins. Again, they have
multiple actin binding domains, allowing them to cross-link actin filaments. However,
since they are long and flexible, the angle of the actin filaments is more variable.
Good examples are filamin and spectrin

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22
Q

L21. Cells of the cellular slime mold Dictyostelium discodium express multiple actin bundling
proteins including -actinin and ABP. Interestingly, genetic disruption of either protein alone
has no observable effect, but disruption of BOTH proteins in the same cells resulted in marked
defects in motility and development. What would you conclude about the function of actin
bundling proteins in Dictyostelium?

A

The proteins may be REDUNDANT… meaning they perform

similar and overlapping functions. If one is defective, the other can take over its function.

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23
Q

L21. Briefly compare/contrast three different ways in which the actin cytoskeleton can be linked
to the plasma membrane of the cell. Which of these can be used to integrate the actin
cytoskeleton with the extracellular matrix?

A

(1) via integrins at focal contacts and adherens junctions: plus-ends of actin filaments linked to
integrins (transmembrane ECM receptor) via linker proteins…
(2) via spectrin complexes of the membrane cytoskeleton: junctional complexes in which actin and
spectrin are linked to glycophorin via band 4.1…
(3) via unconventional myosins, as 100 kDa myosin in brush border microvilli…
(4; not mentioned in lecture) to transmembrane proteins via ERM family linkers (not discussed in
lecture).
The actin cytoskeleton is commonly linked to the ECM via integrin family receptors at focal contacts
and adherens junctions

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24
Q

L21. Briefly sketch/compare/contrast the structure
and function of prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella,
including and labeling the major structural
components of each briefly describing their function
in the generation of motility (what is the energy
source for motility, and what proteins/structures are
the motors?).

A

Diagram

Eukaryotic cilia and flagella are composed of a 9+2 arrangement of 9 outer doublet
MTs surrounding a central pair of MTs, located within the plasma membrane.

Motility is generated by ATP-dependent sliding of the outer doublet MTs powered by the “dynein”
arms. This sliding is converted to bending by nexin linking the adjacent outer doublets, and is
controlled by accessory proteins/structures of the flagella (central pair and radial spokes)

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25
Q

L21. How do eukaryotic cilia differ from eukaryotic flagellae?

A

Eukaryotic cilia are generally shorter
than flagellae, and have an asymmetric strokes. Flagella (euk) are often longer and have symmetric
strokes.

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26
Q

L21. What structural/morphological defects are apparent in pfA mutants? Briefly describe the
normal mechanisms for generating flagellar motility in eukaryotes, and explain why pfA mutants
have paralyzed flagellae

A

In normal flagellae, the dynein arms attached to A subfibers use ATP hydrolysis to power a
crossbridge cycle similar to that of myosin, walking towards the minus-end of the adjacent Bsubfiber
of the adjacent outer doublet. This MT sliding motion is converted to bending by the nexin
links between outer doublets.
Mutant pfA is missing its dynein arms. In their absence, the flagellae of pfA are paralyzed

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27
Q

L21. Figures C and D depict flagellar cross-sections from two other mutant classes (pfB and pfC)
isolated in your screen. What structural/morphological defects are apparent in flagellae from pfB
and pfC mutants? Briefly relate these defects to the mechanisms of flagellar motility

A

pfB is missing the central pair/sheath. pfC is missing the radial spokes. Sliding/bending is
temporally and spatially controlled by the central apparatus, including the central pair, sheath,
radial spokes, etc. In their absence, the flagellae are paralyzed.

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28
Q

L21. What structures contributed by the sperm during fertilization might function as centrioles to
organize the centrosome that nucleates the sperm aster?

A

The basal bodies of the flagella (which are structurally identical to centrioles, and recruit other
centrosome components from the egg cytoplasm).

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29
Q

L21. Microtubules are highly dynamic polymers, undergoing frequent interconversions
between phases of growing and shrinking. What is this behavior called?

A

“Dynamic instability

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30
Q

L21. What effect would you expect GTPS, a non-hydrolyzable analog of GTP, to have on the
dynamics of microtubule assembly in vitro? Explain your answer.

A

Current models of dynamic instability suggest “catastrophe” (the transition from growing to
shrinking) is caused by loss of the GTP-tubulin cap at the MT end. GTPS and other nonhydrolyzable
analogs of GTP stabilize MTs by slowing or preventing GTP hydrolysis and loss of the
GTP-tubulin “cap,” thus keeping the MT in a growing state.

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31
Q

L21. What class of proteins regulate microtubule dynamics?

A

Microtubule-associated proteins, or “MAPs

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32
Q

L21. If a kinesin-like motor was assayed in such a manner, which end of the MT would lead (plusend
or minus-end)?

A

Kinesin walks towards the plus-end, so the minus-ends would lead in this assay.

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33
Q

L21. If dynein was adsorbed to the coverslip and ATP was added, which end of the MT would lead
(plus-end or minus-end)?

A

Cytoplasmic dynein walks towards the minus-ends of MTs, so the plusends
would lead in this assay

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34
Q

L21. Based on your understanding of the cytoplasmic distribution/localization of the Golgi and ER
relative to MT organization, which motor do you think would power: Vesicle transport from the
ER to the Golgi? Vesicle transport from the Golgi to the plasma membrane?

A

Draw yourself a cell
with a perinculear Golgi and ER dispersed throughout the cytoplasm. Where is the centrosome?
What motor would be used for peripheral ER to Golgi (dynein… why?)? from Golgi to plasma
membrane (kinesin…why?)?

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35
Q

L23. The G1/S and G2/M transitions in the division cycle of eukaryotic cells are regulated by_________ protein kinases, which consist of a catalytic subunit and regulatory subunit
from the________family of proteins

A

cyclin-dependent

cyclin

36
Q

L23. M-phase promoting factor (MPF; also known by the acronym______) is activated during Mphase
by the accumulation of its regulatory subunit

A

CDK1

Cyclin B or M-phase cyclin

37
Q

L23. Activation of the __________ by MPF targets __________ for destruction in the proteosome, resulting in inactivation of MPF and exit from M-Phase

A

anaphase-promoting complex (APC)

cyclin B= M-phase cyclin

38
Q

L23. Eukaryotic cells monitor completion of important cellular processes at key stages of the division
cycle referred to as_____

A

checkpoints

39
Q

L23. Programmed cell death, or______ is a process used by animals to eliminate damaged or unneeded cells

A

apoptosis

40
Q

L23. About 5% of the cells are in mitosis

A

The mitotic index, or fraction of cells in M phase is

0.05

41
Q

L23. 1/3 of the cells label with 3

H-thymidine in a 1 hour incubation

A

Incorporation of labeled

thymidine only occurs in S-phase. 1/3 of cells in S

42
Q

L23. The number of cells doubles every 24 hours.

A

This is a measure of the doubling time, and

thus the total cell cycle time

43
Q

L23. Cells labeled for 1 hr with 3
H-thymidine were examined at intervals by
autoradiography. Initially some cells are seen to have labeled nuclei, while others are
unlabeled (Why?). Labeled cells in mitosis are not seen until 6 hours after labeling.

A

Cells
only incorporate labeled thymidine during S-phase… which can be detected as radioactive
DNA in the nucleus. After S-phase, these cells will traverse G2 and enter M. The interval
between labeling and M phase defines G2

44
Q

L23. Remember the cell cycle

A

From C, the doubling time (cell cycle time) is 24 hrs.
From A, M-phase = 0.05 x 24 hrs = ~1 hr.
From B, S-phase = 1/3 of 24 hrs = 8 hrs.
From D, the period from the end of S phase until
M-phase is ~ 6 hrs, so G2 ~ 6hrs.
By subtraction, G1
~9hrs

45
Q

L23. Sketch the MPF and CLB activity profiles (MPF activity vs. time; CLB vs. time) you would
observe in an early Xenopus embryo (include 3 cycles). Label the periods corresponding to Mphase
and S-phase (interphase).

A

Sketch

46
Q

L23. Treatment with cycloheximide (an inhibitor of protein synthesis) arrests the cell cycle of both
adult and embryonic cells in interphase. Why? Sketch the effect adding cycloheximide would
have on the CLB and MPF profiles of these cells

A

Sketch

Blocking translation with cycloheximide blocks synthesis of CyclinB which is required to activate MFP

47
Q

L23. 8.c Andrew Murray deleted the first 90 amino acids from cyclin B (CLB), removing the
“destruction box” that targeted CLB for destruction by the proteosome. When injected into early
Xenopus embryos, this altered CLB (called cyc90) could not be degraded. Predict the effect
that injecting cyc90 would have on the cell cycle. Sketch the effect of cyc90 on the profiles of
MPF activity and endogenous CLB.

A

Sketch

48
Q

L23. During cycles 2-12, cells of frog embryos divide every ~30’. If treated with aphidicolin (an
inhibitor of DNA synthesis), cells cultured from adult frogs will arrest in S-phase. However,
embryonic cells (prior to division 13) continue dividing when treated with aphidicolin. Similarly,
unlike adult frog cells, cells of early embryos treated with nocodazole continue to progress
through the cell cycle. What compromises have early frog embryos made to achieve their
remarkably fast cell division cycle?

A

Early frog embryos have eliminated the DNA replication and
spindle assembly checkpoints in order to achieve their rapid division cycles. They have, in a sense,
compromised fidelity of division for speed of division.

49
Q

L23. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis in eukaryotic cells. Which process
occurs first?

A

Mitosis is the term applied to (a particular mode of) nuclear division (chromosome
segregation) in eukaryotes. Cytokinesis is the term applied to cytoplasmic division in eukaryotes. In most eukaryotes, division includes MT-dependent segregation of chromosomes during mitosis and
actin/myosin (animals) or MT-based (plant) mechanisms of cytokinesis.

50
Q

L23. Diagram a typical metaphase chromosome and label the
following structures: chromatid, centromere, telomere,
kinetochore.

A

Diagram

51
Q

L23. What is the relation between the chromatids in a chromosome?
How are the chromatids held together until anaphase?

A

They are
siter DNA molecules, the product of replication. The are held
together by “cohesins.”

52
Q

L23. What functions do the kinetochores play?

A

Kinetochores capture MTs to attach the chromatids to the spindle.

53
Q
L23. Diagram a spindle in an animal cell, labeling the polar MTs, kinetochore MTs, astral
MTs, and spindle poles. Label the polarity of one of each class of MT. What "organelles"
function as spindle poles in most animal cells?
A

Diagram

54
Q

L23. Diagram a plant spindle. Briefly compare/contrast

the spindles of animal and plant cells.

A

Diagram

Higher plants do not contain centrioles/centrosomes,
and the spindle poles are more dispersed, giving the
spindle a barrel shape

55
Q

L23. What are two models for generating the movements of anaphase A

A

(1) Dynein-related motor proteins at the kinetochore powering poleward movement along the
disassembly kinetochore MTs. This model, tho’ attractive, has less experimental support.

(2) Shortening of kinetochore MTs provides the energy for chromatid movement. This model
requires that kinetochores remain attached to shortening MTs, which could be accomplished with a
ring-shaped attachment complex (Dam1 complex in yeast) or side-binding MAPs.

56
Q

L23. What are two model mechanisms for generating the movements of anaphase B?

A

(1) Traction forces generated by cortical dynein pulling on astral MTs (occurs in some cells).
(2) Anti-parallel sliding of overlapping polar MTs in the central spindle (occurs in diatoms).

57
Q

L23. Briefly compare/contrast the mechanisms of cytokinesis in animal and plant cells. Why do
you think plants have evolved a mechanism of cytokinesis distinct from that used by animal
cells?

A

Plants: During cytokinesis, the MT phragmoplast delivers Golgi-derived vesicles containing cell wall
precursors to the growing cell plate, which divides the cell from the inside-out.

Animals: A “contractile ring” of actin and myosin contracts (much like a purse string) to divide the
cell.

The rigid cell wall of plant cells prevents them from dividing using the actomyosin-based mechanism
that animal cells use..

58
Q

L23. Mitosis can be blocked by treating cells with nocodazole, a MT inhibitor that disassembles
cytoplasmic MTs and blocks spindle assembly. Somewhat paradoxically, mitosis can also be
blocked with taxol, another MT poison that stabilizes MTs. How could you reconcile these
observations?

A

Nocodazole blocks spindle assembly by inhibiting MT assembly, but taxol stabilizes MTs.
This indicates that assembly AND DYNAMICS of MTs is required for assembly and function of the
spindle.

59
Q

L25. What three features/characteristics are common to ALL cell signaling pathways?

A

A signal, a receptor, and a response.

60
Q

L25. When the small polypeptide hormone insulin is covalently coupled to 10 m diameter latex
beads, it can still elicit a robust response in cells bearing the insulin receptor. In contrast,
progesterone coupled to similar-sized beads does not elicit a response in its target cells. Briefly
explain this observation, in light of the mechanisms of action of these two hormones.

A

Epinephrine is a hydrophilic hormone that binds to a cell surface receptor. Even when
coupled to beads which prevent its entry into the cell, it can bind receptors on the cell surface and
trigger a response. Progesterone, on the other hand, is a lipophilic hormone that activates an
intracellular receptor. When coupled to beads, progesterone cannot enter the cell and has no access
to the receptor, thus no response.

61
Q

L25. Predict the effect on glycogen breakdown of adding (or injecting
into cells) the following reagents:
A GMP-PNP (non-hydrolyzable analog of GTP)
B 8-bromocAMP (a membrane permeable, less hydrolyzable analog of cAMP)
C Excess catalytic subunit of protein kinase (PKA)
D Excess regulatory subunit of PKA
E excess cAMP phosphodiesterase
F Caffeine (an inhibitor of cAMP phosphodiesterase)

A

A enhanced. locks Gs on
B Enhanced. activates more PKA
C Enhanced. Active subunit activates more phosphrylase kinase
D Suppressed. Binds and inactivates catalytic subunit
E Suppressd. Degrades cAMP, which inactivates PKA
F Enhanced. increases [cAMP] which activates more PKA

62
Q

L25. Vibrio cholera (the bacteria that causes cholera) secretes a toxin that irreversibly modifies
the -subunit of GS so that it can no longer hydrolyze GTP. What effect would cholera toxin
have on cAMP-mediated signaling?

A
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates Gs
 by blocking GTP hydrolysis. Since Gs
 is always on and
activating adenylate cyclase, intracellular cAMP levels increase, resulting in constituitive signaling by
cAMP-mediated pathways.
63
Q

L25. During blood clotting, platelets are “activated” by thrombin, leading to activation of protein
kinase C and phosphorylation of target proteins (integrins, other cytoskeletal proteins, etc)
required for platelet function and clotting. Diagram the signaling pathway from the thrombin to
protein kinase C.

A

Diagram

Thrombin activates Receptor
Activated Receptor acts as GNRP for Gq stimulating GDP release and GTP binding (alpha subunit)
GTP binding activates Gq (protein)
Activated Galphaq activates phospholipase C
Active PLC cleaves PIP2 to IP3 and DAG
IP3 opens Ca2+ chanels in ER, release Ca2+ to cyto
DAG and Ca2+ activate protein kinase C
Active PKC phosphorylates target proteins

64
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of cell-signaling pathways, would you expect the following
drugs/treatments to: (1) stimulate/enhance; or (2) reduce/inhibit platelet activation by thrombin:
A GTPgS
B IP3
C EGTA (binds and sequesters Ca2+ from ER)
D Phorbol myrsityl acetate (a phorbol ester that mimics diacylglycerol)

A

A. stimulate. locks Gq on
B. Stimulate. Releases Ca2+ from ER
C. Inhibit. Sequester Ca2+ released from ER
D. Stimulates by activating PKC

65
Q

L25. Sketch the pathways (from receptor to reponse) by which transcription is regulated by a:
A. Steroid Hormone

A
  1. Lecture 25 slide 6
66
Q

L25. Which signaling pathway is most “direct?”

A

A. Activation/regulation of transcription by steroids
(or other lipophilic signals) is more direct than the other two pathways… the receptor itself enters
the nucleus and directly modulates transcription. In the other two examples, there are multiple
intervening steps (G-proteins, kinases, etc).

67
Q

L25. What steps in each pathway allow for amplification in the signal/response?

A

Steroid-mediated: Amplification comes from transcription/translation… a single receptor activates
a gene to synthesize many copies of an mRNA, which can direct synthesis of many copies of a
protein. Some of the first genes activated (sometimes referred to as the “primary response” or
“early” genes )may code for transcription factors, which in turn regulate downstream genes
(“secondray” responses or “late” genes).

cAMP-mediated: Each step in the pathway has the potential for amplification (Receptor to G
protein; G protein to adenylyl cyclase, cAMP to PKA, PKA to CREB, etc).
Ras-mediated: Each step in the pathway has the potential for amplification (SOS to Ras, Ras to Raf,
Raf to Mek, Mek to ERK, ERK to transcription factor, etc)

68
Q

L25. Many signaling pathways involving receptor tyrosine kinases can be inhibited or blocked by
over expressing (~3-10-fold excess) a truncated form of the receptor which contains the
extracellular ligand binding and transmembrane domains, but lacks the cytoplasmic tyrosine
kinase domain. Given your understanding of the mechanism of activating receptor tyrosine
kinases, why might over expression of a C-terminally-truncated receptor block signaling?

A

Think about the structure of the EGF-R and how it is activated by EGF binding… most RTKs
are active as dimers, and must cross-phosphorylate their partner’s cytoplasmic domain. If a
receptor dimer contains one normal subunit and one truncated subunit lacking the cytoplasmic
domain, it cannot be activated: there is no cytoplasmic domain to be phosphorylated, and no kinase
domain to phosphorylate the normal subunit. Overexpression of the truncated subunit thus acts as a
“dominant negative,” blocking the signaling pathway. This is a commonl tool used by developmental
biologists to study the role of signaling pathways in organisms in which standard genetic methods
are impractical

69
Q

L25. Why does the G12V mutation lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation? Discuss this result, in
light of the observation that more than 30% of all human cancers have mutations in the Ras gene.

A

Ras activates a MAP kinase signaling cascade (Ras6Raf6MEK6ERK) which, among other
things, activates transcription factors that regulate expression of the G1
cyclins, and thus entry
into S-phase and cell division. Inappropriate or continued activation of Ras would thus lead to loss
cell growth control and inappropriate proliferation (cancer)

70
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells:
A constituitively active for of the EGF receptor?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation

71
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells:
A dominant negative form of the EGF receptor?

A

Suppress proliferation in response to EGF

72
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells
A mutation that inactivates SOS function?

A

Suppress signaling/proliferation dependent on

the SOS/Ras pathway.

73
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells
A constituitively activated form of Raf?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation

74
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells
Deletion of Raf (MAPKKK)?

A

Suppress signaling/proliferation dependent on the Ras/Raf

pathway

75
Q

L25. What effect would each of the following have on the regulation of cell proliferation if
expressed in normal cells
A constituitively activated form of MEK?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation.

76
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

A constituitively active for of the EGF receptor?

A

Exacerbate

77
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

A dominant negative form of the EGF receptor?

A

No effect (it’s upstream)

78
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

A mutation that inactivates SOS function?

A

No effect (it’s upstream)

79
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

A constituitively activated form of Raf?

A

Exacerbate

80
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

Deletion of Raf (MAPKKK)?

A

Suppress (it’s downstream of Ras, and breaks the signal

chain).

81
Q

L25. Based on our discussion of Ras signaling pathways, would you predict that the following
mutations would exacerbate or suppress cell proliferation if they were introduced into the cells
expressing Ras bearing the Gly12Val mutation?

A constituitively activated form of MEK?

A

Exacerbate.

82
Q

L25. Where (specifically) would you find the stem cells for RBC and epidermal epithelium?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells are found in the bone marrow. Epidermal stem cells are found in
the basal layer of the epidermis.

83
Q

L25. What three properties, features, or attributes do these stem cell populations share (along with
other populations of stem cells?

A
  1. They are determined, but undifferentiated;
  2. They are capable of unlimited proliferation (within the lifetime of the organims);
  3. They are self-renewing: when they divide, at least one daughter retains the properties of
    a stem cell.
84
Q

L25. What unique property, feature, or attribute of “embryonic stem (ES) cells” and “induced
pluripotent stem cells (IPS cells)” distinguishes them from populations of “adult” stem cells?

A

They are “PLURIPOTENT” meaning they can contribute to many (in some cases all) tissues of
the body.

85
Q

L25. How do mutations in APC, Ras, and p53 contribute to the formation and progression of
colon cancers? Do they all have the same affect on the cells?

A

APC is a “tumor suppressor” gene, encoding the APC protein. APC “turns off” wnt signaling in
the differentiated cells of the intestinal epithelium. Wnt signaling stimulates proliferation… so loss
of APC function results in inappropriate wnt signaling and inappropriate cell proliferation, leading to
the formation of epithelial outgrowths called “polyps.” Polyps themselves are benign, but can become
cancerous through the accumulation of additional mutations.
Ras is a “proto-oncogene.” Ras protein is an important component of MAP kinase signaling
pathways that lead to expression of G1
cyclins and cell proliferation. Activating mutations in Ras
(mutations that block its intrinsic GTPase activity) are found in >30% of human tumors. These
mutations lead to constituitive activation of MAP kinase signaling pathways, and result ini
uncontrolled cell proliferation.
p53 is another tumor suppressor, involved in the DNA damage checkpoint and apoptosis
pathway. Loss of p53 function is found in >50% of human tumors, and allows tumor cells to
proliferate uncontrollably and bypass apoptosis… leading to additional genome instability and the
potential for additional genetic lesions leading to loss of adhesion, increased motility, and other
characteristics of metastatic cancer cells.

86
Q

L25. Sketch the pathways (from receptor to reponse) by which transcription is regulated by a:
B. cAMP-mediated signaling pathy

A
  1. Lecture 25 slide 18
87
Q

L25. Sketch the pathways (from receptor to reponse) by which transcription is regulated by a:
C. Ras mediated signaling pathway

A
  1. Lecture 25 slide 24