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Clinical Diagnosis > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

The national organization formed in 1928 to certify ML professionals.

A

ASCP

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2
Q

A law passed in the 1980’s to try to bring higher quality and reproducability from lab to lab

A

CLIA

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3
Q

The organization that certifies professional laboratory schols

A

NAACLS

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4
Q

The national organization that ensures safety in the workplace

A

OSHA

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5
Q

Tests that are regulated by personnel requirements and proficiency testing and represent the majority of clinical lab tests are classified as:

A

Moderately Complex Tests

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6
Q

The majority of lab tests are completed using:

a) Venous blood
b) Arterial blood
c) Capillary blood

A

A

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7
Q

Analytical Errors:

a) Occur in the ordering, collection or transport of specimens
b) Represent more than two thirds of all lab errors
c) Can cause serious consequences to the patient
d) all of the above

A

D

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8
Q

When a test is ordered “Postprandial” it means:

A

The patient should be drawn two hours after a large meal or sugary drink

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9
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

A

Plasma contains anticoagulants and serum has no anticoagulants.

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10
Q

A chemistry screen is drawn on a patient in an SST. After the specimen clots and is spun down, the MLS notices the serum has a greenish tinge to it. What is the term for this?

A

Icteric

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11
Q

Highly purified substances of a known composition

A

Standards

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12
Q

How close test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed

A

Precision

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13
Q

How close a test result is to the true value

A

Accuracy

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14
Q

The comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

A

Calibration

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15
Q

Consuming which of the following dietary/drugs/supplements can cause a false negative result in a Fecal Occult Blood test?

a) Vitamin C
b) Asprin
c) Red Meat
d) Horse Radish

A

A

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16
Q

T/F One advantge of POCT is that daily QC does not have to be performed.

A

F

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17
Q

The kidney produces several hormones, including all of the following except:

a) Erythropoietin
b) Renin
c) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
d) Vitamin D

A

C

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18
Q

Volume of urine is reduced here reduced while reabsorbing sodium and chloride (kidney)

A

Loop of Henle

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19
Q

Ultrafiltrate formed here (Kidney)

A

Glomerulus

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20
Q

80% of water and electrolytes reabsorbed here (Kidney)

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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21
Q

Excess acidity or alkalinity is removed by secretion here (Kidney)

A

Distal Convoluted Tubule

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22
Q

Ultrafiltrate contains all of the following except:

a) Water
b) Electrolytes
c) Albumin
d) Glucose

A

C

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23
Q

Define Renal Threshold:

A

The amount of solute that can be reabsorbed into the blood at one time before excess solute begins to spill over into the urine

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24
Q

What is the purpose of a clean catch?

A

Avoids picking up normal flora from epithelial cells

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25
Q

An altered urine specimen may be suspected if:

a) the pH is <4.0
b) The specific gravity is 1.000
c) The specimen is not body temperature is freshly collected
d) All of the above

A

D

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26
Q

When a physical exam of urine reveals a cloudy specimen, but the microscopic exam reveals only a handful of squamous epithelial cells the tech should:

a) Report as is
b) Question the results, as many formed elements should be expected. Suspect a mix up

A

B

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27
Q

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

A

Nephron

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28
Q

The kidney plays an important role in the acid-base balance by selective_____ of acid or alkali.

A

Secretion

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29
Q

Whenever a urinalysis reagent pad shows a negative for blood and the microscopic examination shows RBCs, the technician should suspect the interfering presence of:

A

Ascorbic Acid

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30
Q

Centrifigation requirements for urine sediments are ___ for ____ minutes

A

450g, 5 minutes

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31
Q

The microscopy technique that provides more detailed visualization (contrast) of translucent or low-refractile components and living cells is ______ microscopy.

A

Phase contrast

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32
Q

What solution gives RBCs a ghost cell appearance?

A

Hypotonic

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33
Q

What type of cast is common of a healthy person after strenuous exercise?

A

Granular Cast

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34
Q

A finding of increased numbers of casts and/or presence of abnormal casts must be accompanied by a finding of _____

A

Protein

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35
Q

What WBCs are seen in increased numbers in the urine of a patient rejecting a kidney transplant?

A

Lymphocytes

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36
Q

Reagent strip test for protein is most sensitive to:

A

Albumin

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37
Q

What causes an increase in the Specific gravity of urine by refractory methods, when the test strip SG is normal?

A

Glucose

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38
Q

The presence of ketones in urine reveals the metabolism of ____

A

Fats

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39
Q

The presence of ketones in urine reveals the metabolism of ____

A

Fats

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40
Q

Ictotest

A

Bilirubin

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41
Q

Acetest

A

Ketones

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42
Q

Clinitest

A

Glucose

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43
Q

Sulfa Salicyclic Acid

A

Protein

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44
Q

Urine crystal indicative of pathological condition:

A

Leucine Crystals

45
Q

Found in acid urine

A

Calcium oxalate crystals

46
Q

Coffin lid appearence

A

Triple Phosphate crystals

47
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose?

A

120-140 mg/dl

48
Q

After finding a kidney stone, blood and calcium oxalate crystals, a doctor treats a patient and advises them to:

A

Eat a vegetarian diet

49
Q

A fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of:

A

Self from non-self

50
Q

Non-specific response to foreign antigens

A

Innate Immunity

51
Q

Unbroken skin and mucosal membrane surfaces

A

First line of defense

52
Q

Specific response to foreign antigens resulting in targeted antibodies

A

Adaptiv Immunity

53
Q

Active artificial immunity is demonstrated in:

a) Vaccination
b) Infusion of plasma containing antibodies
c) Obtained from colostrum
d) As a result of suffering from disease

A

A

54
Q

B cells ultimately mature into:

A

Plasma cells

55
Q

IgA immunoglobulin is associated with:

A

Tears, saliva, breast milk, gut

56
Q

How long does a typical antibody response take to develop sufficiently?

A

10 days to 2 weeks

57
Q

If urine is used for pregnancy testing it should ideally be:

a) sterile
b) first morning
c) random
d) 24-hour

A

B

58
Q

A complication of Group A strep infection is:

a) acute rheumatic fever
b) glomerulonephritis
c) Necrotizing faciitis
d) all of the above

A

D

59
Q

Most serological screening tests for Infectious Mononucleosis test for Heterophil Abs rather than IgG or IgM anti-EBV abs because:

a) They are more specific
b) they develop quicker
c) they are cheaper to access
d) They are more sensitive

A

C

60
Q

Symptoms of group A strep infections and Infectious Mononucleosis are quite similar. What lab tests or values help discriminate between the two?

A

Group A Strep infections produce a higher absolute neutrophil count, Mononucleosis produces a higher absolute lymphocyte count

61
Q

T/F In the RPR serologic test for syphilis, false positives are rare.

A

F

62
Q

T/F The antinuclear antibody assay (ANA) is specific for Lupus erythematosus.

A

F

63
Q

T/F Rheumatoid factors are autoantibodies.

A

T

64
Q

What are the possible genotypes of a group A person?

A

AA, AO

65
Q

Healthy individuals possess ABO abs to the ABO blood group Ags absent from their RBCs. These antibodies are considered:

A

Isoantibodies

66
Q

Most Anti-A and Anti-B Abs belong to which class of immunoglobulins?

A

IgM

67
Q

T/F Rh negative individuals have natural Anti-D

A

F

68
Q

Forward typing uses:

a) Patient’s cells and commercially prepared anti-sera (Anti-A, Anti-B)
b) Patient’s serum and commercially prepared donor cells (A cells, B cells)
c) Patient’s cells and patient’s own serum

A

A

69
Q

When phenotyping a patient, if the forward and reverse typing do not give inverse results, what should be suspected?

a) Patient has a subtype that does not react with commercially prepared anti-sera
b) Patient has an interfering cold Ab reacting with all commercially prepared donor cells
c) Technical error-more than one patient is being processed and as serum was pulled off the tubes were mixed and the wrong serum is being used
d) Any of the above

A

D

70
Q

Which of the Rh antibodies is most antigenic?

A

D

71
Q

What does antigenic mean?

A

Most likely to cause a reaction with the immune system and cause the formation of Abs

72
Q

The Direct Antihuman globulin test (DAT) is utilized to detect:

A

Antibodies that have coated or reacted with the RBC’s in a patient’s body

73
Q

In an antibody screen, if a positive agglutination reaction is noted at IS and then disappears at 37 Degrees, what immunoglobulin type is suspected?

A

IgM

74
Q

Blood products donated by friends or family for specific patients

A

Directed Donation

75
Q

Blood donations for the general public

A

Allogenic Donation

76
Q

Blood products donated for self-use only

A

Autologous Donation

77
Q

The anticoagulant used to keep blood from coagulating in donated blood is:

A

Citrate

78
Q

The Nucleic Acid test (NAT) for Hep C looks for:

A

RNA of the Hep C virus

79
Q

Packed RBCs are administered to patients to:

A

Correct for anemia to provide tissue oxygenation

80
Q

Which of the following products contains the most active coag factors?

a) PRBCs
b) Platelets
c) Fresh frozen plasma
d) Cryoprecipitate

A

B

81
Q

Spectrophotometry measures the concentration of an unknown substance by:

A

Comparing an unknown colored substance to a standard solution

82
Q

An analytical method that depends on light-scattering properties of Ag-Ab complexes, latex agglutination, or platelet aggregates is:

A

Nephelometry

83
Q

Flow Cytometry measures:

A

Photons emitted from fluorescent probes attached to antibodies targeted to the antigen in question

84
Q

Flow Cytometry utilizes ___ as a light sources

A

Lasers

85
Q

Many point of care tests utilize which analytic method?

A

Reflectance spectrophotometry

86
Q

CLIA ‘88 was an act that passed in 1988 that ensures:

a) All labs participate in external proficiency testing programs
b) All labs have written Quality Assessment Programs
c) All of the above
d) Only answers A and B

A

D

87
Q

Serum or plasma that has a dark green tinge

A

Icteric

88
Q

Serum or plasma that has a red or pink tinge

A

Hemolytic

89
Q

Serum or plasma that has a milky-turbid look

A

Lipemic

90
Q

The proportion of cases with a specific disease that gives a positive result (seeking fewer false negatives)

A

Sensitivity

91
Q

The proportion of cases with absence of the specific disease or condition that gives a negative result (seeking fewer false positives)

A

Specificity

92
Q

What is the first line of defense in our immune system?

A

Barriers (Skin, Mucosa)

93
Q

Adaptive immunity is best described as:

A

A specific response to an invading organism that involves several different immune cells signaling one another that ultimately results in B lymphocytes producing antibody against the organism

94
Q

Serological tests for pregnancy employ an antibody response for:

A

B-hCG

95
Q

Which antibody is produced in response to to Epstein-Barr-Virus and is targeted by the rapid slide test?

A

Heterophil antibodies

96
Q

Serum cholesterol uses what technology?

A

Absorbance spectrophotometry

97
Q

Platelet aggregation uses what technology?

A

Nephelometry

98
Q

CD/CD8 uses what technology?

A

Flow Cytometry

99
Q

Serum Chloride uses what technology?

A

Electrochemical Potentiometry

100
Q

Gluconeogenesis

A

The breakdown of fat or protein to release glucose

101
Q

Type 1 Diabetes is characterized by:

A

B cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency

102
Q

Hypoglycemia may be a consequence:

a) Excess dose of insulin
b) Glycogen storage disease
c) Insulin resistance
d) Answers A and B

A

D

103
Q

When a blood glucose level is ordered STAT, what collection tube is used?

A

Green top (Heparin)

104
Q

An increase in osmotic pressure corresponds with increased ADH production to maintain homeostasis? What does ADH do?

A

Causes more absorption of water in the nephron

105
Q

Hypernatremia

A

Increased sodium level

106
Q

Hemolysis of RBCs during blood collection will hace he biggest effecct on which electrolyte?

A

Potassium

107
Q

Which blood test gets elevated first in a heart attack?

A

Myoglobin

108
Q

Which blood test is most specific to the heart?

A

Cardiac-specific troponin T

109
Q

Kernicterus

A

Build up of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain

Clinical Diagnosis (2 decks)

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