Final Flashcards by Tiffany Matthews

The national organization formed in 1928 to certify ML professionals.

ASCP

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A law passed in the 1980’s to try to bring higher quality and reproducability from lab to lab

CLIA

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The organization that certifies professional laboratory schols

NAACLS

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The national organization that ensures safety in the workplace

OSHA

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Tests that are regulated by personnel requirements and proficiency testing and represent the majority of clinical lab tests are classified as:

Moderately Complex Tests

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The majority of lab tests are completed using:

a) Venous blood
b) Arterial blood
c) Capillary blood

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Analytical Errors:

a) Occur in the ordering, collection or transport of specimens
b) Represent more than two thirds of all lab errors
c) Can cause serious consequences to the patient
d) all of the above

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When a test is ordered “Postprandial” it means:

The patient should be drawn two hours after a large meal or sugary drink

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What is the difference between plasma and serum?

Plasma contains anticoagulants and serum has no anticoagulants.

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A chemistry screen is drawn on a patient in an SST. After the specimen clots and is spun down, the MLS notices the serum has a greenish tinge to it. What is the term for this?

Icteric

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Highly purified substances of a known composition

Standards

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How close test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed

Precision

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How close a test result is to the true value

Accuracy

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The comparison of an instrument measure or reading to a known physical constant

Calibration

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Consuming which of the following dietary/drugs/supplements can cause a false negative result in a Fecal Occult Blood test?

a) Vitamin C
b) Asprin
c) Red Meat
d) Horse Radish

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T/F One advantge of POCT is that daily QC does not have to be performed.

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The kidney produces several hormones, including all of the following except:

a) Erythropoietin
b) Renin
c) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
d) Vitamin D

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Volume of urine is reduced here reduced while reabsorbing sodium and chloride (kidney)

Loop of Henle

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Ultrafiltrate formed here (Kidney)

Glomerulus

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80% of water and electrolytes reabsorbed here (Kidney)

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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Excess acidity or alkalinity is removed by secretion here (Kidney)

Distal Convoluted Tubule

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Ultrafiltrate contains all of the following except:

a) Water
b) Electrolytes
c) Albumin
d) Glucose

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Define Renal Threshold:

The amount of solute that can be reabsorbed into the blood at one time before excess solute begins to spill over into the urine

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What is the purpose of a clean catch?

Avoids picking up normal flora from epithelial cells

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An altered urine specimen may be suspected if: a) the pH is <4.0 b) The specific gravity is 1.000 c) The specimen is not body temperature is freshly collected d) All of the above

When a physical exam of urine reveals a cloudy specimen, but the microscopic exam reveals only a handful of squamous epithelial cells the tech should: a) Report as is b) Question the results, as many formed elements should be expected. Suspect a mix up

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

Nephron

The kidney plays an important role in the acid-base balance by selective_____ of acid or alkali.

Secretion

Whenever a urinalysis reagent pad shows a negative for blood and the microscopic examination shows RBCs, the technician should suspect the interfering presence of:

Ascorbic Acid

Centrifigation requirements for urine sediments are ___ for ____ minutes

450g, 5 minutes

The microscopy technique that provides more detailed visualization (contrast) of translucent or low-refractile components and living cells is ______ microscopy.

Phase contrast

What solution gives RBCs a ghost cell appearance?

Hypotonic

What type of cast is common of a healthy person after strenuous exercise?

Granular Cast

A finding of increased numbers of casts and/or presence of abnormal casts must be accompanied by a finding of _____

Protein

What WBCs are seen in increased numbers in the urine of a patient rejecting a kidney transplant?

Lymphocytes

Reagent strip test for protein is most sensitive to:

Albumin

What causes an increase in the Specific gravity of urine by refractory methods, when the test strip SG is normal?

Glucose

The presence of ketones in urine reveals the metabolism of ____

Fats

The presence of ketones in urine reveals the metabolism of ____

Fats

Ictotest

Bilirubin

Acetest

Ketones

Clinitest

Glucose

Sulfa Salicyclic Acid

Protein

Urine crystal indicative of pathological condition:

Leucine Crystals

Found in acid urine

Calcium oxalate crystals

Coffin lid appearence

Triple Phosphate crystals

What is the renal threshold for glucose?

120-140 mg/dl

After finding a kidney stone, blood and calcium oxalate crystals, a doctor treats a patient and advises them to:

Eat a vegetarian diet

A fundamental principle of immunology is recognition of:

Self from non-self

Non-specific response to foreign antigens

Innate Immunity

Unbroken skin and mucosal membrane surfaces

First line of defense

Specific response to foreign antigens resulting in targeted antibodies

Adaptiv Immunity

Active artificial immunity is demonstrated in: a) Vaccination b) Infusion of plasma containing antibodies c) Obtained from colostrum d) As a result of suffering from disease

B cells ultimately mature into:

Plasma cells

IgA immunoglobulin is associated with:

Tears, saliva, breast milk, gut

How long does a typical antibody response take to develop sufficiently?

10 days to 2 weeks

If urine is used for pregnancy testing it should ideally be: a) sterile b) first morning c) random d) 24-hour

A complication of Group A strep infection is: a) acute rheumatic fever b) glomerulonephritis c) Necrotizing faciitis d) all of the above

Most serological screening tests for Infectious Mononucleosis test for Heterophil Abs rather than IgG or IgM anti-EBV abs because: a) They are more specific b) they develop quicker c) they are cheaper to access d) They are more sensitive

Symptoms of group A strep infections and Infectious Mononucleosis are quite similar. What lab tests or values help discriminate between the two?

Group A Strep infections produce a higher absolute neutrophil count, Mononucleosis produces a higher absolute lymphocyte count

T/F In the RPR serologic test for syphilis, false positives are rare.

T/F The antinuclear antibody assay (ANA) is specific for Lupus erythematosus.

T/F Rheumatoid factors are autoantibodies.

What are the possible genotypes of a group A person?

AA, AO

Healthy individuals possess ABO abs to the ABO blood group Ags absent from their RBCs. These antibodies are considered:

Isoantibodies

Most Anti-A and Anti-B Abs belong to which class of immunoglobulins?

IgM

T/F Rh negative individuals have natural Anti-D

Forward typing uses: a) Patient's cells and commercially prepared anti-sera (Anti-A, Anti-B) b) Patient's serum and commercially prepared donor cells (A cells, B cells) c) Patient's cells and patient's own serum

When phenotyping a patient, if the forward and reverse typing do not give inverse results, what should be suspected? a) Patient has a subtype that does not react with commercially prepared anti-sera b) Patient has an interfering cold Ab reacting with all commercially prepared donor cells c) Technical error-more than one patient is being processed and as serum was pulled off the tubes were mixed and the wrong serum is being used d) Any of the above

Which of the Rh antibodies is most antigenic?

What does antigenic mean?

Most likely to cause a reaction with the immune system and cause the formation of Abs

The Direct Antihuman globulin test (DAT) is utilized to detect:

Antibodies that have coated or reacted with the RBC's in a patient's body

In an antibody screen, if a positive agglutination reaction is noted at IS and then disappears at 37 Degrees, what immunoglobulin type is suspected?

IgM

Blood products donated by friends or family for specific patients

Directed Donation

Blood donations for the general public

Allogenic Donation

Blood products donated for self-use only

Autologous Donation

The anticoagulant used to keep blood from coagulating in donated blood is:

Citrate

The Nucleic Acid test (NAT) for Hep C looks for:

RNA of the Hep C virus

Packed RBCs are administered to patients to:

Correct for anemia to provide tissue oxygenation

Which of the following products contains the most active coag factors? a) PRBCs b) Platelets c) Fresh frozen plasma d) Cryoprecipitate

Spectrophotometry measures the concentration of an unknown substance by:

Comparing an unknown colored substance to a standard solution

An analytical method that depends on light-scattering properties of Ag-Ab complexes, latex agglutination, or platelet aggregates is:

Nephelometry

Flow Cytometry measures:

Photons emitted from fluorescent probes attached to antibodies targeted to the antigen in question

Flow Cytometry utilizes ___ as a light sources

Lasers

Many point of care tests utilize which analytic method?

Reflectance spectrophotometry

CLIA '88 was an act that passed in 1988 that ensures: a) All labs participate in external proficiency testing programs b) All labs have written Quality Assessment Programs c) All of the above d) Only answers A and B

Serum or plasma that has a dark green tinge

Icteric

Serum or plasma that has a red or pink tinge

Hemolytic

Serum or plasma that has a milky-turbid look

Lipemic

The proportion of cases with a specific disease that gives a positive result (seeking fewer false negatives)

Sensitivity

The proportion of cases with absence of the specific disease or condition that gives a negative result (seeking fewer false positives)

Specificity

What is the first line of defense in our immune system?

Barriers (Skin, Mucosa)

Adaptive immunity is best described as:

A specific response to an invading organism that involves several different immune cells signaling one another that ultimately results in B lymphocytes producing antibody against the organism

Serological tests for pregnancy employ an antibody response for:

B-hCG

Which antibody is produced in response to to Epstein-Barr-Virus and is targeted by the rapid slide test?

Heterophil antibodies

Serum cholesterol uses what technology?

Absorbance spectrophotometry

Platelet aggregation uses what technology?

Nephelometry

CD/CD8 uses what technology?

Flow Cytometry

Serum Chloride uses what technology?

Electrochemical Potentiometry

Gluconeogenesis

The breakdown of fat or protein to release glucose

Type 1 Diabetes is characterized by:

B cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency

Hypoglycemia may be a consequence: a) Excess dose of insulin b) Glycogen storage disease c) Insulin resistance d) Answers A and B

When a blood glucose level is ordered STAT, what collection tube is used?

Green top (Heparin)

An increase in osmotic pressure corresponds with increased ADH production to maintain homeostasis? What does ADH do?

Causes more absorption of water in the nephron

Hypernatremia

Increased sodium level

Hemolysis of RBCs during blood collection will hace he biggest effecct on which electrolyte?

Potassium

Which blood test gets elevated first in a heart attack?

Myoglobin

Which blood test is most specific to the heart?

Cardiac-specific troponin T

Kernicterus

Build up of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain