Final Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the earliest dentist whose name is known and in what country or region did he reside?

A

Hesi-Re; Egypt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is the “Grand Old Man of Dentistry”?

A

G.V. Black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who was the first dentist to employ a dental assistant?

A

C. Edmund Kells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is always considered part of professional attire for a dental assistant?

A

good health, good grooming, and appropriate dress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the new set of federal privacy laws for healthcare patients?

A

HIPAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Professionalism is what distinguishes people who only “pursue a job” from those who

A

“have a job”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which dental specialist diagnoses and treats diseases of the pulp?

A

Endodontist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who approves many of the dental professional schools?

A

American Dental Association (ADA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the term used when one chairside assistant works primarily with the dentist?

A

four-handed dentistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the term used for a voluntary standards of behavior established by a profession?

A

Code of Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning ethics and the law?

A

Ethical standards are always of a higher order than the law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following best describes the principle of autonomy?

A

the right to privacy, freedom of choice, and the acceptance of responsibility for one’s actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does abandonment mean in the dental office?

A

discontinuation of care after treatment has begun, but before it has been completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is it called when a dentist is negligent for not meeting the standard of care?

A

malpractice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is malpractice?

A

Professional negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which body designation is farther away from the truck of the body?

A

Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following body designations means toward the front?

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Several types of tissues that group together to perform a single function form

A

organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The urinary system is also known as the

A

excretory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first line of defense against disease?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The central nervous system consists of the brains and the

A

spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which cells form the enamel?

A

ameloblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In which stage of tooth development do the cells of the tooth grow and increase in number?

A

cap stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many teeth are in development at birth?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What bony process creates the cheekbone?

A

zygomatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which bone forms the joint with the mandible?

A

Temproromandibular Joint (TMJ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which artery is the larger of the two terminal branches of the external carotid?

A

Maxillary Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The wing like tip of the outer side of each nostril is called the

A

ala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For the purpose of identifying landmarks, how many regions can the face be divided into?

A

9 areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The posterior party of the roof of the mouth is called the

A

soft palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is the estimated time for eruption of the permanent mandibular second molar?

A

11-13 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which tooth type is present in the permanent dentition but not in the primary dentition?

A

pre-molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which dentition period has some teeth of both dentitions present?

A

mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is the cusp of Carabelli located on the maxillary first molar?

A

located lingual to the mesiolingual cusp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the Universal system numbers for the maxillary centeral incisor teeth?

A

8&9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which tooth is usually the first permanent tooth to erupt in the oral cavity?

A

central incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What term refers to tooth decay?

A

Dental caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What term indicates an exposed root?

A

root canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most mineralization tissue in the body?

A

enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A soft deposti on teeth that consists of bacteria byproducts is

A

Plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is associated with necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis?

A

characterized by necrosis of gingival tissues, periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. Associated with immune disorders such as infection and immunosuppressive therapies; severe and rapid periodontal destruction alveolar bone loss, lack of deep pocket formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The portion of the tooth that anchors the tooth to the body socket with the attachments of the periodontal ligaments is the

A

cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The components in food that are needed by the body to supply energy are called

A

nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Compounds in proteins used by the body to build and repair tissue are

A

aminoacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Food that have been grown without the use of chemical pesticides, herbicides, or fertilizers are

A

organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the term used for localized area of pus originating from an infection?

A

Abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How would you describe the condition of cellulitis?

A

Inflammation of cellular or connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What diagnostic tool would be useful in diagnosing both periapical pathology and impacted teeth?

A

Radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who introduced the earliest belief that life was “spontaneously generated” from living matter?

A

Aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bacteria with a spherical shape are called

A

cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does HIV affect once it enters the body?

A

Special T cells and slowly kills them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The link in the chain of infection that refers to the strength of the organism is

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Using moisturizers to maintain healthy skin helps to prevent which type of disease transmission?

A

irritant contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Areas of the hand that are frequently missed when washing with antimicrobial soap and water are the

A

thumb, in between fingers, fingernails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why is it important to use surface barriers and to disinfect treatment rooms?

A

to prevent patient-to-patient transmission of microorganisms / to protect surfaces from dental materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following surfaces in the dental office are covered with barriers?

A

headrest, control buttons, light handles, light switch, evacuator hose and control, x-ray control, air-water syringe handles, dental unit control touch pads, patient mirror handles, handle on light-curing device, switch on amalgamators, drawer handles, adj. handles, bracket table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When removing contaminated barriers and wiping down contaminated surfaces with an intermediate-level disinfectant after patient treatment is completed, which type of gloves should be worn?

A

utility glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An autoclave instrument sterilization process uses which sterilization agent?

A

most heat under pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is classified as a critical instrument?

A

items used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When should holding solutions be used as part of the instrument processing procedure?

A

If instruments cannot be cleaned immediately after a procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Regulatory agencies issue

A

rules and regulations with which dental offices must comply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which agency regulates the manufacturing and labeling of medical devices?

A

FDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What regulatory agency ensures the safety and health of American’s workers?

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Eating lunch in an area in which chemicals are used is a common way of chemical exposure through

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What type of gloves should be worn when using chemicals?

A

Utility (chemical resistant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The proper face mask should

A

be fluid repellent and should provide respiratory protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In community water, the number of waterborne bacteria is kept below

A

500 CFUs per ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Dental workers are a greater risk of exposure to what disease?

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Biofilm cannot be removed by

A

flushing alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Ergonomics deals with

A

adaptation of the work environment to the human body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Posture affects the ability of the dental assistant to

A

reach, hold, and use of equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is one of the most important factors in preventing CTS?

A

frequently resting the hands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the minimum length of time that the signed acknowledgement must be kept in the patient’s record?

A

6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who owns the patient record in the dental office?

A

the dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is used to record statements in the progress notes of a patient dental record?

A

Black Ink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is one of the two major arteries on each side of the neck that carry blood to the head?

A

Carotid Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is commonly used to measure blood pressure in the arteries?

A

sphygmomanometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following pulse sites are used during CPR?

A

Carotid Artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the following is used by the dentist to detect imperfections in the enamel surface, which maybe the beginning of decay?

A

Visual Evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which numbering system begains with the maxillary right third molar and concludes at the mandibular right third molar, running from 1 to 32?

A

Universal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What method of assessment uses the examiner’s fingers and hands to feel for texture, size, and consistency of hard and soft tissue?

A

Palpation

82
Q

Why are muscle relaxants such a diazepam prescribed for patients with multiple sclerosis?

A

to control muscle spasms

83
Q

Which of the following is caused by a sudden vascular lesion of the brain such as hemorrhage, embolism, thrombosis, or ruptured aneurysm?

A

stroke

84
Q

What is the cause of secondary dentin gradually reducing the size of the pulp chamber, making teeth more susceptible to fracture?

A

dark and brittle

85
Q

Which schedule of drugs does heroin belong to?

A

Schedule I drugs

86
Q

Which of the following stands for taking a dose twice a day as noted on a written prescription?

A

BID

87
Q

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, which drug is used for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

Erythromycin

88
Q

What color coding is used for oxygen supplies in the dental office?

A

green

89
Q

What is another term used for a cerebrovascular accident?

A

stroke

90
Q

The recommended flood covering in the operatory or treatment room is

A

linoleum or tile

91
Q

Which aspect of the dental assist’s stool could cause excessive leaning over the patient when the assistant is seated inappropriately?

A

abdomincal bar

92
Q

The dental assistant should initially position the operating light

A

on the patient’s chest

93
Q

Disposable traps should be changed

A

weekly

94
Q

What is the most common dental chair position for dental procedures

A

supine

95
Q

What is the transfer zone for a right-handed dentist?

A

4 to 7 o’clock

96
Q

What is the suggested positioning for the right-handed operator when treating the maxillary right buccal surfaces of the teeth?

A

10-12 o’clock / chin up, turned away

97
Q

Hand instruments are designed with three specific parts. The three parts include the handle, shank, and

A

working end

98
Q

What does the third number of the G.V. Black instrument formula describe?

A

angle of the blade in degrees in relation to handle.

99
Q

Which instruments are set up for every procedure and are also called the examination setup?

A

mouth mirror, explorer, and cotton pliers (periodontal probe)

100
Q

This is a small glass bowl with different sized wells on either side used to hold liquid dental materials.

A

dappen dish

101
Q

When were rotary instruments introduced to dentistry?

A

1940s

102
Q

Which handpiece is considered the most versatile handpiece used in dentistry?

A

straight, low-speed handpiece

103
Q

How many rpm can the high-speed handpiece reach?

A

450,000 rpm

104
Q

What mechanism is used to hold the bur in a high-speed handpiece?

A

friction-grip device

105
Q

What is the function of saliva ejector?

A

to remove liquids from the mouth

106
Q

The high-volume evacuator should be held in the pen grasp or

A

thumb-to-nose grasp

107
Q

Which oral rinsing technique is performed frequently as debris accumulates during the preparation and restoration of a tooth?

A

Limited-area rinsing

108
Q

Which dental dam frame is recommended when radiographs maybe required throughout the dental procedure?

A

plastic U-shaped frame

109
Q

How many hours before receiving general anesthesia must a patient refrain from eating or drinking?

A

8 to 12 hours

110
Q

During intravenous conscious sedation, how often should physiologic measurements such as level of consciousness, respiration function, oximetry, blood pressure, heart rate, and cardiac rhythm be taken and recorded?

A

every 15 minutes

111
Q

What does the addition of a vasoconstrictor to a local anesthetic help with?

A

slow down intake of anesthetic and increase duration of action. Blood vessels to site are constricted. Absorption into system is slowed. Local anes. toxicity is minimized. Agent prolonged by decreasing blood flow in immediate area. Bleeding at injected area is decreased.

112
Q

Wetting, viscosity, surface characteristics, and film thickness are all characteristics that affect which of the following application properties?

A

adhesion

113
Q

Dental amalgam is composed of an alloy powder that is triturated to be mixed in approximately equal parts with

A

mercury

114
Q

IRM is the restorative material of choice for

A

short-term restoration / temporary intermediate

115
Q

What makes composite resin a more favorable restoration than an amalgam?

A

their esthetic qualities, new advances in their make-up, designed to meet the needs.

116
Q

In addition to a shade guide, a curing light, and a composite instrument, what else maybe useful during the preparation of a composite resin restoration?

A

syringe tip and gauze pads

117
Q

Which type of dental base contains eugenol, which provides a sedative effect on irritated pulp?

A

IRM/ZOE

118
Q

Which dental material seals dentinal tubules, reduces leakage around restoration, and acts as a barrier against highly acidic cements?

A

Desensitizer

119
Q

Before dentin bonding, what function does acid etching have?

A

removes smear layer

120
Q

What ingredient has a soothing effect on the pulp?

A

Eugenol

121
Q

Zinc oxide-eugenol is mixed on a

A

treated paper pad

122
Q

How is zince phosphate dispensed?

A

powder and liquid

123
Q

What is the purpose of a bite registration?

A

used to show the occlusal relationship of the maxiallary and mandibular teeth.

124
Q

What is the shelf-life of alginate impression material?

A

approximately 1 year

125
Q

When loading a maxillary alginate impression, where is the bulk of material placed?

A

toward the anterior palatal area of tray

126
Q

What piece of equipment is used to remove air from the mix of gypsum products?

A

Vibrator

127
Q

Which type of stone is used as a working model for making dentures?

A

dental stone

128
Q

During the pouring procedure, where should the gypsum material be placed to flow to all areas of the impression?

A

posterior teeth

129
Q

To check the occlusion of a Class I restoration one should use

A

articulating paper

130
Q

A space between two teeth is called

A

diastema

131
Q

On which tooth surface is a veneer placed

A

facial surface of prepared tooth

132
Q

What is another term for a universal retainer?

A

Tofflemire

133
Q

The larger circumference of the matrix band is always placed toward which surface?

A

occlusal surface

134
Q

What is used to contour the bands?

A

burnisher, or end of the mirror handle

135
Q

What is another term for a tooth, root, or implant used for the retention of a fixed porothesis?

A

abutment

136
Q

What is another term to describe the number of teeth involved in a fixed prosthesis?

A

units

137
Q

Which instrument should be used to pack the retraction cord into the gingival sulcus?

A

blunt cord packing instrument (gingival retraction cord instrument)

138
Q

What type of lighting is preferred when selecting a shade?

A

natural sunlight

139
Q

What home-care aid would a patient need to thoroughly clean underneath a three-unit bridge?

A

bridge threader

140
Q

When is a laboratory provisional coverage not used?

A

?

141
Q

How long does the initial set take with a self-curing resin?

A

immediate

142
Q

What type of temporary cement is most commonly used on a provisional temporary?

A

ZOE (Zinc Oxide Eugenol)

143
Q

Which is an example of the intraoral factors influencing the choice of a removable prothesis?

A

saliva flow ridge, torri

144
Q

What is the term used to describe abnormal growths of bone in a specific area of the mouth?

A

torri

145
Q

What is the term used to describe chewing?

A

Mastication

146
Q

What type of impression tray is used to take the preliminary impression for a full denture?

A

edentulous

147
Q

Which teeth are not included on a full denture?

A

third molars / 14 on each arch

148
Q

What is the term used to describe artificial teeth that have been surgically embedded in the bone?

A

Implants / endesil?

149
Q

A _____ evaluation is used to assess a patient’s attitude, ability to cooperate and overall outlook on implants.

A

psychological

150
Q

Informed consent for implant surgery should include which of the following?

A

background info, complications, prognosis, time frame, home care, follow-up appointments

151
Q

What is the term used to describe a localized area of pus?

A

Abscess

152
Q

A subjective examination of a patient would include which of the following?

A

Chief complaint, character & duration of pain, painful stimuli, sensitivity to biting & pressure.

153
Q

Which type of medicament is most commonly used as a sealer for a pulpotomy of a deciduous tooth?

A

formocresol

154
Q

What is the main purpose of paper points?

A

inserted into canal to absorb the irrigating solution & to dry canal.

155
Q

What would a periodontist use to record the depth of periodontal pockets, furcation involvement, and tooth mobility?

A

periodontal probe

156
Q

What is the depth of a normal sulcus?

A

3mm or less

157
Q

What instrument is used to locate deposits of calculus?

A

periodontal explorers

158
Q

Which of the following antibiotic therapies is most effective in treating periodontal disease?

A

chlorhexidine

159
Q

What instrument is used to remove fragments that have broken off during the extraction procedure?

A

root tip pick

160
Q

Which instrument is used in a push-and-pull motion to smooth the surface of the bone?

A

bone file

161
Q

Which type of biopsy involves the removal of the entire lesion?

A

excisional biopsy

162
Q

What instrument is used to crimp a stainless steel crown prior to seating it?

A

contouring pliers

163
Q

The most commonly injured teeth due to trauma in children are?

A

maxillary central incisors

164
Q

Unexplained chipped or injured teeth, bruises or swelling around the face, head, or neck, tears of the labial frenum, and injuries in various stages of healing on a child could indicate.

A

child abuse

165
Q

Orthodontic appliances can move teeth because

A

bone resorbs under pressure

166
Q

How many standard extraoral photographs are taken during the diagnostic record collection step?

A

two (frontal & right profile)

167
Q

What radiograph is used for orthodontic treatment?

A

Pan and cephalometric

168
Q

The HIPAA act specifies

A

privacy.

169
Q

The backbone of a well run organization is

A

good communication.

170
Q

Communication can be defined as

A

sending of a message by one individual and receiving of the same message by another individual.

171
Q

What approximate percentage of all spoken words is never heard?

A

90%

172
Q

Which filling system is the easiest and most commonly used?

A

Alphabetic

173
Q

The recall system is designed to

A

help patients return in a timely manner for treatment.

174
Q

Payments on any outstanding accounts payable are known as

A

disbursements.

175
Q

The ledger is

A

a financial statement that maintains all account transactions.

176
Q

What is vital in the event of theft, fire, or disaster?

A

bonding insurance?

177
Q

In general what is the first contact with a prospective employer?

A

telephone

178
Q

Which of the following should not be stated on a resume?

A

ssn, race, color, religion, gender, national origin, age, marrital status, and childcare arrangements.

179
Q

Which is the newest method of providing a resume?

A

electronic resume

180
Q

Which of following should be kept to a minimum at an interview?

A

jewelry and make-up

181
Q

What length should a resume be?

A

one page

182
Q

How far in advance should you arrive for an interview appointment?

A

10-15 minutes

183
Q

Which part of the interview is the most critical?

A

the first 10 minutes

184
Q

Tooth #5 normally replaces primary tooth

A

true

185
Q

The letter B indicates which tooth surface?

A

Buccal

186
Q

Large amounts of aspirin are most likely to affect a patient’s

A

blood

187
Q

If an error has been made on a clinical record entry, which of the following should be done?

A

use black pen, draw straight line through entry. Initial and date correction.

188
Q

When measuring blood pressure the patient should be seated with the arm in which position?

A

level as the heart

189
Q

Which of the following conditions may occur if excess cement is NOT removed from the cervical margin after cementation of a crown?

A

inflammation and discomfort

190
Q

In selecting an impression try for a preliminary maxillary impression the tray should extend posteriorly.

A

True

191
Q

Tooth #1 is the universal tooth numbering system is the

A

maxillary right third molar

192
Q

Which of the following types of teeth are likely to be found in the primary dentition?

A

baby teeth ; succendous teeth

193
Q

Using the Universal tooth numbering system a lower left molar is noted as tooth number?

A

17-19

194
Q

Using the Universal tooth numbering system the maxillary right second primary molar is tooth number?

A

2

195
Q

Alginate impressions should be poured immediately to

A

avoid hardening

196
Q

Acid etching agents are required when

A

to remove smear layer/ to bond sealant material

197
Q

While handling a contaminated explorer an assistant accidentally receives a percutaneous injury to the fingers. The assistant should FIRST

A

wash hands and clean wounded area

198
Q

Which of the following steam autoclave times and settings is not effective in inactivating the hepatitis B virus?

A

250 - 30 min; 250 - 30 min; 273 - 10 min; 273 - 3 min

199
Q

When using the autoclave timing the sterilization cycle should begin when the

A

?

200
Q

The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to offer HBV vaccinations to employees with what period of time after assisgnment to a job where exposure to blood and other potentially infectious material can be reasonably anticipated?

A

10 days