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Pathology 375 > final > Flashcards

final Flashcards

1
Q

plasma

A

all parts of blood

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2
Q

serum

A

fluid remaining if blood is allowed to clot

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3
Q

CBC

A

complete blood count (total cells)

differential=shows different types of white blood cells

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4
Q

when is blood smear done?

A

when CBC and diff is abnormal

-pathologist examines blood smear

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5
Q

myeloid progenitors

lymphoid progenitors

A

give rise to erythrocytes, platelets, granulocytes, and monocytes
give rise to lymphocytes

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6
Q

4 myeloid cell lines

A

erythroid/megakaryocytic
macrophage/granulocytic
eosinophilic
mast cell/basophilic

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7
Q

how much blood is in the body?

A

5L (blood and plasma)

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8
Q

hematocrit

A

ratio of cells to total blood volume

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9
Q

abnormal blood cells

A

normal=biconcave disk
abnormal=smaller microcyte, target cell, macrocyte, sickle cell, fragments
-useful in diagnosing various disorders

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10
Q

hemoglobin

A

carries oxygen

  • 4 chains, each with heme molecule (which contains iron)
  • Fe, B12, B6, and folate needed to make Hb
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11
Q

how long do RBCs live?

A

120 days

-spleen removes old ones and recycles Hb

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12
Q

bilirubin

A

breakdown product of heme-goes to liver, then SI in bile, and the reabsorbed

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13
Q

why do bruises change color?

A

as heme is converted to bilirubin by macrophages, they change to yellow

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14
Q

types of anemias

A 
iron deficient
aplastic-no RBCs
megaloblastic
sickle cell
hemolytic
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15
Q

leukopenia

A

decrease in WBCs

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16
Q

anemia definition

A

decrease in RBC (and therefore Hb) mass

  • in females, Hb less than 115
  • in males, less than 130
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17
Q

hemolysis

A

destruction of RBCs

  • inherited
  • or acquired-from immune, mechanical, or infections or chemicals
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18
Q

first sign of bone marrow failure

A

anemia

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19
Q

decreased RBC production mechanisms

A
  • bone marrow failure (aplastic anemia)
  • defective DNA synthesis (megaloblastic anemia)
  • defective Hb synthesis (iron deficiency anemia)
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20
Q

Sxs of anemia

A
  • pale skin and mucosa
  • fatigue, dyspnea on exertion
  • brittle nails
  • koilonychia (spoon shaped nails)
  • headache, decreased vision, drowsiness
  • white creases in hands (vs. red normally)
  • pale conjuctiva
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21
Q

iron deficiency anemia

A
  • causes of iron deficiency are decreased intake, absorption, loss (eg chronic blood loss), or requirements (eg pregnancy)
  • transported bound to transferrin and stored as ferritin
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22
Q

what type of anemia results from iron deficiency?

A

hypochromic microcytic anemia
low hematocrit and Hb
serum iron and ferritin low

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23
Q

aplastic anemia

A

loss of myeloid progenitor cells in bone marrow–>pancytopenia

  • decreased WBCs in infections
  • decreased platelets–>causes bleeding
  • decreased hemoglobin causes anemia
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24
Q

causes of aplastic anemia

A

idiopathic-primary

  • may be some autoimmune cause
  • secondary-cytotoxic drugs, radiation, viral infection
  • radiation and chemo attack dividing cells and there are lots in the bone marrow
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25
Q

pancytopenia

A

decrease in all myeloid lineages

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26
Q

megaloblastic anemia

A

characteriized by megaloblasts in bone marrow and their descendants in blood

  • 2nd most common cause of anemia
  • two major causes are B12 and folate deficiency
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27
Q

B12 deficiency

A

due to impaired absorption, decreased intake, or increased requirement or lack of intrinsic factor (carrier molecule) as in pernicious anemia

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28
Q

what is the cause of pernicious anemia?

A

autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in stomach

-see Abs to intrinsic factor

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29
Q

folate and B12

A

folate reserves are small (months) compared to B12

spinal chord lesion may result if prolonged low B12 (alcoholics, pregnancy)

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30
Q

causes of hemolysis

A 
intracorpuscular defect (problem with RBC)
-Hb defect, enzyme defect, or membrane defect
extracorpuscular defect-problem with body
-autoimmune destruction, infection, mechanical destruction
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31
Q

sickle cell anemia

A

inherited disorder

  • due to defect in beta globin gene
  • low oxygen causes RBCs to sickle and small vessel occlusion can happen
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32
Q

sickle disease

A

homozygotes
sickle cells in blood and sickling crisis
-depend on exchange transfusions
-can be less severe if fetal Hb sticks around
-spleen is affected and dysfunctional b/c of backup by teens

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33
Q

sickle trait

A

heterozygotes

asymptomatic except in extreme cases (like airplanes w/pressurized cabins)

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34
Q

Sxs of sickle disease

A
  • ulcers

- abnormal bone growth

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35
Q

thalassemias

A

group of disorders caused by gene defects in Hb gene chains (alpha thalassemia-defective alpha or beta)

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36
Q

what type of anemia do thalassemias cause?

A
  • hypochromic microcytic anemia

- target cells in smear

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37
Q

hereditary spherocytosis

A
  • group of disorders of inherited defect in strutural proteins in red cells
  • defective cells unable to maintain shape and are removed by spleen
  • variable severities
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38
Q

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Abs against own RBCs

  • ideopathic
  • secondary to lymphoproliferative disease or drugs
  • challenging b/c lots of transfusions–>Abs to smaller parts of RBCs
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39
Q

shistocytes

A

RBC fragments

-seen in hemolytic anemia

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40
Q

polycythemia

A

increase in RBCs

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41
Q

causes of polycythemia

A
  • primary: genetically inclined to make EPO

- secondary: high altitude living, chronic long disease

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42
Q

polycythemia rubra vera

A
  • neoplastic disease of RBC precursors
  • increased viscosity of blood
  • insensitive to EPO and requires blood removal
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43
Q

leukopenia

A

decreased WBCs

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44
Q

leukocytosis

A
  • increase in WBCs
  • neutrophilic=increase neutrophils
  • eosinophilia=increased eosinophils
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45
Q

leukemias

A

malignant blood cell precursor proliferation in bone marrow

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46
Q

lymphomas

A

malignant proliferation of cells in lymphoid tissue

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47
Q

acute lymphoid leukemia

A

most common type in children

-chemo, pretty treatable, 50% cured

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48
Q

most common cause of cancer in kids under 5

A

leukemia

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49
Q

acute myeloid leukemia

A

most common form in adults

-treat with bone marrow transplant

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50
Q

chronic myeloid leukemia

A
  • chronic and accelerated phase, then blast crisis

- Philadelphia chromosome

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51
Q

chronic lymphoid leukemia

A

more common in elderly

low grade and slow progression and therefore not susceptible to treatment as much

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52
Q

Hodgkin’s disease

A
  • characterized by reed steinberg cell
  • common in 2 age groups: 25 and 55
  • staging is important and chemo is effective
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53
Q

non hodgkin’s lymphoma

A
  • diverse group of diseases

- graded low, medium, or high

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54
Q

follicular lymphoma

A

most common form
low grade
affects the elderly

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55
Q

diffuse large cell lymphomas

A
  • intermediate or high grade

- poor prognosis

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56
Q

burkitt’s lymphoma

A
  • EBV infection
  • highly malignant
  • affects children from northern Africa
  • lymph nodes less defined
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57
Q

multiple myeloma

A

malignant disease of plasma cells

  • middle aged
  • boney lesions, kidney damage
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58
Q

hematostasis

A

=stopping of bleeding

by interaction of vessels, platelets, and coagulation factors

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59
Q

what makes people more susceptible to clots?

A

lack of natural anticoagulants

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60
Q

hemophilia A

A

congenital

factor VIII

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61
Q

hemophilia B

A

congenital

factor IX

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62
Q

DIC

A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

-clots form all over and factors are consumed, leading to spontaneous bleeding

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63
Q

4 layers of the GI tract

A

inner mucosa: epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae
submucosa-contains vessels
muscularis propria-responsible for peristalsis
serosa/adventitia/peritonium

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64
Q

what is a concern with cleft lip and palate?

A

sucking is affected and this is how babies get food

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65
Q

dental caries

A

cavities
-disease of tooth due to bacterial erosion of structure
streptococcus mutans like sugar in saliva
plaque promotes attachment of bacteria, which secrete degrading enzymes

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66
Q

complications of cavities

A

pulpitis
atypical abscess
periatipical granuloma
radicular cyst-

which may result in destruction of tooth

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67
Q

periodontitis

A

inflammation of periodontal recesses-gingiva, periodontal membrane, alveolar bone

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68
Q

what is the most common cause of tooth loss?

A

periodontitis

-inflammatory cells release enzymes that loosen tooth

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69
Q

stromatitis

A

inflammation of the mouth

  • infectious causes, eg herpes, bacteria, fungi
  • or non infectious causes, eg aphthous ulcers (canker sores) or ideopathic causes
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70
Q

leukoplakia

A

persistant white lesion in the mouth

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71
Q

erythroplakia

A

persistant red lesion

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72
Q

risk factors for malignant oral neoplasms

A

tobacco use, alcohol, HPV

other contributing factors: sun exposure (lips)

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73
Q

common locations of oral neoplasms

A

anterior 2/3 of tongue, lower lip

-possibly metastasize to LN

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74
Q

sialadenitis

A

inflammation of a salivary gland, usually parotid

  • ie both sides of face, each gland is paired
  • infectious causes: viral (mumps), bacterial (staph. aureus
  • autoimmune causes: lupis, Sjogren syndrome
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75
Q

major salivary glands

A

parotid, submandibular, sublingual

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76
Q

pleomorphic adenoma

A

benign salivary neoplasm of epithelial and stromal elements

  • needs proper excision, may recur locally
  • infectious causes: herpes, fungal (uncommon w/out immune compromise)
  • chemical causes: GERD
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77
Q

GERD

A

reflux of gastric contents to lower esophagus–>inflammation

-due to relaxed sphicnter

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78
Q

barretts esophagus

A

presence of metaplastic intestinal type epithelium in esophagus-change from squamous to columnar
-means increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma

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79
Q

hiatus hernia

A

displacement of portion of stomach above diaphragm

  • sliding hernia=stomach slides upward (90%)
  • paraesophageal hernia=stomach protruding upward beside esophagus (10%)
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80
Q

achalasia

A

disorder of esophagus resulting in increased resting tone of LES

  • food is unable to ent er stomach
  • can cause aspiration of food, nutrition problems
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81
Q

esophageal varices

A

dilation of submucosal veins of distal esophagus
-often due to portal hypertension secondary to hepatic cirrhosis
significant morbidity and mortality when ruptures

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82
Q

acute gastritis causes

A

stress, drugs (asprin), alcohol

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83
Q

chronic gastritis

A
  • with acute inflammatory flares
  • one type: heliobactor pylori infection: survives in acidic environment
  • autoimmune: destruction of parietal cells in stomach
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84
Q

what is h pylori infection associated with?

A

increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma

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85
Q

what does autoimmune gastritis cause?

A
  • increased adenocarcinoma risk

- megaloblastic anemia due to inability to absorb B12

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86
Q

peptic ulcer disease

A

-localized chronic ulceration of gastric or duodenal mucosa

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87
Q

risk factors for peptic ulcer disease

A

H pylori (80%), stress, hormones

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88
Q

complications of peptic ulcer disease

A

hemorrhage
perforation and peritonitis
scarring (stenosis, obstruction) below submucosa is affected

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89
Q

gastric carcinoma

A
  • adenocarcinoma
  • poor prognosis, 5 yr survival 20%
  • spreads to LN (virchow node)
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90
Q

risk factors for gastric carcinoma

A

nitrosamines, japanes, H pylori

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91
Q

lymphoma of stomach

A

common sit for extra-nodal lymphoma in MALT

-chronic H Pylori

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92
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum

A
  • developmental disorder of small bowel due to persistence of omphalomesenteric (vitelline) duct
  • causes all layers of bowel wall to outpouch
  • ->malabsorption, celiac, maldigestion
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93
Q

giardia

A

parasite (bever reservoir) that infects the small bowel

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94
Q

carcinoids (small bowel)

A
  • low grade malignant neoplasm of neuroendocrine cells
  • carcinoid syndrome possible (diarrhea, flushing)
  • locally invasive
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95
Q

crohn’s disease

A
  • skip lesions-areas of inflammation, then areas of normal
  • transmural inflammation-full thickness of bowel wall
  • fibrosis and scarring–> intestinal obstruction
  • possible fistula of bowel and bladder
  • possible fissures, strictures, adhesions
96
Q

what extra-coloinic manifestations are possible in crohn’s disease

A

arthritis, skin lesions, eye involvement

97
Q

ulerative colitis

A
  • only affects colon, no skip lesions

- inflammation limited to mucosa–>no fibrosis/scarring

98
Q

complications of ulcerative colitis

A

toxic megacolon-weakened and dilated

  • dysplasia
  • extra-colonic manifestations (same as crohns)
99
Q

Hirshprung’s disease

A

congenital absence of colonic nerve ganglia–>no peristalsis in portion of colon
-dilation of colon proximal to aganglionic segment

100
Q

diverticular disease

A
  • outpouchings of colonic mucosa

- inflammation of diverticulum

101
Q

complication of diverticular disease

A

pericolonic abscess
peritonitis
colonic stenosis
perforation

102
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Acute colitis
Formation of pseudomembrane due to C. difficile bacteria toxin
From long term antibiotic use

103
Q

Ischemic bowel disease

A
  • parts of bowel susceptible to ischemia (poor blood supply)

- atherosclerosis can contribute

104
Q

bile

A

makes fat soluble

-made in liver, stored in gall bladdar

105
Q

Polyps

A

-protuberant mass

106
Q

Hyperplastic polyp

A

Most common, no malignant potential

107
Q

Hamartomatous polyp

A

Occur in children and can become dysplastic

-Peutz-jeghers syndrome-multiple polyps, inherited

108
Q

Adenomatous polyps

A

Benign neoplasms

Increased risk of if carcinoma if dysplastic or villous

109
Q

Colonic carcinoma

A
  • 3rd most common malignant tumour and cause of cancer related death
  • peak in 60-80years
  • adenocarcinomas histologically, metastasize
110
Q

Appendicitis

A

Acute bacterial infection of appendix secondary to lumen obstruction
-abdominal pain, leukocytosis, peritonitis if ruptures

111
Q

hepatobiliary system functions

A
  • detoxify waste products
  • remove old RBCs
  • produce bile
  • synthesize plasma proteins and lipoproteins
  • detoxify drugs
112
Q

blood flow to hepatobiliary system

A

portal vein and hepatic artery supply sinusoids

-sinusoids drain to central vein–>hepatic vein–>inferior vena cava

113
Q

bile

A

makes fat soluble

-made in liver, stored in gall bladdar

114
Q

cirrhosis

A

end stage liver disease

-fibrosis, regenerative nodules

115
Q

causes of cirrhosis

A
  • alcohol
  • hepatitis
  • metabolic and hereditary causes
  • drugs
  • biliary cirrhosis
116
Q

complications of cirrhosis

A

portal hypertension

-varices, ascites, splenomegaly

117
Q

hepatitis E

A

fecal oral transmission

118
Q

hemochromatosis

A

autosomal rescessive disorder of iron metabolism—>iron deposition in various organs
-cause of hepatitis

119
Q

wilson’s disease

A

autosomal repressive disease of copper metabolism resulting in copper depositions
-is a cause of hepdaitis

120
Q

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

autosomal recessive disorder

  • decreased alpha 1 antitrypsin
  • may cause cirrhosis
  • does cause hepatitis
121
Q

drugs/toxins that can cause hepatitis

A

acetaminophen

alcohol-causes fatty liver (stenosis), alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis

122
Q

hepatitis A

A

fecal-oral transmission

  • no chronic state
  • vaccine available
  • rarely lethal
123
Q

hepatitis B

A

parenteral (IV), perinatal, or sexual transmission

  • 5-10% become chronic
  • massive hepatic necrosis and death uncommon, but increased risk of carcinoma
  • vaccine available
124
Q

hepatitis C

A
  • parenteral (IVDU) or sexual transmission
  • 60-70% become chronic
  • increased risk of carcinoma
  • no vaccine
125
Q

hepatitis D

A

parenteral/sexual transmission

-requires co-infection with hep B

126
Q

hepatitis E

A

fecal oral transmission

127
Q

hepatic abscess

A

abscess in liver parenchyma due to bacteria or parasite

128
Q

metastatic carcinoma

A
  • most common malignancy of liver

- usual primary sites are GI, lung, breast

129
Q

gallstones (cholelithiasis)

A
  • cholesterol stones, pigment stones, or mixed stones
  • diagnosis by ultrasound
  • complications: jaundice, ascending cholangitis, gallstone ileus (obstruction)
130
Q

ascariasis

A

liver disease from obstruction of bile duct by a parasite

131
Q

primary sclerosing cholngitis

A
  • destruction of intra-hepatic and extra-hepatic bile ducts by lymphocytes and macrophages
  • most also have inflammatory bowel disease (UC)
  • affects younger males
  • unknown cause
132
Q

autoimmune hepatitis

A
  • chronic hepatitis in young females
  • Abs to specific antigens
  • responds to steroids
133
Q

primary biliary cirrhosis

A
  • destruction of small intra-hepatic bile ducts–> cirrhosis
  • autoimmune disease, affects middle aged females
  • antimitochondrial Abs present in most cases
  • no cure, unknown cause
134
Q

pancreatic carcinoma

A
  • adenocarcinoma of duct epithelial cells

- poor prognosis

135
Q

hepatocellular adenoma

A

benign neoplasm of hepatocyte origin

-most common in young females on oral contraceptives

136
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma

A
  • malignant neoplasm of hepatocytes
  • risk factors: cirrhosis, HBV, HCV, hemachromatosis, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • AFP(protein) levels elevated
137
Q

metastatic carcinoma

A
  • most common malignancy of liver

- usual primary sites are GI, lung, breast

138
Q

gallstones (cholelithiasis)

A
  • cholesterol stones, pigment stones, or mixed stones
  • dagnosis by ultrasound
  • complications: jaundice, ascending cholangitis, gallstone ileus
139
Q

cholecystitis

A

-inflammation of gallbladdar (acute or chronic)
-usually from gallstones
acalculous cholecystitis (no gallstones)

140
Q

choledocholithiasis

A

stone present incommon bile duct

141
Q

acute pancreatitis

A

acute inflammation + tissue necrosis due to release of pancreatic enzymes

  • 80% from gallstones or alcohol
  • complications: abscess, psuedocyst, peritonitis, diabetes
142
Q

proteinuria

A

protein in urine

143
Q

pancreatic carcinoma

A
  • adenocarcinoma of duct epithelial cells

- poor prognosis

144
Q

hormones that the kidneys produce

A

renin

EPO

145
Q

normal production of urine

A

1.5 L/day (24hour period)

146
Q

filtration barrier (urinary system)

A

endothelial cell, BM, and epithelial cell

147
Q

kidney functions

A
  • urine production
  • hormone production
  • regulation of acid-base balance of plasma
  • excretion of urea and creatine
148
Q

oliguria

A

decreased urine production

149
Q

glomerular diseases

A

group of diseases, damage to glomerulus

  • primary (minimal change glomerulopathy, primary membranous nephropathy, acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis)
  • secondary (caused by diabetes or immunologic disease)
150
Q

polyuria

A

increased urine production

151
Q

proteinuria

A

protein in urine

152
Q

acute nepritic syndrome

A

oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, edema, and hypertension

-typically after strep A infection

153
Q

nephrotic syndrome

A

-large amounts of protein in urine–>hypoalbuminemia

154
Q

why are people with nephrotic syndrome prone to infections and thrombi?

A

b/c of loss of proteins involved in coagulation and immunity in urine

155
Q

acute renal failure

A

acute onset of decreased urine production

  • over days to weeks
  • usually reversible
156
Q

acute pyelonephritis

A

bacterial infection of kidney

  • via urinary tract (ascending)-gram -
  • via bloodstream-gram +
157
Q

chronic renal failure

A

insidious decrease in renal function from damage to kidneys

  • several stages
    1. diminished renal reserve
    2. renal insufficiency
    3. renal failure
    4. end stage: terminally damaged
  • requires dialysis or transport
158
Q

glomerular diseases

A

group of diseases, damage to glomerulus

159
Q

acute tubular necrosis

A

sudden sever drop in blood pressure causing death of renal tubular cells and acute failure

160
Q

minimal change glomerulopathy

A
  • unknown origin, most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
  • responsive to corticosteroids but may recur
161
Q

acute glomerulonephritis

A
  • immune mediated inflammation
  • follows streptococceal infection in most cases
  • usually self limited in children
  • worse prognosis in adults: more have prolonged abnormal function
162
Q

what is the first indication of renal damage in diabetes?

A

albumin

163
Q

adult polycystic kidney disease

A

progressive number of variable sized cysts

  • kidneys enlarged
  • autosomal dominant inheritance
  • autosomal recessive version: fatal (large numbers of small cysts)
164
Q

cystic renal dysplasia

A

congenital disorder of development of kidney

  • usually unilateral
  • affects children
165
Q

acte pyelonephritis

A

bacterial infection of kidney

  • via urinary tract (ascending)-gram -
  • via bloodstream-gram +
166
Q

types of renal stones

A

calcium, struvite (chronic UTI), uric acid, or cystine

167
Q

cystitis

A

inflammation of bladder

168
Q

acute tubular necrosis

A

sudden sever drop in blood pressure causing death of renal tubular cells and acute failure

169
Q

benign nephrosclerosis

A

ischemic damage to glomeruli and loss of glomeruli

170
Q

complications of syphilis

A

systemic spread if untreated (rash, fever)

small vessel vasculitis, cardiac and CNS complications

171
Q

seminoma

A

-germ cell tumor of testes
large cells full of cytoplasm
-scrotal mass, usually diagnosed before metastisis

172
Q

non seminoma

A

-germ cell tumour of testes

eg teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma

173
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia

A
  • benign hyperplasia of epithelim and stroma

- urgency, frequency, dribbling in elderly males

174
Q

what produces testosterone?

A

leydig cells in testes

175
Q

hermaphroditism

A

discordance b/t genotypic and phenotypic sex

  • true: have both male and female gonads
  • pseudo-genotypically female and phenotyically male
176
Q

epidiymoorchytis, urethritis

A

inflammation of epididymis and testes and/or urethra

-infection, STI, uropathogen, virus

177
Q

balanitis

A

inflammation of glans penis

178
Q

complications of gonorrhea

A

-protatisis, epididymitis, and arthritis

179
Q

complications of syphilis

A

systemic spread if untreated (rash, fever)

small vessel vasculitis, cardiac and CNS complications

180
Q

endometrial hyperplasia

A

thickening of endometrial mucosa due to continued estrogen with inadequate progesterone

  • an-ovulary cycles
  • can be caused by puberty, anxiety, or being an athlete
181
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia

A
  • benign hyperplasia of epithelim and stroma

- urgency, frequency, dribbling in elderly males

182
Q

which parts of female reproductive system have stratified squamous?

A

vulva, vagina, ectocervix

183
Q

hermaphroditism

A

discordance b/t genotypic and phenotypic sex

  • true: have both male and female gonads
  • pseudo-genotypically female and phenotyically male
184
Q

ovarian cysts

A

fluid filled cavities lined by epithelium

-usually from unruptured follicles

185
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome

A

multiple cysts in ovaries due to hormonal disturbances

-multiple cysts in both ovaries, menstrual irregularities, possible infertility

186
Q

PID

A

extensive infection of upper reproductive tract

  • usually secondary to STI
  • salpingitis (fallopian tubes), peritonitis, overian abcess
187
Q

complications of PID

A

spread
infertility from scarring of fallopean tubes
pelvic mass with pain

188
Q

leiomyoma

A
  • benign neoplasm of smooth muscle in uterus
  • most common uterine neoplasm
  • usually asymptomatic
189
Q

toximia of pregnancy

A
  • unknown pathogenesis

- disease of symptom complex in mother

190
Q

endometrial adenocarcinoma

A
  • most common female reproductive tract tumor
  • endometrial epithelial cells
  • elderly females effected
  • hysterectomy to treat
191
Q

ovarian cysts

A

fluid filled cavities lined by epithelim

-usually from unruptured follicles

192
Q

polycystic ovary syndrome

A

multiple cysts in ovaries due to hormonal disturbances

-multiple cysts in both ovaries, menstrual irregularities, possible infertility

193
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation of fertilized ovum outside uterine cavity

-usually fallopian tube-trophoblast cells of placenta then invade and may cause rupture

194
Q

placenta accreta

A

abnormally deep penetration of placental villi into uterine wall

195
Q

threatened abortion

A

cervical os is closed, spotting

196
Q

endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue outside uterus (in ovary or peritoneum usually)
-retrograde flow, pain, infertility, chocolate cyst of ovary

197
Q

preeclampsia

A
  • hypertension, edema, and proteinuria in third trimester

- may progress to eclampsia

198
Q

eclampsia

A

preeclampsia + seizures

-life threatening, must deliver

199
Q

hydatidiform mole

A

developmental abnormality of placenta

  • trophoblastic proliferation, degeneration of chorionic villi
  • enlarged uterus, no fetal movement but some fetal parts
  • complete mole: no fetus
200
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

rare malignant tumor of placental origin

201
Q

missed abortion

A

death of fetus, passed weeks later

202
Q

threatened abortion

A

cervical os is closed, spotting

203
Q

endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue outside uterus (in ovary or peritoneum usually)
-retrograde flow, pain, infertility, chocolate cyst of ovary

204
Q

what is the 2nd most common cause of cancer death in females?

A

breast cancer

205
Q

most common type of breast cancer

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoa

206
Q

pregnant female

A

terminal buds develop into acini

  • prolactin released in response to infant
  • milk produced
207
Q

acute mastitis

A

inflammation of the breast

  • lactating female
  • bacterial infection
  • possible abscess
208
Q

fibrocystic change

A

benign changes in breast tissue due to hormones and age

  • reproductive age
  • cystic dilation of epithelial ducts
  • epithelial hyperplasia
209
Q

gynecomastia

A

increased proliferation of male breast due to various factors

210
Q

fibroadenoma

A

benign neoplasm of breast of epithelial and stromal elements

-young females

211
Q

what is the 2nd most common cause of cancer death in females?

A

breast cancer

212
Q

most common type of breast cancer

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoa

213
Q

achondroplasia

A
  • autosomal dominant defect of bone formation

- normal trunk, short limbs

214
Q

woven (immature) bone

A

newly formed bone with haphazard collegen

215
Q

osteopetrosis

A

defective osteoclast function

-bones grow but are not remodelled and remain thick and brittle

216
Q

where are growth plates located?

A

mid-portion of metaphysis of children

217
Q

hyaline cartilage locations

A

articular surfaces of bone

trachea, bronchi

218
Q

elastic cartilage locations

A

eustaceon tube, ear, and epiglottis

219
Q

fibrocartilage

A

synarthrotic joints (cranial bones) and vertebral disks

220
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  • defective collagen I

- osteopenic, weak bone

221
Q

osteopetrosis

A

defective osteoclast function

-bones grow but are not remodelled and remain thick and brittle

222
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bones due to bacterial infection

223
Q

aseptic necrosis

A

death of a bone secondary to impact

-infarct from ischemia

224
Q

osteomalacia and rickets

A

inadequate mineralization of bone matrix in mature bone

  • rickets in children-softening of bone and deformity
  • skeletal pain, gradual deformity in adults (reversible if suppliment vitamin D)
225
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease-decreased ACh receptors b/c Abs bind to them

226
Q

renal osteodystropy

A

bone changes from chronic renal failure

227
Q

pagets disease

A

irregular restructuring of bone w/ thick and deformed bones

228
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bones due to bacterial infection

229
Q

aseptic necrosis

A

death of a bone secondary to impact

-infarct from ischemia

230
Q

callus

A

the thing that fills in gap b/t two pieces of broken bone

231
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease-decreased ACh receptors b/c Abs bind to them

232
Q

congenital myopathies

A
  • muscle wasing and hypotonia

- early onset in life

233
Q

acquired myopathies

A

cancer, diabetes

234
Q

myositis

A

inflammation of mm

235
Q

posterior pituitary hormones

A

ADH and oxytocin

236
Q

anterior pituitary hormones

A

GH, TSH, adrenocorticotropin hormone, Gonadotrophin hormones

237
Q

cushing’s syndrome

A

excess glucocorticoid hormones (cortisol)

-hypersecretion of ACTH by pituitary

Pathology 375 (2 decks)

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