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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

In mice, albino coat (a) is recessive to agouti coat color (A) and short whiskers (s) are recessive to long whiskers (S). The genes controlling these traits are 6 map units apart. In the cross As/aS x as/as, what proportion of offspring are predicted to have agouti coats and long whiskers?

A. 0.03

B. 0.06

C. 0.47

D. 0.94

E. 1.00

F. 0.00

A

A. 0.03

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2
Q

In potatoes, dotted leaf (D) is dominant over undotted leaf (d), and smooth tuber (S) is dominant over wrinkled tuber (s) fruit, which is covered with fine hairs. A farmer has two tall and smooth tomato plants, which we will call plant A and plant B. A plant breeder crosses a heterozygous potato plant with dotted leaves and smooth tubers with a plant with undotted leaves and wrinkled tubers and the following numbers of progeny:

DdSs-122; Ddss-6; ddSs-4; ddss-124

What is the map distance between the leaf type and tuber type genes?

A. 4 mu

B. 2 mu

C. 8 mu

D. 16 mu

E. 50 mu

A

A. 4 mu

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3
Q

In potatoes, dotted leaf (D) is dominant over undotted leaf (d), and smooth tuber (S) is dominant over wrinkled tuber (s) fruit, which is covered with fine hairs. A farmer has two tall and smooth tomato plants, which we will call plant A and plant B. A plant breeder crosses a heterozygous potato plant with dotted leaves and smooth tubers with a plant with undotted leaves and wrinkled tubers and the following numbers of progeny:

DdSs-122; Ddss-6; ddSs-4; ddss-124

What is the arrangement of alleles in the heterozygous plant?

A. DS/ds

B. Ds/dS

C. Dd/Ss

D. DD/ss

A

A. DS/ds

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4
Q

The spliceosome recognizes the 5’ and 3’ splice sites when:

A. RNAs within the spliceosome bind to consensus sequences at the junctions of introns and exons

B. proteins within the spliceosome

C. proteins within the spliceosome

D. RNAs within the spliceosome

A

A. RNAs within the spliceosome bind to consensus sequences at the junctions of introns and exons

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5
Q

In eukaryotes that cap their mRNAs, the first nucleotide used as a template during transcription:

A. could be any nucleotide

B. is always a C

C. is always a G

D. is always an A

E. is always a T

A

A. could be any nucleotide

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6
Q

When an mRNA from a rat was hybridized to the corresponding single stranded DNA, it produced the following structure. This structure suggests:

A. the presence of three exons

B. the presence of one exon

C. the presence of two exons

D. the presence of three introns

E. alternative splicing

A

A. the presence of three exons

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7
Q

The mRNA needed to direct the synthesis of a 400 amino acid polypeptide is predicted to be _____ nucleotides long.

A. >1200

B. 400

C. 600

D. 800

E. 1200

F. 1203

A

A. >1200

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8
Q

Based on how each of the following molecules works, which of the following proteins must have the ability to join broken DNAs back together?

A. single strand binding protein

B. DNA helicase

C. DNA topoisomerase

D. DNA polymerase III

E. DNA polymerase I

A

C. DNA topoisomerase

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9
Q

The 5’-3’ exonuclease activity possessed by some DNA polymerases is used by these enzymes in:

A. proofreading

B. primer removal

C. DNA chain elongation

D. ligation of DNA strands

E. transcription

A

B. primer removal

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10
Q

If eukaryotes had circular chromosomes, which of the following molecules would no longer be needed?

A. primase

B. topoisomerase

C. single-strand binding protein

D. telomerase

E. DNA helicase

F. DNA polymerase

A

D. telomerase

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11
Q

The nucleosome found on newly replicated DNA molecules:

A. contain nucleosomes either that

B. are derived entirely from the amino

C. contain some subunits of the pre-existing nucleosomes remain intact and other parts are assembled from newly synthesized histones.

A

C. contain some subunits of the pre-existing nucleosomes remain intact and other parts are assembled from newly synthesized histones

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12
Q

A promoter is:

A. a transcription factor

B. a consensus sequence in RNA

C. a sequence important in promotion

D. an enhancer

E. a sequence in DNA

A

E. a sequence in DNA

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13
Q

The looping of long stretches of DNA is often important in:

A. transcription initiation in bacteria

B. transcription termination in bacteria

C. binding of rho to RNA

D. transcription initiation in eukaryotes

E. transcription termination in eukaryotes

A

D. transcription initiation in eukaryotes

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14
Q

Which of the following statement about mitochondria and chloroplasts is FALSE?

A. Plants have chloroplasts and mitochondria

B. The vast majority of mitochondria

C. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain the vast majority of the genes needed for organelle function

D. Mictochondria go through cycles

E. There are well-documented organisms

A

C. Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain the vast majority of the genes needed for organelle function

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15
Q

The form of inheritance in which differences in phenotype are not due to differences in DNA sequences or environments, but do to stable alterations of chromatin structure is known as:

A. neogenetics

B. Mendelian genetics

C. molecular genetics

D. organelle genetics

E. epigenetics

A

E. epigenetics

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16
Q

Histone proteins are:

A. negatively charged

B. positively charged

C. non-polar and non-charged

D. polar and non-charged

A

B. positively charged

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17
Q

The molecule below is a:

A. pyrimidine

B. purine

C. deoxyribose sugar

D. ribose sugar

E. cytosine

A

B. purine

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18
Q

Where would a nitrogenous base be attached to the following molecule?

A

E

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19
Q

Imagine that a bacterial gene is added to an efficient in vitro transcription system (a test tube system that allows transcription). However, transcription of this gene cannot be initiated. What is a plausible explanation fo the problem?

A. There is a mutation 10 nucleotides upstream from the normal transcription start site

B. histones that were on the DNA

C. there is a mutation in the in vetro

D. rho has not been added

E. bacterial TATA-binding protein

A

A. there is a mutation 10 nucleotides upstream from the normal transcription start site

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20
Q

The following image is an electron micrograph of DNA molecules that are being transcribed. Which arrow points closests to a promoter?

A

C

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21
Q

In the following diagram of a replication bubble, which strand or strands of template DNA would support the synthesis of the lagging strand or strands of newly synthesized DNA? (multiple answers)

A

A and D

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22
Q

What will be the sequence of newly synthesized DNA made form the following primer/template combination?

A. 5’ATGCGA3’

B. 5’ACTGC3’

C. 5’CGTCA3’

D. 5’AGCGTA3’

A

B. 5’ACTGC3’

23
Q

The results of the following study suggest that:

A. DNase is ineffective at digesting

B. it is only possible to purify DNA

C. DNase is specific for globin gene

D. changing the association of DNA with proteins is an important element in regulating gene expression

E. nucleosome is not assembled

A

D. changing the association of DNA with proteins is an important element in regulating gene expression

24
Q

Imagine creating a set of reproductively isolated populations of the same species with the same initial frequency of a particular allele. These reproductively isolated populations are allowed to continue for many generations. Considering only the effect of genetic drift, the variance in allele frequency between a set of populations like these is predicted to be smallest when the reproductively isolated populations are:

A. small

B. large

C. inbred

D. outbred

A

B. large

25
Q

Which of the following evolution mechanism or mechanisms is responsible for the progressive adaptation of populations over time? (multiple answers)

A. mutation

B. natural selection

C. migration

D. genetic drift

E. non-random mating

A

only B. natural selection

26
Q

As the frequency of a recessive disease allele decreases, the ratio of carriers to affected individuals:

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains the same

A

A. increases

27
Q

Ten percent of males in the US are red-green colorblind, an X-linked recessive trait. Assuming that the US population meets the expectations for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the recessive colorblindness allele in the US?

A. 10% in males, 1% in females

B. 1% in males and females

C. 1% in males, 0.01% in females

D. 10% in males and females

A

D. 10% in males and females

28
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease that occurs in 1 in 1600 newborns of Americans of European descent. Assuming that this population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of carriers of the cystic fibrosis allele is about:

A. 1/20

B. 1/40

C. 1/1600

D. 1/2,560,000

E. 1/10

A

A. 1/20

29
Q

Which if any of the following populations show evidence of inbreeding?

A. population 1

B. population 2

C. population 3

D. None show evidence of inbreeding

E. All show evidence of inbreeding

A

B. population 2

30
Q

The frequency of the A1 allele in a population of 90 mice living in Bryce Meadow in the hills of southern California is 0.9. A wildfire in the nearby area causes 10 mice from another population to migrate into the Bryce Meadow population of mice. The A1 allele frequency in the immigrant mice is 0.1. What is the new A1 allele frequency in the Bryce Meadow population after migration?

A. 0.80

B. 0.88

C. 0.82

D. 0.90

E. 0.92

F. 0.98

A

C. 0.82

31
Q

A researcher determines that the broad-sense heritability of weight among USU undergraduates is 0.80. Which of the following conclusions would be reasonable? (multiple answers)

A. John is a USU undergraduate

B. eighty percent of variations

C. eighty percent of the height

D. twenty percent of the variations among USU undergraduates is determined by variations in non-genetic factors

E. the high heritability of height

A

D. twenty percent of the variations among USU undergraduates is determined by variations in non-genetic factors

32
Q

In a study of narrow-sense heritability for weight gain in Angus cattle, the average weight gain at 3 months of age was 3.6 pounds per week. A plot of the mean o foffspring for weekly weight gain at 3 months of age versus the mean of parents for this value when they were 3 months of age gave a correlation coefficient of 0.66, a slope of 0.82, a y-intercept of 0.8 pounds per week, and a covariance of 15.4 pounds per week. Therefore, the narrow sense heritability for this trait is:

A. 0.66

B. 3.6

C. 0.82

D. sprt (15.4)

E. cannot be determined

A

C. 0.82

33
Q

A breeder selects for increased wight in chickens. The flock she works with has a mean weight of 4.6 pounds. The breeder selects birds that weigh an average of 5.6 pounds and uses these for breeding. The mean weight of their offspring at time weight is measered is 5.0 pounds. Therefore, the _____ heritability is _____.

A. narrow-sense; 0.25

B. narrow-sense; 0.8

C. narrow-sense; 5.0

D. broad-sense; 0.25

E. broad-sense; 0.8

F. broad-sense; 5.0

A

A. narrow-sense; 0.25

34
Q

Which of the following elements of the lac operon and features needed for its regulation could be moved without affecting control of the operon?

A. the operator

B. the promoter

C. the CAP binding site

D. the lacl gene

A

D. the lacl gene

35
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. missense mutations can occur

B. missense mutations can occur

C. nonsense mutations can occur only in coding sequences

D. insertion mutations of a single

E. frameshift mutations outside

A

C. nonsense mutations can occur only in coding sequences

36
Q

Replication-slippage mutations are most common in:

A. DNA sequences with a high percentage

B. repetitive DNA sequences

C. DNA sequences with a high percentage

D. coding sequences

E. exons

A

B. repetitive DNA sequences

37
Q

Suppose that a single DNA base change of an A to G occurs in one strand of DNA and that this DNA strand is copied during replication. Will this necessarily result in a mutation?

A. yes, if the base change occurs

B. yes, because it is a heritable change in the DNA sequence

C. yes, if the base change alters

A

B. yes, because it is a heritable change in the DNA sequence

38
Q

If DNA is damaged and repaired by one of the following DNA repair pathways, which pathway is most likely to result in a mutation?

A. double strand break repair by non-homologous end joining

B. double strand break repair by homologous end joining

C. mismatch repair

D. base excision repair

E. nucleotide excision repair

A

A. double strand break repair by non-homologous end joining

39
Q

Which pathway of DNA repair plays a predominant role fixing misincorporation errors that occur during DNA synthesis?

A. double strand break repair by non-homologous end joining

B. double strand break repair by homologous end joining

C. mismatch repair

D. nucleotide excision repair

E. base excision repair

A

C. mismatch repair

40
Q

Transposable elements are:

A. presents rarely in bacteria

B. presents frequently in bacteria

C. seen the genomes of all cells

D. common in the genomes of all cells

A

D. common in the gemones of all cells

41
Q

A feature of riboswitches is that they are:

A. a small RNA processed from a gene

B. a small RNA processed from a lo

C. a portion of an mRNA that can switch between two different shapes in a regulated manner

D. a small RNA processed from a st

E. a ribosomal RNA precursor

A

C. a portion of an mRNA that can switch between two different shapes in a regulated manner

42
Q

When bound to cAMP, the coli CAP acts as:

A. an inducer

B. a riboswitch

C. an inhibitor of transcription initiation

D. a control element

E. an activator of transcription initiation

A

E. an activator of transcription initiation

43
Q

laclR is a mutant allele of lacl that produces a repressor that is unable to bind inducer. All other functions of the repressor protein are normal. In a lacl lac Z/lacl-lacZ partial diploid, how would regulation of lacZ expression by lactose be affected?

A. LacZ would not be expressed, regardless of the presence or absence of lactose

B. lacZ regulation would not be affected

C. lacZ would only be expressed

D. lacZ would always be expressed

A

A. lacZ would not be expressed, regardless of the presence or absence of lactose

44
Q

Consider the following coli partial diploid lacl lacZ/lacllacZ. Assume any genes that are not shown to be present as wild type alleles. In this partial diploid the operon would:

A. be regulated normally by lactose

B. be insensitive to regulation by glucose

C. only be active when glucose

D. always be transcribed regardless

A

A. be regulated normally by lactose

45
Q

A co-transcribed group of genes that typically function together in a single process is:

A. a promoter

B. operon

C. an operator

D. a control element

E. a polysome

A

B. operon

46
Q

An operator, such as the lac operator, is a:

A. non protein-coding sequence in DNA

B. portein-coding sequence in DNA

C. part of an intron

D. a regulatory protein

E. a structural protein

A

A. non protein-coding sequence in DNA

47
Q

Each aminoacyl tRNA synthetase recognizes:

A. one type of amino acid and only

B. more than one type of amino acid

C. more than one type of amino acid

D. one type of amino acid and different forms of tRNA that accept that one type of amino acid

A

D. one type of amino acid and different forms of tRNA that accept that one type of amino acid

48
Q

In bacteria, proteins are used to recognize:

A. start codon

B. stop codon

C. the region near the start codon

D. the codon for methionine

E. codons for all amino acids

F. the uniquely encoded tryptophan

A

B. stop codon

49
Q

During elongation, translocation of th eribosome occurs:

A. after peptide bond formation

B. when a charged tRNA binds

C. when a charged tRNA binds

D. when a charged tRNA binds

E. when the first methionine-carrying

A

A. after peptide bond formation

50
Q

The symbols A and B represent different genes. Therefore, the type of mutation that produced the red eyed fly on the right side of the figure must be a:

A. intergenic suppressor mutation

B. intragenic suppressor mutation

C. missense mutation

D. frameshift mutation

E. direct reversion mutation

A

A. intergenic suppressor mutation

51
Q

Without wobble pairin, the minimum number of different tRNAs required by each cell would be:

A. 20

B. 42

C. 61

D. 3

E. 64

A

C. 61

52
Q
A

D

53
Q
A

Genetics (6 decks)

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