Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CC 17 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Trace elements are drawn in a ___ tube:

A

royal blue top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Testing for trace elements is often performed in ___:

A

clean rooms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the two categories of trace elements:

A

Essential

Non-essential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why are non-essential trace elements still of medical interest:

A

Because of their toxic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the preferred sample for arsenic testing:

A

urine
(blood has short half life)
(hair and nails used for chronic/long term exposure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In 2000, ___ was approved to treat Acute promyelocytic leukemia:

A

Arsenic trioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cadmium is absorbed primarily via __:

A

food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Newborns are virtually free of ____ :

A

cadmium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

__ and ___ have higher rates of cadmium toxicity:

A

smokers

females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why can blood samples be used to measure cadmium:

A

Cd binds to the RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Yellow containers may contain ___ in the pigments:

A

Cadmium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is mercury’s known function in humans:

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mercury exposure occurs via ___, __, and ___:

A

inhalation
ingestion
injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inorganic mercury is ____, organic mercury is ____:

A

inorganic: non-toxic
organic: toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Organic mercury is highly selective for lipid rich ___:

A

neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lead exposure is primarily via __ and ___:

A

GI

Resp tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All children under 2 are screened for ___:

A

lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

_____ most commonly used sample for lead testing, but __ and __ can also be used:

A

Venous whole blood

hair and nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

___ is widely used in mascara production and found in some tattoo pigments:

A

Mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Genetic condition causing copper toxicity:

A

Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

___ is the best known, least understood Copper protein:

A

Ceroloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ceruloplasmin is an ___, contains 95% of copper in the body, allows Fe to enter transferrin w/o forming toxic Fe products:

A

alpha-2 globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Significantly elevated levels of ____ can cause plasma to appear greenish:

A

Ceruloplasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Extreme cases of Cu deficiency is called:

A

Menkes Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

___ is associated with peculiar hair, growth retardation, appears at 3 months with death at 5 years:

A 
Menkes Disease
(Cu deficiency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This disease is seen at 6-40 years old, results in neuro and liver dysfunction, and is associated with Kayser-Fleischer rings:

A

Wilson’s Disease

Cu toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Kayser-Fleischer rings are:

A

green/brown discoloration of cornea associated with Wilson’s Disease (Cu tox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Zinc deficiency is confirmed via ___ and ___:

A

low urine zinc

decreased serum zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The body contains about __grams of iron, more than __ is in RBC’s:

A

4-5

half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

75% of __ is physiologically active, the rest is stored:

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List the two storage forms of iron:

A

ferritin (Fe3 + apoferritin)

Hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F

Hemosiderin is harmless in reticuloendothelial cells:

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the equation for iron saturation %:

A

(Serum Fe/TIBC) x 100 = % sat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Is transferrin a positive acute phase protein?

A

No. It is a negative acute phase protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

___ deficiency results in diabetes-likk hyperglycemia:

A

Chromium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Keshan Diases and Kashin-Beck are associated with __ deficiency:

A

Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Once a drug is absorbed, it enters the hepatic portal system, this is called __:

A

First pass metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The ___ fraction of the drug best correlates with concentration and therapeutic or toxic effects:

A

free fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drugs can be cleared from the body in these 2 ways:

A
  • hepatic metabolism

* renal filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Serum concentration will increase when rate of absorbance of drugs is ___ than excretion:

A

greater

41
Q

Serum concentration will decrease when elimination and distribution of drug ___ absorbance:

A

exceeds

42
Q

___ half-lives to reach steady state, and __ half-lives for drug to clear:

A
  1. 5

5. 5

43
Q

Goal of peak/trough testing is to achieve a __ in therapeutic range and keep __ below toxic range:

A

trough

peak

44
Q

Trough is typically drawn _____, while peak is typically drawn___:

A

trough: right before dose is given
peak: 1 hour after dose

45
Q

Which drug is an exception to timing of peak drawing:

A

digoxin

has slow absorption, draw 6-8 hrs after dose

46
Q

Do IM drug doses need TDM:

A

No, usually just a single dose

47
Q

Gel tubes shouldn’t be used for ___:

A

anti-epileptics

48
Q

As a rule, use ___tube for drug draws:

A

red top

49
Q

As a rule, do NOT use ___ or ___ when drawing for anticoagulant monitoring, only use ___ generally:

A
  • EDTA or Citrate

* heparin

50
Q

Norpace, Quinidine, and Procanamide are all ___:

A

anti-arrhythmic drugs

51
Q

Red man syndrome is associated with ___ toxicity:

A

vancomycin

52
Q

Since Vancomycin has long distribution phase, usually only ___ levels are drawn::

A

trough

53
Q

___ is the preferred draw sample for Anti-epileptics:

A

Trough

54
Q

Phenobarbitol, phenytoin, Valproic acid, carbamazepine, Gabapentin, Lamotrigine, etc are examples of ___:

A

anti-epileptics

55
Q

Imipramine, Amitryptilin, Doxepin, Clozapine, and Olanzapine are examples of ____:

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

56
Q

Clozapine and Olanzapine can both be used to treat ___:

A

Schizophrenia

57
Q

Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus, Sirolimus, are examples of ____:

A

Immunosuppressive drugs

58
Q

What is the main anti-neoplastic drug listed in our notes, also used for RA, and is NOT aided by TDM:

A

Methotrexate

59
Q

With ___, dose given is more important than the concentration; it works by inhibiting DNA synthesis in all cells:

A

methotrexate

60
Q

___ are used for screening, dx, prognosis, monitor therapy and detect reoccurrence:

A

Tumor markers

61
Q

Tumor marker concentration will generally __ with tumor progression/metastases:

A

increase

62
Q

It is important to use the ___ assay methodology when comparing results on single person:

A

same

63
Q

____ is when analyte exceed analytical range extensively; must dilute these samples:

A

Hook effect

64
Q

____ is an antibody that competes for binding sites:

A

Heterophile antibody

65
Q

You can only report and exact value when it is within the ___range, otherwise must report as < or >:

A

linear

66
Q

Is there standardization among tumor marker assays:

A

no. important to use the same methodology when comparing results on single patient.

67
Q

___ is used to for dx and prognosis of hepatocellular carcinoma, also seen in germ cell tumors, and combined with BHCG to classify and stage testicular cancer:

A

AFP

68
Q

Is AFP specific:

A

no. it is also increased in pregnancy and liver disease

69
Q

T/F

The higher the AFP, the worse the prognosis in hepatocellular carcinoma:

A

True

70
Q

__is used to detect RELAPSE of colorectal cancer:

A

CEA

71
Q

CEA stands for:

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen

72
Q

T/F

CEA is entirely specific for colon cancer:

A

false.

is also increased in liver damage, heavy smokers, chemo etc1

73
Q

Is CEA useful in screening for colorectal cancer?

A

no. is only useful in detecting relapse.

74
Q

____ is a prognostic indicator of ovarian cancer, dx marker to classify testicular disease and useful marker to classify gestational trophoblastic disease:

A

HCG

75
Q

HCG is normal secreted by the ___ to prepare and maintain ___:

A

placenta

pregancy

76
Q

___ will be increased with germ cell tumor of ovary and testes:

A

HCG

77
Q

Do healthy men have low levels of circulating PSA?

A

yes

78
Q

___ is best used to monitor the progression of prostat cancer after therapy:

A

PSA

79
Q

Patients with malignancy have lower __PSA:

A

free

80
Q

___PSA is used to screen for and monitor prostate cancer:

A

Total

81
Q

Are AFP and CEA an oncofetal antigens:

A

Yes

82
Q

Can some enzymes, proteins, hormones, and oncofetal antigens be used as tumor markers?

A

yes

83
Q

List a hormone that can be used as a tumor marker:

A

catecholamines

84
Q

List a protein that can be used as a tumor marker:

A

beta 2 microglobulin

monitor renal transplant pts for rejection

85
Q

CA-125 is used to detect ___ at an early stage; not used to screen asymptomatic patients:

A

ovarian

86
Q

___ is the only clinically accepted marker for ovarian cancer:

A

CA-125

87
Q

CA 19-9 is used to differentiate between ___ and other cancers:

A

pancreatic cancer

88
Q

CA 15-3 is used to monitor ____ treatment and disease recurrence:

A

breast cancer

89
Q

Is CA 19-9 a good screening tool for pancreatic cancer:

A

no

90
Q

T/F

Levels of CA 19-9 and 15-3 can be increased in otherwise healthy individuals, as well as in other benign conditions:

A

True

91
Q

T/F

Levels of CA-125 correlate with cancer stage:

A

true

92
Q

___ is chronic protein deficiency with adequate non-protein calorie intake:

A

Kwashiorkor

93
Q

___ is deficiency of calories with adequate protein intake:

A

Marasmus

94
Q

Which would have marked hypoalbuminemia, Marasmus or Kwashiorkor:

A

Kwashiorkor

albumin would be normal in Marsmus

95
Q

___ is the most abundant plasma protein and is used to assess hospitalized patients nutritional status:

A

albumin

96
Q

____ is a glycoprotein and an early indicator of iron deficiency:

A

Transferrin

97
Q

T/F

Transferrin will indicate protein depletion before albumin:

A

True.

98
Q

___is the major transport protein for Thyroxin and Vitamin A:

A

Pre-albumin

99
Q

Pre-albumin is a major transport protein for ___ and ___:

A

Thyroxin and Vitamin A

CC 17 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions