final Flashcards

1
Q

An IPv4 address is __________ bits long.

A

32

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2
Q

An IPv4 address is normally represented in base ____ or dotted-decimal notation.

A

265

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3
Q

In classful addressing, the IPv4 address space is divided into __________ classes.

A

5

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4
Q

In class A, the netid is between ______________.

A

0 to 127

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5
Q

In class B, the netid is between ______________.

A

128 to 191

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6
Q

In class C, the netid is between ______________.

A

192 to 223

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7
Q

The default mask for class A is ______________.

A

255.0.0.0

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8
Q

The default mask for class B is ______________.

A

255.255.0.0

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9
Q

The default mask for class C is ______________.

A

255.255.255.0

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10
Q

The default mask for class D is ______________.

A

doesnt have default mask because it is used for multicast

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11
Q

The default mask for class E is ______________.

A

doesnt have default mask because it is used for experimental/research

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12
Q

In classless addressing, __________ is assigned to a organization.

A

a variable-length block

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13
Q

The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.

A

must be a power of 2

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14
Q

The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing

A

must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses

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15
Q

Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses?

A

2.4.6.64

because 32 divides 64 evenly

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16
Q

Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses?

A

the last byte must be evenly divisible by 16

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17
Q

Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses?

A

2.4.6.0

because ip uses base 256 arithmetic, the last byte must be 0…. meaning the total address is divisible by 256

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18
Q

What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27?

A

12.2.2.64

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19
Q

What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10?

A

12.0.0.0

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20
Q

What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?

A

12.2.2.112

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21
Q

Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.

A

256

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22
Q

Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.

A

4

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23
Q

What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?

A

12.2.2.127

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24
Q

What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30?

A

12.2.2.7

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25
Q

In fixed-length subnetting, the number of subnets must _______.

A

be a power of 2

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26
Q

An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?

A

/24

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27
Q

An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets?

A

8

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28
Q

An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted?

A

16

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29
Q

An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted?

A

8

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30
Q

An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted?

A

32

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31
Q

What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?

A

/8

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32
Q

What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?

A

/16

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33
Q

What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?

A

/24

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34
Q

In ________ addressing, when an address is given, we can find the beginning address and the range of addresses.

A

classful

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35
Q

In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range.

A

prefix

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36
Q

In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).

A

suffix

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37
Q

In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.

A

mask

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38
Q

In a block, the prefix length is /22; what is the mask?

A

255.255.252.0

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39
Q

In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?

A

255.254.0.0

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40
Q

In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?

A

/18

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41
Q

In a block, the mask is 255.255.255.224; what is the prefix length?

A

/27

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42
Q

In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network.

A

a direct

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43
Q

In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks.

A

an indirect

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44
Q

In classful addressing, when a direct delivery is made, both the deliverer and receiver have the same _______.

A

netid

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45
Q

In classful addressing, when an indirect delivery is made, the deliverer and receiver have _______.

A

different netids

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46
Q

In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table.

A

host-specific

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47
Q

In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table.

A

default

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48
Q

In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table.

A

network-specific

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49
Q

In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information.

A

next-hop

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50
Q

In ________ addressing, a typical forwarding module can be designed using three tables, one for each unicast class (A, B, C).

A

classful

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51
Q

In classful addressing, the class of the address can be found by shifting the copy of the address ____ bits to the right.

A

28

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52
Q

In classful addressing we need a routing table with at least ______ columns.

A

3

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53
Q

In classless addressing, we need a routing table with at least _______ columns.

A

4

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54
Q

The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________.

A

classless addressing

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55
Q

The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask.

A

longest mask matching

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56
Q

The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables.

A

reduce

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57
Q

_______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables.

A

Routing

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58
Q

A _______ routing table contains information entered manually.

A

static

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59
Q

A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols.

A

dynamic

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60
Q

The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router.

A

physical and data link

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61
Q

The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router.

A

network

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62
Q

The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________.

A

switching fabrics

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63
Q

The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.

A

IP

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64
Q

IP is _________ datagram protocol.

A

both unreliable and connectionless

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65
Q

The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees.

A

best-effort delivery

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66
Q

A best-effort delivery service such as IP includes _______.

A

no error checks/corrections

no datagram acknowledgement

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67
Q

An HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.

A

there are 40 bytes in the header

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68
Q

If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.

A

the first byte of the datagram is byte 800

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69
Q

What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?

A

both offset number and the total length

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70
Q

The IP header size _______.

A

is 20 to 60 bytes long

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71
Q

Packets in the IP layer are called _________.

A

datagrams

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72
Q

The total length field defines the total length of the datagram _________.

A

including the header

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73
Q

When a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______.

A

MTU

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74
Q

Which IP option is used if exactly four specific routers are to be visited by the datagram?

A

strict source route

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75
Q

For the timestamp option, a flag value of _______ means that each visited router adds only the timestamp in the provided field.

A

0

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76
Q

The IP header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field.

A

differentiated services

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77
Q

The _______ module takes fragments of a message and puts them back in order.

A

reassembly

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78
Q

The _______ module sends out an IP packet, the next-hop address, and interface information.

A

forwarding

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79
Q

The _______ module discards datagrams with a TTL value of zero.

A

processing

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80
Q

The output of the _______ module is an IP packet destined for an upper-layer protocol.

A

reassembly

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81
Q

The _______ module consults the MTU table to determine the packet size necessary for transmission.

A

fragmentation

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82
Q

The value of the ________ subfield in an option controls the presence of the option in fragmentation.

A

copy

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83
Q

The value of the ________ subfield defines the general purpose of an option.

A

class

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84
Q

The value of the ________ subfield defines the types of an option.

A

number

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85
Q

Only ______ end of option option can be used in a datagram.

A

one

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86
Q

When we use IP over ATM, only the ________ cell carry(ies) the 8-byte trailer added to the IP datagram.

A

last

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87
Q

When we use IP over ATM, padding can be added only to the _____ or the _______.

A

last cell; last two cells

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88
Q

To find the physical address of the exiting-point router, ATM uses the services of _________.

A

ATMARP

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89
Q

The inverse request and inverse reply messages can bind the physical address to an IP address in a(n) _______ situation.

A

PVC

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90
Q

The request and reply message can be used to bind a physical address to an IP address in a(n) _______ situation.

A

SVC

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91
Q

__________ allows an ATM network to be divided into several logical subnets.

A

LIS

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92
Q

A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction.

A

logical

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93
Q

The logical addresses in the TCP/IP protocol suite are called _______ addresses.

A

IP

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94
Q

A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network.

A

physical

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95
Q

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A

the destination IP address in the datagram header

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96
Q

If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A

the IP address of the router found in the routing table

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97
Q

The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A

the IP address of the router found in the routing table

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98
Q

The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host in the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.

A

the destination IP address in the datagram header

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99
Q

In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually.

A

static mapping

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100
Q

The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request.

A

0x000000000000

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101
Q

An ARP reply is normally _______.

A

unicast

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102
Q

An ARP request is normally _______.

A

broadcast

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103
Q

technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect.

A

proxy ARP

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104
Q

A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts.

A

proxy ARP

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105
Q

For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________.

A

autonomous systems

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106
Q

Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing.

A

intradomain

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107
Q

Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ______ routing.

A

interdomain routing

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108
Q

In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance.

A

distance vector

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109
Q

In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node.

A

distance vector

110
Q

In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change.

A

its immediate neighbors

111
Q

The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing.

A

distance vector

112
Q

The metric used by _______ is the hop count.

A

RIP

113
Q

In RIP, the ________ timer controls the advertising of regular update messages.

A

periodic

114
Q

In RIP, the ________ timer is used to purge invalid routes from the table.

A

garbage collection

115
Q

In RIP, the ________ timer controls the validity of the route.

A

expiration

116
Q

RIP uses the services of _______.

A

UDP

117
Q

The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.

A

link state

118
Q

The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing.

A

link state

119
Q

The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route.

A

OSPF

120
Q

In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between.

A

point-to-point

121
Q

In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it.

A

transient

122
Q

In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router.

A

stub

123
Q

In OSPF, a ________ defines the links of a true router.

A

router link

124
Q

In OSPF, a ________ defines the links of a network.

A

network link

125
Q

In OSPF, an area border router advertises a ____________ LSA.

A

summary link to network

126
Q

In OSPF, the ________ message does not contain complete database information; it only gives an outline, the title of each line in the database.

A

database description

127
Q

In OSPF, a _________ message is sent by a router that needs information about a specific route or routes.

A

link state request

128
Q

In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system.

A

path vector

129
Q

___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.

A

BGP

130
Q

BGP can have two types of sessions: _______ and ________ sessions.

A

E-BGP; I-BGP

131
Q

To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends a(n) ________ message.

A

open

132
Q

In BGP, the _______ message is used by a router to withdraw destinations that have been advertised previously, or to announce a route to a new destination, or both.

A

update

133
Q

The routers running the BGP protocols exchange _______ messages regularly to tell each other that they are alive.

A

keepalive

134
Q

BGP messages are encapsulated in _______.

A

TCP segments

135
Q

An area is _______.

A

part of an AS

136
Q

ICMP is a _________ layer protocol.

A

network

137
Q

An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section.

A

an 8-byte

138
Q

Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

  1. An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
  2. An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment.
  3. An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram.
A

An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment.

139
Q

Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?

  1. An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message.
  2. An ICMP error message may be generated only for each fragment.
  3. No ICMP error message will be generated for a datagram having a special address such as 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0.
A

No ICMP error message will be generated for a datagram having a special address such as 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0.

140
Q

If a host needs to synchronize its clock with another host, it sends a _______ message.

A

timestamp-request

141
Q

The purpose of echo request and echo reply is to _______.

A

check node-to-node communication

142
Q

In error reporting the encapsulated ICMP packet goes to _______.

A

the original sender

143
Q

What field uniquely identifies the kind of ICMP message (for example, echo reply versus echo request)?

A

type

144
Q

When the hop-count field reaches zero and the destination has not been reached, a _______ error message is sent.

A

time-exceeded

145
Q

When all fragments of a message have not been received within the designated amount of time, a _______ error message is sent.

A

time-exceeded

146
Q

Errors in the header or option fields of an IP datagram require a _______ error message.

A

parameter-problem

147
Q

A _______ can learn about network _______ by sending out a router-solicitation packet.

A

host, routers

148
Q

Who can send ICMP error-reporting messages?

A

routers or destination hosts

149
Q

One method to alert a source host of congestion is the _______ message.

A

source-quench

150
Q

A time-exceeded message is generated if _______.

A

the round-trip time between hosts is close to zero and fragments of a message do not arrive within a set time

151
Q

To determine whether or not a node is reachable, _______ message can be sent.

A

an echo-request

152
Q

In calculating the time difference between two clocks, a negative value indicates _______.

A

the destination clock lags behind the source clock

153
Q

An IP datagram (datagram A) cannot reach its destination. An ICMP error message is sent to the source. The data field of the IP datagram (datagram B) that encapsulates the ICMP packet contains _______.

A

the ICMP header plus 8 bytes of datagram A

154
Q

One of the main duties of the transport layer is ____________ communication.

A

process-to-process

155
Q

The client program normally uses ____________ port number.

A

an ephemeral

156
Q

The server program normally uses __________ port number.

A

a well-known

157
Q

A socket address is a combination of __________.

  1. Mac address and logical address
  2. Mac address and port number
  3. User-specific address and logical address
A

None of the choices are correct

158
Q

______________ means accepting items from more than one source.

A

Multiplexing

159
Q

______________ means delivering items to more than one source.

A

Demultiplexing

160
Q

_________ means the producer delivers the items when they are produced without waiting for the request from the consumer.

A

Pushing

161
Q

_________ means the consumer takes the items when it is ready to do so.

A

Pulling

162
Q

In the stop-and-wait protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______ where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence.

A

1, 1

163
Q

In the go-back-N protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence. number.

A

n, 1

164
Q

In the selective-repeat protocol, the send window size is ______ and the receive window size is _______, where n is related to the number of bits in the sequence.

A

n, n

165
Q

UDP is called a ________________transport protocol.

A

connectionless, unreliable

166
Q

UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing _______ communication.

A

process-to-process

167
Q

UDP is an acronym for _______.

A

User Datagram Protocol

168
Q

The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called ____________ .

A

port addresses

169
Q

The ports ranging from 0 to 1,023 are assigned and controlled by ICANN. These are the ___________ ports.

A

well-known

170
Q

The ports ranging from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports.

A

registered

171
Q

The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port numbers. They are called the ________ ports.

A

dynamic

172
Q

In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer.

A

application

173
Q

In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer.

A

IP

174
Q

UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols.

A

transport

175
Q

Which of the following functions does UDP perform?

A

process-to-process communication

176
Q

When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______.

A

a transport layer protocol takes over

177
Q

UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process.

A

port

178
Q

A port address in UDP is _______ bits long.

A

16

179
Q

Which of the following does UDP guarantee?
1. flow control

  1. connection-oriented delivery
  2. flow control
A

None of the choices are correct

180
Q

The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______.

A

the process running on the sending computer

181
Q

The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________.

A

socket address

182
Q

To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses.

A

two

183
Q

UDP packets are called __________ .

A

user datagrams

184
Q

UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.

A

8

185
Q

UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________ .

A

an IP datagram

186
Q

UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host.

A

multiplexing

187
Q

UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host.

A

demultiplexing

188
Q

TCP is a __________protocol.

A

stream-oriented

189
Q

TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________.

A

segment

190
Q

TCP is a(n) ___________ protocol.

A

connection-oriented

191
Q

TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.

A

reliable

192
Q

TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data.

A

an acknowledgment mechanism

193
Q

The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________.

A

randomly generated number

194
Q

TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in that segment.

A

first

195
Q

Communication in TCP is ___________.

A

full-duplex

196
Q

The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the sequence number related to the ______byte a party expects to receive.

A

next

197
Q

The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.

A

mandatory

198
Q

A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.

A

an IP datagram

199
Q

A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s).

A

one

200
Q

A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence numbers.

  1. no
  2. three
  3. two
A

None of the choices are correct

201
Q

An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s).

A

no

202
Q

The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the _________ attack.

A

SYN flooding

203
Q

The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack.

A

denial of service

204
Q

The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data.

  1. two
  2. three
  3. no
A

None of the choices are correct

205
Q

The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data.

A

one

206
Q

In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______.

A

half-close

207
Q

A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of states.

A

finite state

208
Q

A common value for MSL is between___ seconds and ___ minute(s).

A

30; 1

209
Q

To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol.

A

sliding

210
Q

TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.

A

byte

211
Q

In TCP, the size of the send window is the ________ of rwnd and cwnd.

A

minimum

212
Q

In TCP, the window should not be _________.

A

shrunk

213
Q

In TCP, the receiver can temporarily shut down the window; the sender, however, can always send a segment of _____ byte(s) after the window is shut down.

A

one

214
Q

A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the sending application program creates data slowly or the receiving application program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the ______.

A

silly window syndrome

215
Q

Nagle’s algorithm can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________.

A

sender

216
Q

Clark’s solution can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________.

A

receiver

217
Q

Delayed acknowledgment can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________.

A

receiver

218
Q

ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______ acknowledged.

A

no; are not

219
Q

In modern implementations of TCP, a retransmission occurs if the retransmission timer expires or ________ duplicate ACK segments have arrived.

A

three

220
Q

In TCP, ________ retransmission timer is set for an ACK segment.

A

no

221
Q

Lost acknowledgments may create a _______ if they are not handled properly.

A

deadlock

222
Q

In the ________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold.

A

slow start

223
Q

In the __________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected.

A

congestion avoidance

224
Q

In the congestion detection algorithm, if detection is by a time-out, a new _______ phase starts.

A

slow start

225
Q

In the congestion detection algorithm, if detection is by three ACKs, a new _______ phase starts.

A

congestion avoidance

226
Q

In TCP, there can be ______ RTT measurement(s) in progress at any time.

A

only one

227
Q

The value of the window scale factor can be determined during __________.

A

connection establishment

228
Q

Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header.

A

4

229
Q

Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the _______ field.

A

control

230
Q

The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes.

A

40

231
Q

Which option defines the maximum number of bytes in a TCP segment?

A

maximum segment size

232
Q

If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.

A

199

233
Q

The _______ timer prevents a long idle connection between two TCPs.

A

keepalive

234
Q

The _______ timer is needed to handle the zero window-size advertisement.

A

persistence

235
Q

Karn’s algorithm is used in calculations by the _______ timer.

A

retransmission

236
Q

A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the _______ timer goes off.

A

persistence

237
Q

VPN technology uses two simultaneous techniques to guarantee privacy for an organization: ________ and ___________.

A

IPSec; tunneling

238
Q

Tunneling is a technique in which the IP datagram is first _______ and then _______.

A

encrypted; encapsulated in another datagram

239
Q

IP Security (IPSec) is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the _________ level.

A

network

240
Q

IPSec requires a logical connection between two hosts using a signaling protocol called ____________.

A

SA

241
Q

IPSec operates at two different modes: _________ mode and _________mode.

A

transport; tunnel

242
Q

In the _________ mode, the IPSec header is added between the IP header and the rest of the packet.

A

transport

243
Q

In the ________ mode, the IPSec header is placed in front of the original IP header.

A

tunnel

244
Q

IPSec defines two protocols: _________ and __________.
1.AH: SSP

  1. ESP; SSP
  2. AH: EH
A

None of the choices are correct

245
Q

The ________ protocol is designed to authenticate the source host and to ensure the integrity of the payload carried by the IP packet.

A

AH

246
Q

The _______ protocol provides message authentication and integrity, but not privacy.

A

AH

247
Q

The _______ protocol provides message authentication, integrity, and privacy.

A

ESP

248
Q

The _______ was designed to provide security at the transport layer.

A

TLS

249
Q

_______ was invented by Phil Zimmermann to provide all four aspects of security in the sending of email.

  1. AH
  2. ESP
  3. TLS
A

None of the choices are correct

250
Q

A packet-filter firewall filters at the ________ or ___________ layer.

A

network; transport

251
Q

A proxy firewall filters at the __________ layer.

A

application

252
Q

In __________cryptography, the same key is used by the sender (for encryption) and the receiver (for decryption).

A

symmetric-key

253
Q

In _________ cryptography, the same key is used in both directions.

A

symmetric-key

254
Q

_________ cryptography is often used for long messages.

A

Symmetric-key

255
Q

___________ cryptography is often used for short messages.

A

Asymmetric-key

256
Q

__________means that the sender and the receiver expect confidentiality.
1. Non-repudiation

  1. Integrity
  2. Authentication
A

None of the choices are correct

257
Q

___________ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as they were sent.

A

Message integrity

258
Q

______________ means that the receiver needs to be sure of the sender identity and that an imposter has not sent the message.

A

Message authentication

259
Q

______________ can provide authentication, integrity, and nonrepudiation for a message.

A

Digital signature

260
Q

Digital signature does not provide _________.

A

privacy

261
Q

In ___________, the entity identity is verified once for the entire duration of system access.

A

entity authentication

262
Q

In __________ cryptography, everyone has access to everyone’s public key.

A

asymmetric-key

263
Q

After a message is encrypted, it is called _______.

A

ciphertext

264
Q

If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, _______ symmetric keys are needed.

A

190

265
Q

In the asymmetric-key method of cryptography, which key is publicly known?

A

encryption key only

266
Q

In the asymmetric-key method of cryptography, the receiver has possession of the _______.

A

private key

267
Q

The RSA algorithm uses _______ cryptography method.

A

an asymmetric-key

268
Q

If user A wants to send an encrypted message to user B, the plaintext is encrypted with the public key of _______.

A

user B

269
Q

In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the sender of the message uses _______ to sign the message.

A

his or her own private key

270
Q

In the digital signature technique when the whole message is signed using an asymmetric key, the receiver of the message uses _______ to verify the signature.

A

the sender’s public key

271
Q

A _______ is a trusted third party that solves the problem of symmetric-key distribution.

A

KDC

272
Q

A _______ certifies the binding between a public key and its owner.

A

CA