Final Flashcards

1
Q

<p>2 neural structures the central nervous system (CNS) consists of</p>

A

<p>Brain

| Spinal cord</p>

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2
Q

<p>4 neural structures the peripheral nervous system (PNS) made up of</p>

A

<p>12 pairs of cranial nerves
31 pairs of spinal nerves
Autonomic nerves
Ganglia</p>

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3
Q

<p>2 neurons the PNS consists ofA</p>

A

<p>Afferent neurons

| Efferent neurons</p>

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4
Q

<p>Neurons that conduct impulses from peripheral receptors to the CNS</p>

A

<p>Afferent (sensory) neurons</p>

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5
Q

<p>Neurons that conduct impulses away from the CNS to the peripheral effectors</p>

A

<p>Efferent (motor) neurons</p>

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6
Q

<p>Supplies the striated skeletal muscles</p>

A

<p>Somatic nervous system (SNS)</p>

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7
Q

<p>Supplies smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular epithelial tissue</p>

A

<p>Autonomic nervous system (ANS)</p>

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8
Q

<p>Basic unit of the nervous system

| Consists of a cell body and two types of long, threadlike extensions</p>

A

<p>Neuron

| Nerve cell</p>

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9
Q

<p>Fatty covering that insulate the axons and increase the rate of transmission of nervous impulses</p>

A

<p>Myelin sheath</p>

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10
Q

<p>The impulse conduction route to and from the CNS in involuntary reactions
Basic ones consists of an afferent/sensory neuron, which conducts impulses to the CNS from the periphery; an an efferent/motor neuron which conducts impulses from the CNS to peripheral effectors (muscles or glandular tissue)</p>

A

<p>Reflex arc</p>

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11
Q

<p>Junction where impulses pass from one neuron to another
Transmission here is a chemical reaction in which the termini of the axon release a neurotransmitter substance that produces an electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next axon; once the neurotransmitter has accomplished its task, its activity rapidly terminates so that subsequent impulses pass along this same route</p>

A

<p>Synapse</p>

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12
Q

<p>Largest part of the brain that consists of two cerebral hemispheres</p>

A

<p>Cerebrum</p>

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13
Q

<p>Outer portion of the cerebrum consists of a thin layer of gray matter where the nerve cell bodies are concentrated
Responsible for receiving sensory information from all parts of the body and for triggering impulses that govern all motor activity
Just posterior to the central sulcus, there are specialized areas to receive and precisely localize sensory information from the PNS</p>

A

<p>Cerebral cortex</p>

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14
Q

<p>Mass of white matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres
These extensive bundles of nerve fibers lie in the midline just above the roofs of the lateral ventricles</p>

A

<p>Corpus callosum</p>

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15
Q

<p>A few gray islands of gray matter deep within the white matter
Help control position and automatic movements and consist of the caudate nuclei, the globus pallidus, and the putamen</p>

A

<p>Basal ganglia</p>

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16
Q

<p>3 parts of the brainstem (from top down) between the cerebrum and spinal cord</p>

A

<p>Midbrain
Pons
Medulla</p>

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17
Q

<p>Performs sensory, motor, and reflex functions, and contains the nuclei of the 12 cranial nerves and the vital centers controlling cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory function</p>

A

<p>Brainstem</p>

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18
Q

<p>Responsible for such nonvital reflexes as vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccuping, and swallowing</p>

A

<p>Medulla</p>

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19
Q

<p>Second largest part of the brain located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum that is composes of two large lateral masses: the hemispheres and a central section (vermis)
Acts with the cerebral cortex to produce skilled movements by coordinating the activities of groups of muscles
Coordinates skeletal muscles used in maintaining equilibrium and posture by functioning below the level of consciousness to make movements smooth rather than jerky, steady rather than trembling, and efficient and coordinated rather than ineffective and awkward</p>

A

<p>Cerebellum</p>

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20
Q

<p>Lies between the cerebrum and midbrain and consists of several structures located around the third ventricle, primarily the thalamus and hypothalamus</p>

A

<p>Diencephalon</p>

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21
Q

<p>Primarily functions as a relay station that receives and processes sensory info of almost all kinds of sensory impulses before sending this info to the cerebral cortex</p>

A

<p>Thalamus</p>

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22
Q

<p>Extremely complex, tiny structure that functions as a link between the mind and body and is the site of "pleasure" or "rewards" centers for such primary drives as eating, drinking, and mating
Plays a major role in regulating the body’s internal environment by coordinating the activities of the ANS and secreting the releasing hormones that control the secretion of hormones by the anterior and posterior portions of the pituitary gland
Also important in helping to maintain a normal body temperature and in keeping the individual in a waking state</p>

A

<p>Hypothalamus</p>

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23
Q

<p>Lies within the vertebral column and extends from its junction with the brainstem at the foramen magnum to approximately the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra; consists of an inner core of gray matter surrounded by white matter tracts
Its basic function is to conduct impulses up the cord to the brain (ascending tracts) and down the cord from the brain to spinal nerves (descending tracts); also serves as the center for spinal reflexes and involuntary responses (ex: knee jerk/patellar reflex)</p>

A

<p>Spinal cord</p>

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24
Q

<p>The inner coverings of brain and spinal cord</p>

A

<p>Meninges</p>

25
Q

<p>3 layers of the meninges</p>

A

<p>Dura mater
Arachnoid membrane
Pia mater</p>

26
Q

<p>Transparent innermost layer adhering to the outer surface of the brain and spinal cord</p>

A

<p>Pia mater</p>

27
Q

<p>Tough outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord</p>

A

<p>Dura mater</p>

28
Q

<p>Delicate, cobweb-like membrane between the pia and dura mater</p>

A

<p>Arachnoid membrane</p>

29
Q

Adrenaline

A

Epinephrine

30
Q

Secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine; these fight-or-flight hormones are secreted in stress situations when additional energy and strength are needed

A

Adrenal medulla

31
Q

Autoimmune disease that results from a reaction of the patient’s antibodies against antigens from a previous streptococcal infection
Damages the heart valves; usually the mitral and aortic valves
Damaged valves are either stenotic (open too narrowly) or insufficient (do not close completely)
Doppler echocardiography
Major cause of acquired valvular disease

A

Rheumatic fever/heart disease

32
Q

Dilated, elongated, and tortuous vessels that most commonly involve the superficial veins of the leg just under the skin; venography

A

Varicose veins

33
Q

Most common congenital cardiac lesions
Permit mixing of blood in the systemic and pulmonary circulations.
Lungs become overloaded with blood because blood is preferentially shunted from the high-pressure systemic circulation to the relatively low-pressure pulmonary circulation
Defect size and pressure differences control magnitude of shunt
Always looking at aorta
Imaging: doppler echocardiography (US) and MRI/A

A

Left-to-right shunts

34
Q

Ventricular septal defects and the overriding of the aorta produce shunting of unoxygenated venous blood into the left ventricle and then into the systemic circulation, thus increasing the degree of cyanosis; echocardiography

A

Right-to-left shunting

35
Q

3 types of left-to-right shunts

A

Atrial septal defect (most common)
Ventricular septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus (remnant of fetal circulation)

36
Q

Leading cause of strokes and CHF
Elevation of the systolic pressure above 140 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg) [140/90]
Arteriography

A

Hypertension

37
Q

Both kidneys are malrotated, and fused at the lower poles (joined by a band of normal renal parenchyma [isthmus] or connective tissue)
The most common fusion anomaly

A

Horseshoe fusion

38
Q

Most common abdominal neoplasm of infancy and childhood
Arises from embryonic renal tissue, may be bilateral
Tends to become very large and appear as a palpable mass
US

A

Wilms’ tumor (nephroblastoma)

39
Q

An inflammation of the urinary bladder
Most common nosocomial infection
Most common in women due to a shorter urethra
Symptoms: urinary frequency, urgency, and burning sensation

A

Cystitis

40
Q

Functional unit of the kidney; each kidney contains more than a million

A

Nephrons

41
Q

The inflammation of the appendix
Causes: obstruction of fluid flow by fecalith or scarring
Complications: gangrene, abscess, or perforation
More common in children
Develops when the neck of the appendix becomes blocked
Gold standard: CT

A

Appendicitis

42
Q

Green pear-shaped sac that lies on the undersurface of the liver; function is to store bile

A

Gallbladder

43
Q

Protrusion of a portion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm
Commonly causes GERD
Degree of herniation varies widely
Most common abnormality (50% of population) detected on upper GI
Range from large esophagogastric hernias to small hernias that emerge above the diaphragm
Prominent air fluid levels can be seen on chest x-rays

A

Hiatal hernia

44
Q

The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another because of peristalsis
It forces the proximal segment of bowel to move distally within the outer portion
A major cause of obstruction in children

A

Intussusception

45
Q

The mechanical breakdown of food

Digestion begins in the mouth

A

Mastication/chewing

46
Q

Fracture of C2 arch with subluxation of C2–C3

Patients who had been hanged

A

Hangman’s fracture

47
Q

Transverse fracture through the distal radius with dorsal (posterior) angulation
Common for ulnar styloid to fracture, too
Usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand; most common fracture in wrist

A

Colles’ fracture

48
Q

A primary malignant tumor arising in the bone marrow of long bones
Occurs in children and young adults and is rare over age 30
Destructive (takes away calcium) to whole area of bone
Major clinical complaint is local pain
Imaging appearance: medullary destruction with “onionskin” periosteal reaction

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

49
Q

A disorder in the metabolism of purine (a component of nucleic acids)
Increases uric acid in the blood, which leads to the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, cartilage, and kidney
Manifests as very painful arthritis that initially attacks a single joint, primarily the first metatarsophalangeal joint
Additive and destructive
“Rate bite” erosions
If you have a mass forming, calcium will get into it and show up on x-rays
Location: 1st MTP joint but may attack any joint
Imaging appearance: joint inflammation (effusion) and destruction and/or uric crystals (tophi) in joint space

A

Gout

50
Q

Most common form of dwarfism
Results from diminished proliferation of cartilage in the growth plate (decreased enchondral bone formation)
Autosomal dominant condition
Characterized by short limbs with a normal axial skeleton
Thick bones
Location: vertebrae (short stature), long bones
Imaging appearance: progressive interpedicular distance from superior to inferior, and scalloping of posterior vertebral bodies; widened metaphysis (Erlenmeyer flask deformity)

A

Achondroplasia

51
Q

Crippling and debilitating condition in which obstructive and destructive changes in small airways (the acini or terminal bronchioles) lead to a dramatic increase in the volume of air in the lungs
Black lungs and domes of diaphragm look flat
Destructive disease, more air
Located in the destroyed alveolar septa
Appears on images as pulmonary hyperinflation, bulla formation, flattened diaphragm, or radiolucent retrosternal space

A

Emphysema

52
Q

Develop from hematogenous or lymphatic spread
Most commonly from musculoskeletal sarcomas, myeloma, and carcinomas of the breast, urogenital tract, thyroid, and colon
Carcinomas of the breast, esophagus, or stomach may spread to lungs via direct extension due to anatomic proximity
Located throughout the lungs
Appear on images as multiple nodules with sharp margins, miliary/snowstorm nodules, solitary nodule, or coarsened interstitial markings

A

Pulmonary metastatic disease

53
Q

A necrotic area of pulmonary parenchyma containing purulent material
Aspiration is most common cause; may also be a complication, bronchial obstruction, a foreign body, or the hematogenous spread of organisms to the lungs either in a patient with diffuse bacteremia or as a result of septic emboli
Additive
Most common in right lung because the right main bronchus is more vertical and larger in diameter
Appears on images as an encapsulated opaque mass with air-fluid level

A

Lung abscess

54
Q

What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube?

A

Tip of tube 5-7 cm above the carina

55
Q

A condition in which there is diminished air within the lung associated with reduced lung volume
Caused by bronchial obstruction, which may be due to: neoplasm, foreign body, or mucous plug
Important iatrogenic cause: improper placement of an endotracheal tube below the level of the tracheal bifurcation
Located as an obstruction of segment/lobe or lung collapse
Appears on images as local increased density; platelike streaks

A

Atelectasis

56
Q

A rare accumulation of infected liquid or frank pus in the pleural space
Usually caused by the spread of an adjacent infection (e.g., bacterial pneumonia, subdiaphragmatic abscess, lung abscess, and esophageal perforation); may occur after thoracic surgery, trauma, or instrumentation of the pleural space
Additive because any kind of fluid is harder to penetrate through
Appears on images as a lesion - loculated fluid; possible air-fluid level

A

Empyema

57
Q

Includes several conditions in which chronic obstruction of the airways leads to an ineffective exchange of respiratory gases and makes breathing difficult (chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and asthma)
Destructive
Caused by: smoking, pollution, exposure to harmful substances, deficiency of Alpha 1 Atritrypsin enzyme
No cure; most die from congestive heart failure, pneumonia, flu, or asthma attacks

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

58
Q

Tumor of muscle

A

Myoma

59
Q

Any new and abnormal growth, especially when the growth is uncontrolled and progressive

A

Neoplasm