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NUR 406 > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

A person or animal that harbors an infectious organism and transmits the organism to others, although having no symptoms of the disease

A

carrier

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2
Q

The presence and multiplication of infectious organisms without invading or causing damage to tissue

A

colonization

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3
Q

An outbreak characterized by exposure to a common, harmful substance

A

common source outbreak

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4
Q

communicable by direct or indirect contact

A

contagious

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5
Q

The constant or usual prevalence of a specific disease or infectious agent within a population or geographic area.

A

endemic

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6
Q

significant increase in the number of new cases of a disease than past experience would have predicted for that place, time, or population; an increase in incidence beyond that which is expected

A

epidemic

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7
Q

originating in a healthcare facility, formerly called nosocomial infection

A

healthcare-associated infection

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8
Q

time period between initial contact with the infectious agent and the appearance of the first signs or symptoms of the disase

A

incubation period

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9
Q

presence and replication of an infectious agent in the tissues of a host, with manifestation of signs and symptoms.

A

infectious disease

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10
Q

ability of the agent to produce an infectious disease in a susceptible host

A

pathogenicity

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11
Q

outbreak resulting from direct or indirect transmission of an infectious agent from an infected person to a susceptible host; secondary infections can occur

A

propagated outbreak

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12
Q

location where an infectious agent is normally found, where it lives and reproduces under normal circumstances.

A

reservoir

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13
Q

infections that occur within the accepted incubation period following exposure to a primary case

A

secondary infection

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14
Q

a continual dynamic method for gathering data about the health of the general public for the purpose of primary prevention of illness.

A

surveillance

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15
Q

The transfer of an infectious agent from one person or place to another

A

transmission

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16
Q

slow and progressive genetic changes that take place in DNA and RNA as organisms replicate in multiple hosts

A

antigenic drift

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17
Q

Sudden change in the molecular structure of DNA and RNA in microorganisms, resulting in a new strain of the microorganism.

A

antigenic shift

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18
Q

model illustrating the interaction of 13 factors that contribute to the emergence of infectious diseases.

A

convergence model

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19
Q

observation of clients to ensure that they ingest each dose of anti-TB medication to maximize the likelihood of completion of therapy.

A

directly observed therapy

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20
Q

natural unit consisting of all living things interacting with, and dependent on, one another for survival within their nonliving environment.

A

ecosystem

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21
Q

newly identified clinically distinct infectious disease, or the reappearance of a known infectious disease after its decline, with an incidence that is increasing in a certain geographic area or among a specific population.

A

emerging infectious disease

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22
Q

type of immunity in which a large proportion of people in a population are not susceptible to a communicable disease and the few people who are susceptible will not likely be exposed and contract the illness.

A

herd immunity

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23
Q

process by which organisms adjust and change to their environment.

A

microbial adaptation

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24
Q

epidemic occurring worldwide

A

pandemic

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25
Q

A term used to refer to a homicide of a female person that occurs in the context of intimate partner violence

A

femicide

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26
Q

A term used to distinguish violence which targets people, or groups of people, on the basis of their gender from other forms of violence.

A

gender-based violence

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27
Q

basic rights and freedoms to which all humans are entitled.

A

human rights

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28
Q

the number of cases of disease with an onset during a prescribed period of time, often expressed as a rate.

A

incidence

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29
Q

A pattern of assaultive and coercive behaviors which may include inflicted physical injury, psychological abuse, sexual assault, progressive social isolation, deprivation, intimidation, and threats.

A

intimate partner violence

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30
Q

An assessment that identifies high-risk factors for IPV

A

lethality assessment

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31
Q

To be responsible for, commit, as in a crime.

A

perpetrate.

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32
Q

number of cases of a disease, infection persons, or people with some other attribute present during a particular interval of time, often expressed as a rate.

A

prevalence

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33
Q

Framed in the context of intentional acts carried out by a person or persons against another with a conscious choice to inflict harm

A

violence

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34
Q

No use of illicit substances or alcohol in the preceding 12 months

A

abstinence

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35
Q

substance dependence/habituation

A

addiction

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36
Q

a very strong urge or desire to seek the euphoric feeling achieved by using substances

A

craving

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37
Q

a reversible syndrome that appears after ingestion of a specific substance that results in clinically significant problematic behavioral or psychological changes.

A

intoxication

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38
Q

Occurs when a person has previously met criteria for a substance use disorder but has not met the criteria for 3-12 months.

A

early remission

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39
Q

occurs when a person no longer meets the criteria for substance use disorder for 12 months or more.

A

sustained remission

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40
Q

The use of alcohol, illicit drugs, and nonmedical use or prescription medications.

A

substance use

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41
Q

The use of alcohol, anxiolytics, caffeine, cannabis, gambling, hallucinogens, hypnotics, opioids, phencyclidine, sedatives, stimulants, and tobacco.

A

substance use disorder

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42
Q

diminished physical and/or psychological response to effects of alcohol or illicit substances.

A

tolerance

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43
Q

A reduction in prolonged substance use that results in problematic behavioral, physiologic, and cognitive changes.

A

withdrawal

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44
Q

The study of DNA sequencing to analyze the function and structure of complete sets of DNA in a cell of an organism.

A

genomics

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45
Q

Geographic area, population group, or medical facility with shortages of healthcare professionals that may not allow a full complement of healthcare services.

A

health professional shortage area

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46
Q

a person who is held in a jail or prison to protect the public

A

inmate

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47
Q

Area that is determined through calculation of a ratio of primary medical care physicians per 1,000 population, infant mortality rate, percentage of the population with incomes below the poverty level, and percentage of the population aged 65 or older.

A

medically underserved area

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48
Q

Three common chronic illnesses of homeless people

A

trimorbidity

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49
Q

Trimorbidity:

A

mental illness, chronic physical illness, and substance addiction

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50
Q

A subgroup of the population that has a higher risk of developing health problems due to a greater exposure to health risk because of marginalization in sociocultural status, access to economic resources, age, or gender.

A

underserved population

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51
Q

retrospective analysis used to evaluate emergency response drills.

A

after-action reports

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52
Q

process of cleaning to remove biologic, chemical, or radiologic agents.

A

decontamination

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53
Q

moving people from a dangerous place to safety

A

evacuation

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54
Q

common organizational structure implemented to improve emergency response.

A

incident command system

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55
Q

moving people from one area to another within the same facility.

A

invacuation

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56
Q

Framework that guides how the nation conducts all-hazards incident response.

A

national response framework

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57
Q

Structured, flexible framework that guides the response to disasters at al levels of government, the private sector, and nongovernmental organizations.

A

national incident management system

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58
Q

Clothing and/or equipment used to protect the body from injury and illness

A

personal protective equipment

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59
Q

centralized location where the public pick up emergency supplies following a disaster.

A

point of distribution

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60
Q

The actual time in which something occurs.

A

real time

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61
Q

The sequence of possible events or circumstances.

A

scenario

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62
Q

The protective action of taking cover in a building

A

shelter in place

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63
Q

The imitation of the features of an object or anticipated response.

A

simulation

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64
Q

A process to document and track changing information to prevent injury an illness.

A

surveillance

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65
Q

The use of threats and/or violence to intimidate or coerce society for political purposes.

A

terrorism

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66
Q

models that assist clients, groups, and communities to redirect activities toward health and wellness.

A

behavior change models

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67
Q

models that consider intrapersonal attributes, interpersonal dynamics, person/environment, interactions, cultural beliefs, and attitudes.

A

ecological model

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68
Q

A quality, an ability to adapt to change, or a resource to help cope with challenges and processes of daily living.

A

health

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69
Q

A behavior change model that considers the severity of the potential illness or physical challenge, the level of conceivable susceptibility, the benefits of taking preventive action, and the challenges that may be faced in taking action toward the goal of health promotion.

A

health belief model

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70
Q

A behavior change model emphasizing reinforcement of social competence, problem solving, autonomy, and sense of purpose.

A

learning model

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71
Q

Susceptibility to disease or injury that can be controlled by individual people, families, or communities.

A

modifiable risk

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72
Q

Client-centered communication style for eliciting behavior change by helping clients and groups explore and resolve ambivalence to change.

A

motivational interviewing

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73
Q

Maximizing the health and wellness through strategies that are set in place before illness or injury is present

A

primary prevention

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74
Q

A change model that is used primarily to assist people struggling with relapse and recovery from substance abuse.

A

relapse prevention model

75
Q

Decreasing the chance of developing an illness, experiencing an injury, or being faced with chronic consequences of both.

A

risk reduction.

76
Q

maximizing health and wellness through strategies set in place at the early and active chronic stages of illness and injury.

A

secondary prevention

77
Q

A behavior change model that considers environmental influences, personal factors, and behavior as key components to change.

A

social learning

78
Q

A component of change in which community members, friends,neighbors, and adjacent communities influence change by offering instrumental assistance, informational support, emotional support, and appraising support.

A

social support

79
Q

maximizing health and wellness through strategies that are set in place at the palliation and end stage of disease and injury trajectories.

A

tertiary prevention

80
Q

A behavior model emphasizing that individual performance of a given behavior is primarily determined by a person’s intention to perform that behavior.

A

theory of reasoned action

81
Q

Sequential approach to behavior change on the basis of process across stages and timely readiness of the learner.

A

transtheoretical model.

82
Q

A subjective perception of full functional ability as a human being.

A

well-being

83
Q

An outbreak that occurs when there is an increased incidence of a disease beyond that which is normally found in the population

A

epidemic

84
Q

model based on the belief that health status is determined by the interaction of the characteristics of the host, agent, and environment.

A

epidemiologic triad

85
Q

Study of the distribution and determinants of states of health and illness in human populations; used both as a research methodology to study states of health and illness, and as a body of knowledge that results from the study of a specific state of health or illness.

A

epidemiology

86
Q

course of a disease or condition from the onset to resolution.

A

natural history

87
Q

epidemic usually limited to a localized increase in the incidence of the illness.

A

outbreak

88
Q

primary measurement used to describe either the occurrence or the existence of a specific state of health or illness

A

rate

89
Q

probability or likelihood that a disease or illness will occur in a group of people who presently do not have the problem.

A

risk

90
Q

characteristics or events that have been shown to increase the probability that a specific disease or illness will develop.

A

risk factor

91
Q

epidemiologic mdoel that strongly emphasizes the concept of multiple causation while de-emphasizing the role of agents in explaining illness.

A

web of causation

92
Q

Epidemiologic model that de-emphasize the agent as the sole cause of disease while emphasizing the interplay of physical, biologic, and social environments

A

.wheel of causation

93
Q

states that specific microorganisms cause disease

A

germ theory

94
Q

The microbe that causes the disease

A

agent

95
Q

The organism that is harboring the infectious agent

A

host

96
Q

The external factors that cause or allow disease transmission

A

environment

97
Q

Has the greatest influence on the transmission of microbial agents that are waterborne, airborne, foodborne, or vector-borne, or those with an animal recervoir.

A

changes in the environment

98
Q

H5N1 influenza & STDs are spread by ___ .

A

direct contact

99
Q

___ & ___ are examples of communicable diseases spread by droplet transmission

A

measles & influenza

100
Q

vector transmission is considered ___ ___

A

indirect contact

101
Q

Helps determine whether the outbreak is from a common source or from a propagated (continuous) source

A

epidemic curve

102
Q

Father of epidemiology

A

John Snow

103
Q

___ Data is reported annually to measure progress toward the DHHS’ goal of HAI infection

A

CDC’s National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN)

104
Q

The most frequent reason for transferring residents of long term care facilities to the hospital

A

lower respiratory tract infection & pneumonia

105
Q

The US Public Health infrastructure that develops guidelines and policies to protect the nation’s health

A

USDHHS

106
Q

The major USDHHS agency that protects the nation’s health by developing guidelines that promote health and quality of life by preventing and controlling disease, injury, and disability

A

CDC

107
Q

Provides international epidemic alerts and responses

A

WHO

108
Q

Maintains surveillance systems to analyze data for disease trends and outbreaks

A

CDC

109
Q

Has an electronic surveillance system for the early notification of community-based epidemics.

A

The Department of Defense

110
Q

involve biological and nonbiological agents and can be caused by microorganisms and their toxins, marine organisms and their toxins, fungi and their toxins, and chemical contaminants

A

food-borne diseases

111
Q

The most common cause of acute infectious gastroenteritis in people of all ages.

A

norovirus

112
Q

The most common cause of bacterial food-borne illness in the US

A

campylobacter

113
Q

Can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe illness & death in newborn infants.

A

listeria monocytogenes

114
Q

A patient reporting ill with diarrhea and/or flu-like symptoms who has recently eaten delicatessen food, soft cheeses, or smoked seafood would be expected to have:

A

listeriosis

115
Q

E coli symptoms generally resolve in:

A

7-10 days

116
Q

2 criteria that must be met for an event to be defined as a water-associated disease outbreak:

A
  1. 2 or more people must be linked epidemiologically by time, lcoation of expsoure to water, and illness characteristics.
  2. Epidemiologic evidence must implicate recreational water or volatilization of water associated compoudsn into the air surrounding the water as te probable source of illness.
117
Q

The most frequently reported bacterial STD in the US

A

chlamydia

118
Q

often called “the great imitator”

A

syphillis

119
Q

A bacterium, virus, or toxin that has the potential to pose a severe threat to public health and safety.

A

select agent

120
Q

An action or effort that supports the wellbeing of individuals, gorups, and communities by reducing risk of illness and injury.

A

health promotion

121
Q

immunizations are examples of:

A

primary prevention

122
Q

testing correctly to identify persons who have the disease/physical challenge

A

sensitivity

123
Q

testing to identify persons who do not have the disease

A

specificity

124
Q

weight watchers is an example of a:

A

classic learning model

125
Q

Involves a timely readiness of the learner

A

transtheoretical model

126
Q

The 5 stages of the transtheoretical model

A 
precontemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance
127
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model that involves no sceduling or intention of scheduling services

A

precontemplation

128
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model that involves no scheduling but does involve an intent

A

contemplation

129
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model that involves taking steps to develop a program

A

preparation

130
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model that involves developing a program and intending to sustain it

A

action

131
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model that involves keeping it going

A

maintenance

132
Q

phase of the transtheoretical model when a previous program was created but is not currently in effect, however intention for another active program is evident

A

relapse

133
Q

based on the belief that all processes occuring within individuals and their environment should be viewed as interdependent

A

ecological model

134
Q

4 levels of influence in the ecological model:

A

ontogenetic
microsystem
exosystem
macrocultural

135
Q

ontogenic system includes:

A

personal factors (race, marital status, level of education)

136
Q

Epidemiology is both a _____ _____ and a ___ ___ ____

A

research methodology;body of knowledge

137
Q

His reports were the precursor of modern vital statistics

A

John Graunt

138
Q

Set up a system for the consistent collection of the numbers and causes of deaths.

A

william farr

139
Q

Used compelling statistics to bring about health care forms

A

Florence nightingale

140
Q

Agents may divided into 5 groups:

A 
physical
chemical
nutritional
psychosocial
biologic
141
Q

The course of an illness or disease

A

pathologic onset stage
presymptomatic stage
manifestation of clinical disease

142
Q

Nurse’s role in an outbreak:

A

education of the public
mobilization of community resources
implementing regulatory and control measures

143
Q

all forms of violence can be attributed to the need for __ & ___

A

power; control

144
Q

Exposure to violence can lead to:

A 
premature death
disability
poor mental health
high medical costs
lost productivity
145
Q

Agency focused on requiring all clinical settings to implement identification and interventions for victims of abuse

A

Joint Commission

146
Q

The leading cost of all nonfatal disease burdens

A

mental & substance use disorders

147
Q

binge drinking is defined as:

A

5 or more drinks on the same occasion for 1 day during the preceding month for men and 4 for women

148
Q

most frequently used illicit substance in the US

A

cannabis

149
Q

Population based interventions to decrease substance use among adolescents can be conceptualized in four categories:

A

regulatory, developmental prevention, early screening & harm reduction

150
Q

IM medication diminishes the alcohol induced release of dopamine thought to be involved in alcohol craving

A

naltrexone

151
Q

Antabuse’s generic name

A

disulfuram

152
Q

The APA treatment guidelines recommend treatment for opioid use disorders with ___ & ___ for both withdrawal syndromes and maintenance.

A

methadone; buprenorphine

153
Q

A partial opioid agonist that enables opioid dependent people to discontinue opiods without experiencing withdrawal symptoms.

A

subutex (buprenorphine)

154
Q

The denial of economic, sociocultural, political, civil, or human rights of certain populations or groups base don the belief of those with power that others are inferior.

A

social injustice

155
Q

Specific actions that fail to address what public health should be

A

social injustice

156
Q

7 factors that compound disease prevention and health promotion efforts to identify and reduce modifiable risks in the elderly population:

A

availability, accessibility, affordability, awareness, adequacy, acceptability, assessment

157
Q

Examples of underserved populations:

A

rural, elderly, inmates, LGBTQ, homeless

158
Q

An effort to prevent identified risks from causing a disaster

A

mitigation

159
Q

creation or removal of structures or alteration of the environemnt to remove or modify risks

A

structural mitigation

160
Q

disaster training for healthcare personnel, the establishment of emergency evacuation regulations, land use planning, legislation, and insurance.

A

nonstructural mitigation

161
Q

involves efforts to lessen the impact of a disaster by initiating measures to limit damage, disease, disability, and loss of life among the members of a community (tertiary prevention)

A

mitigation

162
Q

In the US, the ____ is the central organizaton overseeing many different agencies that focus on the safety and security of the nation.

A

DHS

163
Q

Health departments and emergency management offices use the ___ to develop a coordinated response to disasters.

A

national incident management system

164
Q

A structured, flexible framework that guides the response to disasters of governments at all levels.

A

NIMS

165
Q

Represents a core set of doctrines, concepts, principles, terminology, and organizational processes that enable effective, efficient, and collaborative incident management.

A

NIMS

166
Q

The ___, coordinated by the NIMS, is the on-scene organization and management structure that may be followed in planned community events as well as disaster incidents.

A

ICS

167
Q

The stabilization of the community and the return of the disaster area to its previous status.

A

recovery

168
Q

The __ phase deals with immediate needs, whereas the ___ phase focuses on those activities that will protect the health of the public and restore buildings and services

A

response; recovery

169
Q

The foundation for evidence-based disaster response

A

evaluation

170
Q

Given immediately before it is used so that the least amount of resources is expended in producing the final result.

A

just in time training

171
Q

Basic triage tool used to assist emergency responders in disasters

A

START

172
Q

PPE highest protection for respiratory tract, skin, eyes, and mucous membranes

A

level A

173
Q

PPE highest protection for respiratory tract, skin, and eye splash-resistant protection

A

level B

174
Q

PPE that includes an air-purifying system for respiratory tract.

A

level C

175
Q

standard work protection from splashes, minimal skin protection, no respiratory protection

A

level D

176
Q

cover suits, safety glasses, glvoes, boots, & face shield

A

level D PPE

177
Q

full face, air-purifying respirator rather than SCBA, liquid splash-resistant clothing, hood, gloves, hard hat, boots, two was communication device

A

level C PPE

178
Q

SCBA, liquid splash–resistant clothing, hood, gloves, hard hat, boots, two-way communication device.

A

level B PPE

179
Q

SCBA, fully encapsulated water & vapor proof suit with a cooling system, boots, gloves, hard hat, and a two way communication device.

A

level A PPE

180
Q

involves the intentional release of viruses, bacteria, fungi, or toxins from living organisms into the environment for the purpose of causing illness or death.

A

bioterrorism

181
Q

organisms that pose a risk to national security

A

category A biologic agents

182
Q

Anthrax treatment runs

A

60 days

183
Q

botulism is found in:

A

soil

NUR 406 (2 decks)

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