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RUSVM Principles Of Infectious Disease > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Immunotherapy tests.

A

Detect pathogen -specific antibody or antigen

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2
Q

Antigens from pathogens can be

A

Whole pathogen
Molecule produced by pathogen
Pathogen molecule presented on surface of host

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3
Q

What are the common antibodies detected in blood are are common specimens for antibodies

A

IgG
IgM
(Found at the area of the infection where the pathogen replicates or the antigen is present

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4
Q

What factor is key in accurate immunochemicla diagnosis?

A

Timing

Acute phase detection may have different antibody presence then further along in disease process

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5
Q

What are indicators of active/recent infection?

A

Pathogen detection
Present/ recent clinical symptoms of infection
Amount or title of antibodies (number circulating system)

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6
Q

How does an ELIZA immunological assay work?

A

Antibody is conjugated with an enzyme, the antibody binds to the antigen.

Substrate is added and the enzyme cleaves a reaction to produce a color change (more color means more binding of antigen-antibody binding)

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7
Q

What are the two different ELIZA assays?

A

Indirect - antibody binding to antibody bound by antigen (antigen coated well)

Sandwich - monoclonal antibody coated well binds antigen and a secondary antibody will bind to the antigen

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8
Q

Describe a lateral-flow immunochromatographic assay

A

Sample is added to pad
Flow of sample by capillary action
Plate antibody binds conjugate antigen and antibody Second line of anybody’s is to bind conjugate antibody (control line)

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9
Q

What is the basis for IDEXX SNAP test?

A

Conjugation of antigens to antibody(bound to plate), a congregate antibody(enzyme bound) will bind to antibody- antigen complex.

Color change is produced when substrate is washed across

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10
Q

What is indirect immunofluorescence?

A

Primary antibody is specific to the antigen (variable region). Binds to antigen
Secondary antibody is specific to the FC portion of the primary antibody -> binds to primary antibody
Secondary antibody is conjugated with fluorophore.

Multiple secondary antibodies can bind and amplify signal

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11
Q

What is agglutination

A

Particles clump together (antibody and antigen interaction)

Direct or Indirect

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12
Q

What is indirect agglutination

A

Antigen or antibody coated on beads

Bind bead through an intermediate

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13
Q

What is direct agglutination

A

Antibody binds directly to antigen.

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14
Q

What are the advantages of immunochemical tests?

A

ID pathogen when pathogen cannot be cultured
Most have high sensitivity
Most have high specificity
Mid to high-volume testing possible

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15
Q

What are the disadvantages of immunochemical tests?

A

Detection of antibody may not indicate an active infection
Antibody detection from specimens: very early in infection may not be detected
Possible that antibodies may detect >1 pathogen (different pathogens can have the same antigen)

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16
Q

What is the basis for molecular diagnostics of infectious disease?

A

Identify makers in the genome or proteome

  • determine pathogen ID by characteristic genetic or protein material
  • use pathogen-specific genetic sequences to ID pathogen
  • use pathogen-specific “protein profile” to ID pathogen
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17
Q

What is MALDI-TOF and how does it work?

A

Mass spectrometry
Detect part of pathogen (ribosomal peptides) by mass and charge
Signature pattern of fragments

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18
Q

What are the advantages of MALDIVES-TOF?

A

Rapid ID
High-throughput
ID bacteria/fungi

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19
Q

What are the disadvantages of MALD-TOF

A

Isolated pathogen analysis
Identification is limited to reference spectra in database
High initial cost

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20
Q

Multiplex PCR/ Microarrays are useful to detect?

A

Nucleic acid from virus, bacteria, fungi parasite species

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21
Q

Real-time PCR

A

Pathogen-specific sequence amplification of nucleic acid and measurement
Quantitative for pathogen
Used highly for viral identification and viral load

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22
Q

What are the advantages of molecular diagnostics?

A

Faster than culture based methods
Highly sensitive
Accurate
High volume testing is possible

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23
Q

What are the disadvantages of molecular diagnostics?

A

Expensive: equipment and reagents
Requires specialized personnel to run machines
Yes or no answers
Possible false negatives/positives

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24
Q

What phenotypic method cannot be used to clinically diagnose viruses

A

Culture-based methods

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25
Q

What three things are required for proper specimens collection for diagnostic testing?

A

Aseptic technique
Collection of a sample specific to the infection
Collection before antibiotic treatment

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26
Q

What are the common specimens collected for a suspected viral infection?

A

Swabs- nasal, trachea, sputum, and eye
Feces
Blood

Dependent upon suspected viral infection and patient symptoms

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27
Q

Specimen handling is dependent on ?

A

Pathogen type
Specimen type
What test will be performed

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28
Q

All specimens must be handled to ?

A

Avoid contamination of other specimens

Avoid contamination of clinic/workers/patient

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29
Q

What are the categories of diagnostics techniques?

A

Molecular
Immunological and Serological
Phenotypic

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30
Q

What are phenotypic methods of diagnosis

A

Direct examination
Cytology
Biochemical tests

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31
Q

What are the concentration techniques for direct examination of a sample?

A

Filtration/ centrifugation
Flotation/ sedimentation
Baermann test for larval identification

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32
Q

Parasite diagnostics are dependent on??

A

Stage of infection
Animal age and species
Technique used
Severity of infection

False negatives can occur *

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33
Q

What are the advantages of cytology ?

A 
Determine cell and tissue morphology 
Cellular association of bacteria/ parasites/ fungi 
Morphology 
Impression of disease stage/severity 
Immediate analysis
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34
Q

Disadvantages of Cytology

A

Mild/chronic infection may not be readily detected
Mot all samples are appropriate for cytology of bacterial infections
Difficult to distinguish normal flora from pathogenic bacteria

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35
Q

What type of infections can you culture?

A

Bacteria or fungal

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36
Q

What types of infections are not cultured for diagnosis?

A

Parasites or viruses

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37
Q

What are the different culture options?

A

Agar
Broth
Biochemical

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38
Q

What type of media is used for general growth of a culture?

A

Nutrient agar

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39
Q

What type of medial is important for growth of a single suspected pathogen type?

A

Selective media

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40
Q

What type of media are used to ID a pathogen?

A

Differential media

Most are also selective medias

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41
Q

An enrichment broth is used for what?

A

To increase the number of a specific bacteria type and inhibit growth of others

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42
Q

What is a fastidious bacteria?

A

Requires specific nutrients and culture conditions

Use environmental/nutritional characteristics to select growth of specific organisms => selective media

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43
Q

How can biochemical tests be used to ID a pathogen?

A

Different bacteria produce different enzymes-> enzymatic or fermentation tests to determine differences in bacterial profiles

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44
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

Chemical substance that is produced by a microorganism and has the ability to inhibit growth/ kill another microorganism

45
Q

What is the difference between an antibiotic and antimicrobial/antibacterial?

A

Antibiotics are compounds that are produced by microorganisms

Antimicrobial/antibacterial can be any substance (natural/synthetic/semi-synthetic) that inhibits or kills and microorganism

All antibiotics are antimicrobial but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics

46
Q

What are the uses of antibiotics in animals?

A

Therapeutic - treat the sick
Prophylactic - prevention
Metaphylatic -treat sick and healthy in a heard for prevention
Growth promotion - healthy animals treated

47
Q

How can antibacterial agents be classified?

A 
Chemical structure 
Origin 
Effect on bacteria 
Spectrum of activity 
Mode of action
48
Q

What compounds are penicillins?

A

Penicillin G/V
Ampicillin/amoxicillin
Amoxicillin/ Clavulanic acid

49
Q

What compounds are tetracyclines?

A

Tetracycline
Oxytetracycline
Doxycycline.

50
Q

What compounds are Quinolones ?

A

Oxolinic acid
Erirofloxacin/ Marofloxacin
Pradofloxacin / Norfloxacin

51
Q

What compounds are Sulfonamides ?

A

Sulfadiazine

Sulfadiazine/ Trimethorprim

52
Q

What compounds are phenicols?

A

Chloramephenciol

Florfenicol

53
Q

What compounds are cephalosporins?

A

Cefalexin/Cephadroxil
Cefpodoxime/Ceftiofur
Cefovecin, Cefquinome

54
Q

What compounds belong to the macrolides?

A

Erythromycin

Tiamulin, Tilmicosin

55
Q

What compounds belong to the group Lincosamides

A

Lycomycin/ Clindamycin

Used for skin infections in dogs

56
Q

What compounds belong to animoglycosides?

A

Streptomycin
Gentamicin/ Neomycin
Amikacin

57
Q

What compounds belong to the polypeptide group?

A

Colistin/ Polymixin

58
Q

What drug targets anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole

59
Q

What compounds belong to the carbapenems?

A

Imipenem/meropenem

Ertapenem/ doripenem

60
Q

What compounds are glycopeptides ?

A

Vancomycin/ Teicoplanin

61
Q

What compounds belong to Oxazolidones?

A

Linezolide

62
Q

What two antibacterials are synthetically made?

A

Quinolones and sulfonamides

63
Q

What is a semi-synthetic compound?

A

A natural compound that is chemically altered

64
Q

What is the difference between a bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic drug?

A

Bactericidal- kill
Bacteriostatic- inhibit growth

Drugs can vary depending on concentration, bacterial species, and combinations of drugs

65
Q

What classes of antibiotics are bateriostatic?

A 
Lincosamides 
Macrolides 
Phenicols
Sulfonamides 
Tetracyclines
66
Q

What drug will have no effect against a non-penicillase producing staphylococci?

A

Metronidazole

67
Q

What group of B-lactams will have no effect on penicillase-producing staphylococci?

A

Penicillins
Aminopenicillins
Metronidazole

68
Q

What drugs will have no effect on glucose fermentative gram-negative rods?

A

Metronidazole
Penicillins
Lincosamides
Macrolides

69
Q

What drugs will have no effect against anaerobes ?

A

Aminoglycosides

70
Q

What drugs have low/variable activity against Non-penicillase-producing gram-positive cocci ?

A 
Lincosamides 
Macrolides 
Tetracyclines 
Aminoglycosides 
Floroquinolones 
Cephalosporins 
Sulfonamides
71
Q

What drugs have low/poor activity against penicillase-producing staphylococcus?

A

Linosamides

Macrolides

72
Q

What drugs have low/variable activity against glucose-fermentation gram-negative rods?

A

Aminopenicillins

Tetracycline

73
Q

What drugs have low/variable activity against anaerobes?

A

Cephalosporins
Tetracyclines
Sulfonamides
Flouroquinolones

74
Q

What modes of action can B-lactams have against bacteria?

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, metabolic processes, and cell membrane integrity

75
Q

Co-resistance

A

Co-existence of multiple genes/mutations encoding resistance to different drugs within the same strain/genetic element

76
Q

Co-selection

A

Selection of multiple resistance genes when one of these genes is selected

77
Q

What is a vaccine?

A

A suspension of antigens that is administered to induce immunity

78
Q

What is adjuvant?

A

An additive to a vaccine that enhance the immune response to the Ag

79
Q

What are the three ways an adjuvant can enhance the immune system

A
  1. Delay the release of Ag from the site of injection
  2. Induce the secretion of chemokines by leukocytes
    A. Enhanced cell-mediated immunity
    B. Enhanced antibody production
80
Q

What are the properties of an ideal vaccine?

A 
Inexpensive 
Consistent in formation-minimal variations 
Stable 
Proper type of immune response 
Range of immunological epitope 
Long-lived immunity 
Immunological memory 
No adverse side-effect
81
Q

What are the two types of infectious vaccines?

A

Live attenuated vaccines

Recombinant organism vaccine

82
Q

Live attenuated vaccine

A

Attenuated, but an intact and viable organism
Low-level infection
No significant tissue pathology or clinical disease

83
Q

What are the pros of a live attenuated vaccine?

A

Rapid onset of immunity

Sustained immunity after a single dose

84
Q

What are the cons of a live attenuated vaccines?

A

Potential for reversion to virulence
Virulent in the immunocompromised
Less stable in storage

85
Q

What is a recombinant organism vaccine?

A

Viral genes modified and inserted into a carrier

Carrier organisms do not cause disease in vaccinated animals

86
Q

What is the benefit of a marker vaccine?

A

A maker vaccine permits the discrimination between a vaccine exposure and a natural immune response

-in testing you can tell the difference

87
Q

What are the non-infection vaccine types

A

Killed whole organism vaccine
Subunit vaccine
Naked DNA vaccine

88
Q

What is a killed whole organism vaccine?

A

Antigenically intact

Unable to replicate or induce disease

89
Q

What are the pros to a non-infectious vaccine?

A

Safe
Doesnt interfere with other vaccines
Stable in storage

90
Q

What are the cons of a non-infectious vaccine?

A

Slow onset of immunity
Multiple boosters required
Adjuvant-adverse effects
Reduced degree of protection vs the live

91
Q

What is a subunit vaccine??

A

Contains immunological or structural proteins or metabolites of an organism

Eg. Purified protein, synthetic peptides, and recombinant protein

92
Q

What is a naked DNA vaccine?

A

Gene of interest is cloned into a plasmid and delivered to animal.
Pathogen gene is expressed and processed in APC for antigen presentation

93
Q

______________ immunization is performed by administering antibodies

A

Passive

94
Q

Protection by passive immunization is _______________ but ______________

A

Immediate ; temporary

95
Q

How do you provide active immunization?

A

Administer an antigen -> induce an immune response in recipient (humoral/cell-mediated response with immunological memory)

96
Q

What are the protection levels provided with active immunization?

A

Strong - no infection
Infected - clinically well
Infected- mild form of disease
Failure- no protection

97
Q

What adverse side effects can result from vaccination?

A

Type I hypersensitive

Feline injection site sarcoma (FISS)

98
Q

What are the consequences of antimicrobial resistance on animal and public health?

A

Increased patient mortality and morbidity

Risks of zoonotic transmission

99
Q

What are the economic consequences of antimicrobial resistance?

A

More visits, lab tests, and therapies
Prolonged hospitalization
Reduced weight gain (food animals)
Loss of customers / vet reputation
Cost for hospital and farm decontamination
Cost for surveillance and intervention programmes

100
Q

What are the mechanisms of antimicrobial resistance?

A

Blocking of drug binding to protein target

  • target modification
  • target protection
  • drug trapping

Change in concentration of drug in cell (mutation or membrane pores and transport systems)

  • increased efflux
  • decreased influx
101
Q

Name three emerging resistant bacteria in animals.

A 
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) 
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius (MRSP) 
Escherichia coli (ESBL producer)

Resistance to B-lactam
All these bacteria are resistant to cephalosporins and are often multidrug-resistant (MDR)

102
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

Resistant gene (mecA) encodes a penicillin-binding protein with low affinity to most B-lactams

103
Q

What is MRSP?

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus pseudintermedius

Resistance gene mecA
70 are skin and wound care post surgical in clinic
Difficult to choose an antibiotic because of multidrug resistance
Human infection usually lower but prevalence higher in dog owners and vet staff -> veterinarians as vectors for animal infection

104
Q

What is ESBL??

A

Extended spectrum beta lactamase

Enzyme that can hydrolize/inactivate most b-lactams (produced by gram negative bacteria)

105
Q

What are the three main classes of ESBL? What makes them true ESBLs

A

CTX-M , SHV, and TEM

Susceptible to B-lactamase inhibitors (eg clavulanic acid)

106
Q

What is a false ESBL

A

resistant to B-lactamase inhibitor

Widespread in Europe in poultry: CMY-2

107
Q

How can bacteria acquire resistance?

A 
Mutation (usually antimicrobial target gene/protein) 
Horizontal gene transfer 
-transformation (free DNA uptake) 
-transduction (phage delivery) 
-conjugation (cell to cell transfer)
108
Q

What three antibiotics are B-lactams

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

RUSVM Principles Of Infectious Disease (3 decks)

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