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RUSVM Principles Of Infectious Disease > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three complement pathway modes of activation?

A

Classical
Alternative
Lectin

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2
Q

What is the common product that will lead into the terminal part of the complement pathway

A

C3b product

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3
Q

What activates the complement pathway in innate immunity?

A

C-reactive protein on a pathogen is bound by C1

C1 cleaves C4

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4
Q

Through the classical complement pathway, what is the initial activator in the adaptive immune response?

A

An antibody binds to the antigen. C1 binds to the antibody and cleaves C4

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5
Q

In the classical pathway, explain the process from initiation to formation of the C3b product of the complement pathway

A 
Antibody binds C1 -> activates 
C1 -> C4 to C4a and C4b
C4b -> C2 to C2a and C2b 
C4b+C2b=C3 convertase 
C3 convertase -> C3a and C3b
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6
Q

Explain the terminal process of the complement pathways.

A

C3b+C2b+C4b= C5convertase (lectin and classical)
C3bBbC3b=C5convertase (alternative)

C5 convertase -> C5a and C5b
C5b+C6+C7+C8 ->associate with C9 in membrane
Form membrane attack complex

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7
Q

What is the activator of the Lectin pathway?

A

Mannan binding lectin (MBL)

MBL-associated serine protease-2 (MASP-2)

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8
Q

What is the activator of the alternative pathway?

A

C3 in contact with microbial cell wall

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9
Q

What is the initial complement component of the lectin pathway?

A

C4 and C2
To C4b and C2b

Form C3 convertase = C3b+C4b+C2b

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10
Q

What is the initial complement component of the alternative pathway?

A

C3, Factor B, Factor D, and properdin

Form C3 convertase = C3bBbC3b

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11
Q

What are the 4 consequences of complement activation?

A

Lysis
Opsonization
Activation of Inflammatory response
Clearance of immune complexes

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12
Q

How does the complement pathway cause cell lysis?

A

Formation of membrane attack complex -> pore into the cell

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13
Q

How does the complement pathways cause opsonization?

A

C3b binds to pathogen and to monocytes

Marks pathogen for phagocytosis

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14
Q

How does the complement pathway activate immune responses

A 
C3a and C5a are chemoattractants
Cause 
- smooth muscle contraction 
-mast cell degranulation 
- local oedema
-neutrophil activation
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15
Q

How does the complement pathway aid in clearance of immune complexes?

A

C3b binds with antibody-antigen complexes ->phagocytosis by macrophage or neutrophils

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16
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Immunity mediated by antibodies secreted by antigen-activated Bcells and their plasma cells

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17
Q

What are the 3 main differences between primary and secondary humoral responses?

A 
Primary- lag phase, which is shorter in secondary 
Secondary has a greater magnitude of antibody
Major antibody class is IgG in secondary response
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18
Q

What is the main structure of immunoglobulin?

A

Y-shaped molecule
4 chains connected by disulfide bonds
Hypervariable region (for specific binding of antigen)

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19
Q

Define epitope

A

Protein domain on antigen that is recognized by an antibody.
Antigens can be have multitalented (multiple) epitope that are repeated (all the same) or different

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20
Q

Define Paratope

A

Part of antibody that recognizes an antigen (antigen-binding site)
Aka hypervariable region = Small region of 15-20aa on Fab region of antibody

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21
Q

What 3 cells types have paratopes with specificity for a single antigenic epitope?

A

Antibody
Bcell receptors
Tcell receptors

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22
Q

What do Tcells require to recognize a pathogen?

A

Denatured peptide fragment to be presented on a MHC

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23
Q

What cells can you find MHC I on and what cells do they interact with?

A

Nucleated cells

Present antigen fragment to CD8+ Tcell

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24
Q

On what cells can you find MHC II and what is its function?

A

Only on APC (Bcell, macrophages, and dendritic cells)

Present antigen to CD4+ Tcell

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25
Q

What is processing occurs in an endogenous infection in a Tcell adaptive immune response?

A

Endogenous antigen infects cell -> viral proteins are synthesized by cell in cytoplasm -> peptide fragments are bound by MHC I in ER -> MHC I takes fragment to surface -> CD8+ Tcell binds-> cytotoxic Tcell effect

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26
Q

In an exogenous infection, what is the process following macrophage phagocytosis?

A

Within vesicle degradation of bacteria ->bacterial peptides are bound by MHCII ->MHCII brings bacterial peptide to surface -> Th1 recognizes and binds to complex (Cd4+) -> activates macrophages

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27
Q

How are antigens bound by Bcell immunoglobulins processed?

A

Cell surface immunoglobulin bound to antigen is engulfed by Bcell -> Degradation of antigen in vesicle -> MHC II binds peptide fragment and brings it to the surface -> Th2 cell receptor binds to antigen and activates Bcells

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28
Q

What MHC molecule is found on antigen presenting cells?

A

MHC II

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29
Q

CD8+ Tcells are ____________ restricted

A

MHC I

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30
Q

CD4+ Tcells are _______________ restricted

A

MHC II

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31
Q

What cells bridge the innate and adaptive immune response

A

Dendritic cells
Take antigen from site of infection through the lymph to the lymph node where it presents the antigen to Tcells and Bcells for specific immune response

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32
Q

What is antibody dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity?

A

A cell-mediated immune response where an effector cell actively lyses a target cell, whose membrane-surface antigens have been bound by specific antibodies
(NK cells, Macrophages, Neutrophils, and Eosinophils)

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33
Q

An infection that is interstitial, in blood, or lymph activates what type of immune reaction?

A

Antibody
Complement
Phagocytosis

CD4+ Th2
Humoral response

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34
Q

A pathogen on epithelial surfaces activates what immune response?

A

IgA
Antimicrobial peptide

CD4+ Th2
Humoral response

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35
Q

An intracellular, cytoplasmic infection causes what immune response?

A

Cytotoxic Tcell
NK cells

CD8+ cytotoxic Tcell

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36
Q

A intracellular Vesicular infection activates what immune response?

A

Macrophage

CD4+ Th1
Cell mediated response

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37
Q

What is a virus made up of?

A

Nucleic acid (RNa or DNA)
Protein capsule
Sometimes -lipid envelope

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38
Q

Virology

A

Study of viruses and viral diseases

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39
Q

Virologist

A

Someone who studies viruses

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40
Q

Zoonotic disease

A

Disease that can be transferred from animal to human

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41
Q

Why do viruses require a host cell?

A

They are non living organisms, with no cell organelles

Cannot produce their own energy or proteins

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42
Q

All viruses are __________________, requiring a host cell to replicate

A

Intracellular obligate parasites

Dormant outside of the host

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43
Q

The virus protein shell is called ___________

A

Capsid

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44
Q

The capsid is made of of many ______________________

A

Capsomeres

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45
Q

The capsid = nucleic acid together is called _______________

A

Nucelocaspid

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46
Q

Describe a viral lipid envelope

A

Covers the capsid
Lipid bilayer derived from host cell
Glycoproteins often appearing as spikes

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47
Q

What is pleomorphism?

A

Ability of some virus to alter their shape/size

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48
Q

What 4 forms of nucleic acid can viruses carry?

A

Double stranded DNA
Single stranded DNA
Double stranded RNA
Single stranded RNA

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49
Q

What 4 impacts can a virus have on host

A

Cell death
Fusion of cells
Transformation to malignant cell
No apparent change

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50
Q

How are viruses classified and what organization is responsible for virus classifications?

A

Nature of genome and its genetic diversity
Replication strategies
Morphology

International committee on viral taxonomy

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51
Q

What are the modes of transmission

A 
Direct contact 
Indirect contact 
Common vehicle 
Airborne
Vector born 
Vertical  
Zoonotic
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52
Q

Direct- contact transmission

A

Contact of infected host/reservoir species with a susceptible individual

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53
Q

Indirect-contact transmission

A

Contaminated inanimate object

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54
Q

Common vehicle transmission

A

Fecal contamination of water or food

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55
Q

Airborne transmission

A

Aerosols, sneeze, cough, usually short lived

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56
Q

Vector bone transmission

A

Arthropod carrying disease

-mosquito or tick

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57
Q

Vertical transmission

A

Mother to embryo, fetus, or newborn

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58
Q

Zoonotic transmission

A

Animal/bird to human

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59
Q

How can viruses be diagnosed/detected?

A 
Clinical signs of disease 
Histopathology 
Necropsy 
Cultivation and isolation in tissue culture 
Electron microscopy 
ELIZA
PCR /RT-PCR
Virus genome sequencing
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60
Q

What three ways can you treat a virus?

A

Antiviral drugs
Immune system stimulation
Antibody synthesis/ administration of natural antiserum

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61
Q

What is the mode of action of antiviral drugs?

A

Interfere with the ability of a virus to infiltrate a target cell or target different stages of replication/synthesis of viral components

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62
Q

What is the mode of action of immune system stimulation as a viral treatment?

A

Interferons - class of protein that has an antiviral effect and modulates immune system function

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63
Q

How can viruses be controlled or prevented?

A

Vaccination
Proper hygiene and sanitation
Eliminating arthropod vectors
Quarantine/ culling

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64
Q

What are the three types of vaccines?

A

Live-attenuated virus
Non-replicating virus
Recombinant DNA virus

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65
Q

Live -attenuated viruses

A

Naturally occurring
Serial passage in culture or host
Cold-selected mutant

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66
Q

Non replicating virus vaccines

A

Inactivated whole virions

Viral proteins

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67
Q

Recombinant DNA vaccinations

A

Subunit expression of protein in eukaryotes

Gene deletion/mutation of virus genome

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68
Q

Pathologenicity

A

Ability of virus to cause disease in host

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69
Q

Pathogenesis

A

Mechanism of development of disease

Pathogenic or non-pathogenic

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70
Q

Virulence

A

Quantitative or relative measure of the degree of pathogenicity of infecting virus

Intensity of disease

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71
Q

Avirulent

A

Not virulent (not harmful to hosT)

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72
Q

How is virulence measured?

A

Lethal dose 50 (LD50)

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73
Q

Define lethal dose 50

A

The dose of the virus required to case death in 50% of animals

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74
Q

What are the steps of viral infection?

A 
Entry of virus 
Primary replication 
Spread
Infection of target organs 
Virus-cell interaction 
Tissue and organ injury 
Shedding
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75
Q

Viremia

A

Spread of virus in blood stream

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76
Q

Disseminated infection

A

Spread beyond primary site of infection

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77
Q

Systemic infection

A

Many organs and tissues infected

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78
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary viremia

A

Primary entry from subepithelial, lymphatic, or injection into blood stream.
Secondary entry from replication in major organs and is re-entering the blood stream

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79
Q

How can viruses spread to the CNS

A

Peripheral nerves
Receptor neurons in nasal olfactory epithelium
Cross the Blood brain barrier

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80
Q

Neurotrophic virus

A

Viruses that can infect neural cells

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81
Q

Neuroinvasive cells

A

Enter CNS after peripheral nerves

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82
Q

What are neurovirulent viruses

A

Cause disease of nervous tissue, manifested by neurological symptoms

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83
Q

How can viruses cross the blood brain barrier?

A

Trafficking monocytes - virus enter monocytes, monocytes enters brain , virus leaves monocytes

84
Q

Tropsim

A

The specificity/affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue

85
Q

Pantropic virus

A

Replicate in more than one host/organ

86
Q

What are the outcomes of viral injury?

A 
Cell lysis 
Apoptosis 
Oncoviruses 
Persistent infection 
Immunosuppression
87
Q

How can viruses can disease and injury in a cell?

A 
Inhibit 
-host nucleic acid synthesis 
-host cell RNA transcription 
-host protein synthesis 
Produce 
-toxic viral proteins
Interference with cellular membrane function
88
Q

How can viruses cause persistent infection in the host?

A

Can be latent or dormant in host cell for long periods avoid immune system
Chronic stimulation of immune system -> immunopathy

89
Q

How can viruses cause immunosupression?

A

Destroy immune system cells

Make body susceptible to other infections

90
Q

Describe viral shedding in an acute infection

A

Intense shedding of virus over a short period of time

91
Q

Describe viral shedding in a persistent infection

A

Shed at lower titers over months to years

92
Q

Infectious disease prevention

A

Inhibiting the introduction or establishment of a disease into an area, herd, or individual

93
Q

Disease eradication

A

Complete elimination of pathogen or disease agent from a geographic area

94
Q

What is primary disease prevention?

A

Maintaining health of a population

Avoid occurrence-> eliminate pathogen/ eliminate increasing resistance

95
Q

What is secondary disease prevention?

A

Halt the progress of disease at its early strange and prevents complications

  • early diagnosis, prompt treatment, control and quarantine
  • intervention at individual level and preventing disease spread
96
Q

What is tertiary disease prevention ?

A

Rehabilitation and elimination of a long -term impairment (established parasite)

97
Q

How can you prevent and control disease within a farm

A

Purchasing policy-closed herd
Dirty and clean road
Vehicles leaving farm- clean and log book
People and workers- cleanliness and few visitors as possible
Fodder and water- clean, no animal byproducts
Equipment - clean and dedicated tools
Housing and Management - density, all in all out,
Vermin and bird control
Animal health - individual health (quarantine and testing of unhealthy)
Disposal of carcasses- burying, compost, and incineration

98
Q

What is the best method of disposal of dead animals when an infectious disease is suspected

A

Incineration/ burning

99
Q

What should you consider when burying carcasses of animals?

A

Away from farm
Depth - not able to be uncovered by other animals/scavenging
Water- not going to infect water lines or sources

(Same concerns in composting)

100
Q

Decontamination

A

Process or treatment that makes an item safe to handle

101
Q

Sterilization

A

Process or treatment that eliminates all forms of microbial life, pathogens

102
Q

Disinfection

A

Eliminates all or many pathogenic microorganisms except bacterial spores, inanimate object

103
Q

Antisepsis

A

Application of liquid antimicrobial chemical to skin or living tissue to inhibit or destroy microorganisms

104
Q

Incubation period

A

Microbe is replicating but the host is not symptomatic yet

105
Q

Infectious disease

A

Disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of a living agent in/on a host

106
Q

Infestation

A

Invasion, but not multiplication in/on a host (eg fleas, ticks, sometimes parasites)

107
Q

Contagious

A

Disease transmissible form one human/animal to another iva direct or airborne routes

108
Q

Communicable disease

A

Disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, airborne, or indirect routes from an infected person, animal, plant, or a contaminated inanimate reservoir

109
Q

Reservoir

A

Habitat in which an infectious disease agent lives, grows, and multiplies
Maintains a pathogen over a long period of time

110
Q

What are the three characteristics of a reservoir

A

Naturally infected
Maintain pathogen over time
Transmit pathogen to a susceptible host

111
Q

How can pathogens survive in a reservoir for a long periods of time

A

Mutate to escape immunity
Immune evasion
Chronic infection with minimal symptoms (balanced pathogenicity)

112
Q

Incubatory carriers

A

Animal that is able to transmit disease before symptoms appear

113
Q

Convalescent carriers

A

Host that is clinically recovered but can still spread disease

114
Q

Latent carriers

A

Host that harbors infection without clinical disease

115
Q

Vertical transmission

A

From reservoir host to its offspring

  • congenital
  • perinatal
116
Q

Horizontal transmission

A

From reservoir to a new host

117
Q

Congenital transmission

A

Type of vertical transmission

Across the placenta, infect eggs

118
Q

Perinatal transmission

A

Type of vertical transmission

Partition, via colostrum

119
Q

Direct transmission

A

Reservoir to susceptible host

120
Q

Indirect transmission

A

Any sort of intermediary between reservoir and host

121
Q

Types of direct transmission

A

Direct-contact: skin-skin, mucous membranes, soil reservoir, bite/scratch
Direct propulsion (droplet spread): wet, large, and short ranging aerosols
Airborne

122
Q

What are vehicles of transmission?

A

Inanimate object that serves to communicate disease
Common vehicle- food, water, and contaminated IV drugs
Fromites- object that can be contaminated and transmit disease

123
Q

What are vectors?

A

Live organisms that transmit disease

124
Q

What are the two types of vectors?

A

Mechanical- a pathogen does not multiply or undergo any life cycle on the arthropod
Biological- pathogen undergoes changes or multiplies while on vector (required for transmission)

125
Q

What is an emerging disease

A

PREVIOUSLY UNKNOWN disease that appears in a population

KNOWN disease that appears in a new population (species/area)

126
Q

What is a re-emerging disease?

A

KNOWN disease that was previously on decline but is becoming more common

127
Q

What are the determinants of pathogen emergence?

A

Pathogen- mutation or change (new pathogens originate from old pathogens)
Reservoir- phylogenetic disease
Transmission-reservoir size, pathogen prevalence, contact frequency
Host-susceptibility

128
Q

How can a pathogen adapt/change?

A

Increase antibiotic resistance
Increased virulence
Evasion of host immunity

129
Q

What does phylogenetic distance mean for disease transmission?

A

Within species- viruses can travel easily
Closely related species (eg ruminants)- transmission more difficult
Distantly related species- transmission is difficult, but when it occurs the disease is often very different and more severe

130
Q

What factors can increase the rate of transmission?

A

Increase reservoir abundance
Increase pathogen prevalence
Increase contact between reservoir and new host

131
Q

Anthroponoses

A

Disease that is transmitted person to person

132
Q

In what scenarios are people likely to be exposed to a zoonotic disease

A 
Agriculture 
Animal product processing and manufacturing 
Forestry 
Recreation 
Clinics/ labs 
Epidemiology 
Emergency
133
Q

What are the costs of a zoonotic disease on the population

A

Cost of human health- loss of productivity/ loss of life

Economic cost- treatment, import/export restrictions, lost trade and tourism

134
Q

What social changes can affect zoonoses

A

Change in animal ownership (domestic and exotic), status, food animal production, global trade

135
Q

Increased _______________of farm animals leads to changes can affect zoonotic diseases, due to increased reservoir size and higher contact frequency

136
Q

What is a veterinarians role in preventing zoonoses

A

Surveillance
Prevention and control - decrease animal reservoirs and owner education
Occupational safety

137
Q

Tania sodium is a ________________disease

138
Q

Giardia is a _________________ disease

139
Q

What is the reservoir and intermediate host of taenia solium

A

Primary host:human

Intermediate host: pigs

140
Q

What does Taenia solium cause in its pig host?

A

Porcine cysticercosis

141
Q

What two disease outcomes occur when a human is infected with Taenia solium

A

Human Taeniasis - GI tapeworm

Neurocysteicercosis - larvae encyst in brain

142
Q

How is taenia solium transmitted?

A

Consumption of food/water contaminated with human feces (untreated sewage

143
Q

How can taenia solium be prevented?

A

Block transmission- hygiene
Target vehicle- sewage management
Target reservoir - treatment

144
Q

What animals can be hosts to Giardia ?

A

Humans and animals

145
Q

How is giardia transmitted?

A

Mainly through contaminated water
Surface contaminated food
Consuming cysts

146
Q

How can Giardia be prevented?

A

Water treatment
Sewage treatment
Wash/peel fruits and veggies

147
Q

What are the disease outcomes of giardia

A

Trophozite form produces cysts

Chronic diarrhea

148
Q

Rabies is a _____________ disease

149
Q

What is the species name and virus type of Rabies?

A

Rhabdoviridae Lyssavirus

RNA virus

150
Q

What are the hosts of rabies

A

Basically all the mammals

151
Q

True or false: all vectors are reservoirs, but not all reservoirs are vectors

A

False

All reservoirs are vectors, but not all vectors are reservoirs

152
Q

What are the reservoirs of rabies virus ?

A

Carnivores and bats

153
Q

How is the rabies transmitted?

A

In the saliva of infected animals -> bite

154
Q

What is the progression of the rabies virus?

A

Bite- neuroinvasive -> peripheral nervous system to CNS

Dumb form and Furious form (Old Yeller)

155
Q

What is the distribution of the rabies virus?

A

Worldwide, except some islands in Pacific Oceana

156
Q

How is rabies prevented

A

Surveillance -human and animal
Reduce animal reservoir - vaccination and control of populations
Reduce human risk- post-exposure procedures, vaccinate those at risk, and education.

157
Q

What is the distribution of hantavirus ?

158
Q

What is the reservoir of hantavirus

A

Rodents (sylvatic)

159
Q

How is hantavirus transmitted?

A

Shed in saliva, urine, and feces.
Direct and indirect contact
Usually inhalation of aerosol

Secondary - bite

160
Q

What are the clinical signs of hantavirus?

A

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome “new world” disease . Chills fever, myalgia, headache

Hemorrhagic fever. “Old world” disease. Petechial hemorrhange and renal damage.

161
Q

What are the risk factors associated with human-rodent contact?

A

Human rodent contact ->Increased rodent density and living in barns/buildings

162
Q

How can hantavirus be prevented?

A

Decrease exposure to rodents

163
Q

Anthrax is a ______________disease

164
Q

Brucellosis is a _________________ disease

165
Q

What is the scientific name for anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

166
Q

How do different species come into contact with anthrax?

A

Herbivores- consume soil spores
Carnivores - eat infected herbivores
All species - inhalation of spores

167
Q

What are the manifestations of human anthrax?

A

Cutaneous
GI
Pulmonary

168
Q

What is the manifestation of anthrax in cattle??

A

Bleeding from all offices
Swelling
Sudden death

169
Q

What are the postmortem signs of anthrax in cattle?

A 
Blood not clotted
Spores in blood microscopy 
Rapid bloating 
Lack of rigor mortis 
Blood from offices
170
Q

How is brucellosis transmitted?

A

Ingestion, mucous membrane exposure, and percutaneous (through skin)

171
Q

How is brucellosis controlled?

A

Eliminate animal reservoir
Swine monitored
Reduce public exposure -> pasteurization of milk

172
Q

What are the two most common strains of brucellosis

A

Brucellosis melitensis

Brucellosis abortus

173
Q

Why is brucellosis hard to diagnose?

A

Symptoms of undulating fever
Abortions if pregnant
Pleiomorphic symptoms

174
Q

Name two vector borne diseases

A

Borreliosis and west nile virus

175
Q

What is the vector for borreliosis

A

Ticks
Hard tick (Ixodes)- lyme disease
Soft tick- relapsing fever

176
Q

What is the reservoir for Lyme disease

A

Rodents and some lizards

177
Q

How can Borrelia be prevented?

A

Decrease contact
Repellants
Tick removal

178
Q

What is the vector and reservoir of west nile virus

A

Mosquito-bird-mosquito

179
Q

Humans and horses are ___________________ hosts of west nile virus.

A

Dead end hosts

180
Q

What is the primary and secondary transmission of west nile virus?

A

Primary- mosquito bite

Secondary- bloodborne, lab exposure, and breast milk

181
Q

What are the main broad categories of preventative care strategies?

A 
Reservoir neutralization 
Reducing contact potential. (interruption of transmission)
Protection of portal of entry 
Increasing host resistance 
Immune treatment
182
Q

What are the three methods of reservoir neutralization?

A

Removing infected individuals
Mass therapy
Environmental manipulation

183
Q

What is mass therapy?

A

Method of reservoir neutralization
Treat all potentially infected animals without first testing

Control
Risk-development of resistant strains and side effects of therapy

184
Q

How can environmental manipulation prevent disease?

A

Method of reservoir neutralization to break transmission between hosts

Decrease vehicles and vectors

185
Q

What are the three methods of vector control?

A

Source Reduction
Biological Control
Chemical control

186
Q

Explain biological control of vector populations

A

Use of natural enemies to manage mosquito populations such as predatory fish that feed on mosquito larvae

187
Q

Explain chemical control against vector populations

A

Larvicides: Insecticides that specifically targets the larval life stage of mosquitoes
Adulticide: Insecticides against adult mosquitoes

188
Q

What are common methods to reduce contact potential in preventative care strategies

A

Isolation
Quarantine
Population control programs

189
Q

What is the difference between isolation and quarantine ?

A

Isolation: applies to animals that are KNOWN to be ill with a contagious disease

Quarantine: Applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease, but not confirmed to have the disease. (For the longest incubation period of that disease)

190
Q

How can portals of entry be protected from disease?

A

Clothing
Repellant
Nets on doors/windows
Mosquito nets

191
Q

How can host resistance be increased to prevent disease?

A

Chomoprophylaxis

Immunization

192
Q

What is chemoprophylaxis?

A

Use of antimicrobial drugs

  • attempts to prevent infection, or reduce severity of disease
  • only is useful as long as the drug is in the system
193
Q

What are the 4W’s of immunization?

A

Where: where is the disease prevalent
When: in season
Who: those at risk
Why: justifiable, the loss caused by disease must be greater than cost of immunization

194
Q

What are the features of a safe vaccine

A 
Safe to use 
Effective against diverse strains of same pathogen 
Few side effects
Long lasting 
Low cost 
Stable and long shelf life 
Easy to administer 
Inexpensive 
Benefits outweighs the cost
195
Q

What is herd immunity

A

Form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant/large portion of a population provides a measure of protection for the small number of individuals who have not developed immunity

196
Q

Infected premises

A

Where a positive case is (clinical or lab confirmation )

197
Q

Infected zone

A

Contains infected premises

198
Q

Contact premises

A

With susceptible animals that may have been exposed to animals or products, fromite, or people

199
Q

Zone infected+buffer

A

Contact premises

200
Q

Infected zone

A

Immediately surrounds infected premises

201
Q

Buffer zone

A

Zone immediate surrounds infected zone

202
Q

Control area

A

Infected + buffer zone

203
Q

Surveillance zone

A

Outside and along boarder of control area

204
Q

Free area

A

Area not included in any control area

205
Q

Vaccination zones

A

Emergency vaccination zone - containment vaccination (in control area)

Protection vaccination zone - outside a control area (may also be a secondary zone designation)

RUSVM Principles Of Infectious Disease (3 decks)

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