final Flashcards

1
Q

define weather

A

current state of the atmosphere

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2
Q

define climate

A

collective state of the atmosphere over a long period of time (30 years)

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3
Q

define meteorology

A

study of the Earth’s atmosphere

Ever changing; not a perfect science

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4
Q

define atmosphere

A

the gases that surround earth and the other planets

**10-15 mile zone contains all weather

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5
Q

what are the elements of weather?

A
  1. air temperature
  2. humidity
  3. clouds
  4. precipitation
  5. wind direction
  6. wind speed
  7. visibility
  8. air pressure
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6
Q

define air temperature

A

how hot or cold the air is, molecular motion

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7
Q

define humidity

A

Moisture in the air, invisible ; refers to any one of a number of different ways of specifying the amount of water vapor in the air

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8
Q

define clouds

A

The visible part of the moisture; 10 types, only 2 of the 10 produce precipitation

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9
Q

define wind speed

A

Speed of the molecules in the air

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10
Q

define visibility

A

How far we can see; restricted by fog, pollution, etc.

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11
Q

define air pressure

A

Pressure of the atmosphere; We (at this age) cannot see it or feel it; Pressure falls as the storm approaches; Older people feel it more…also you can feel it more if you are injured

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12
Q

pressure __________ (rises/falls) as a storm approaches

A

falls

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13
Q

what is a surface map

A

what the weather is like AT THE GROUND; fronts are only shown on these

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14
Q

what are the 2 types of weather maps?

A
  1. surface map

2. upper air map

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15
Q

on a surface station model…

the circle represents

A

clouds; the more filled in the circle is, the more cloud coverage there is

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16
Q

on a surface station model…

the flag represents

A

wind speed

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17
Q

on a surface station model…

the bar represents

A

wind direction

**same for upper air station model

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18
Q

on a surface station model…

the full / half flags represent

A

full flag : 10 knots
half flag : 5 knots

  • *pendant is 50 knots
  • *same for upper air station model
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19
Q

on a surface station model…

the upper number on the left side represents

A

air temperature (in degrees Fahrenheit)

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20
Q

on a surface station model…

the lower number on the left side represents

A

dew point (in degrees Fahrenheit)

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21
Q

on a surface station model…

the upper number on the right side represents

A

air pressure (millibars)

**add a decimal to the tenths place and add either a 9 or 10 in front (whichever brings the # closer to 1000)

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22
Q

on a surface station model…

the lower number on the right side represents

A

change in air pressure (millibars)

**put a decimal point at the front

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23
Q

on an upper air station model…

the upper number on the left side represents…

A

temperature (in degrees Celsius)

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24
Q

on an upper air station model…

the lower number on the left side represents…

A

dew point depression (in degrees Celsius)

**how much the dew point temperature is away from the actual temperature

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25
Q

on an upper air station model…

the circle is…

A

shaded if the dew point depression is 5 or less

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26
Q

on an upper air station model…

the top right number represents…

A

the height of where the measurements are taken (in meters)

**add a zero to the number given

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27
Q

define isolines

A

lines of equal or constant values of a given property with respect to place and time

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28
Q

isobar

A

lines of equal atmospheric pressure

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29
Q

isotherm

A

lines of equal air temperature

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30
Q

isohyet

A

lines of equal rain fall amounts

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31
Q

isallobar

A

measures equal pressure change over time

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32
Q

isodrosotherm

A

lines of equal dew point temperature

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33
Q

isotach

A

lines of equal wind speed

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34
Q

Stanley Gedzelman’s (CCNY) Seven Causes of Weather

A
  1. Sun’s heating varies over Earth and with Seasons
  2. Difference in air temperatures over Earth causes winds
  3. Rotation of Earth destroys wind patterns … twisting the wind, produces spirals … high / low pressure
  4. Since less moisture can coexist in colder air, precipitation is generally caused by cooling the air
    * ** Pressure in the atmosphere ALWAYS decreases with height ***
  5. The process of decreasing air pressure … temperatures drop
  6. The process of increasing air pressure … temperature rise
  7. Clouds / precipitation are caused by rising air (lows) clear skies are caused by sinking air (highs)
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35
Q

hydrosphere

A

water part of the planet; affects the humidity

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36
Q

lithosphere

A

land part of the planet

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37
Q

biosphere

A

living part of the planet; brings moisture to the atmosphere

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38
Q

permanent gases and their percentages

A

Permanent Gases (98% volume)

Nitrogen (N) - 78.07%
Oxygen (O) - 20.95%
Argon (A) - .93%
Neon (Ne) - .001%

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39
Q

variable gases and their percentages

A

Variable Gases (2% volume) (greenhouse gases)

Water Vapor (H20) 
Methane (CH4)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Nitrous Oxide (N20)
Ozone (03)
CFC's
Aerosols / Particulates
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40
Q

outgassing

A

the atmospheric release of gas (including water vapor); contributed to the formation of the atmosphere

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41
Q

how did oxygen mostly form?

A

photosynthesis

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42
Q

troposphere

A
  • first layer of the “thermal-structured” atmosphere
  • surface to 10/15 miles up
  • deeper near the equator shallower near the poles
  • weather producing layer
  • temperature generally decreases with height; because the sun’s rays heat from the earth’s surface up
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43
Q

stratosphere

A
  • 15-30 miles up
  • temperature generally increases with height in upper 2/3 levels of this layer because the ozone is absorbing UV radiation
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44
Q

mesosphere range of distance

A

30-55 miles up

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45
Q

thermosphere

A

about 55 miles and up

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46
Q

what layers make up the thermal structure of the atmosphere? (from bottom to the top)

A

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere

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47
Q

what are the atmospheric layers by composition?

A

homosphere and heterosphere

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48
Q

what is the atmospheric layer organized by electrical properties?

A

ionosphere

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49
Q

ionosphere

A
  • 45/50 miles and higher
  • not really a layer, but electrified region
  • molecules (nitrogen) and atoms (oxygen) are readily ionized with high energy SW radiation
  • D, E, F layers (lowest to highest)
  • Daytime - all layers present
  • Nighttime - D & E largely disappear…F remains…very reflective
  • –(Aurora Borealis)
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50
Q

homosphere

A
  • surface to 55/60 miles up

- well mixed region

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51
Q

heterosphere

A
  • small number of atoms/molecules causes layering with heavier on bottom (oxygen&nitrogen) and lighter above (hydrogen&helium)
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52
Q

the earth intercepts less than ___________ of all the sun’s energy; however, solar energy represents ______% of the energy that heats the earth’s surface

A

2 billionths; 99.9%

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53
Q

Vernal Equinox date (in northern hemisphere)

A

march 21

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54
Q

Summer Solstice date (in northern hemisphere)

A

june 21

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55
Q

Autumnal Equinox date (in northern hemisphere)

A

september 21

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56
Q

Winter Solstice (in northern hemisphere)

A

december 21

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57
Q

1 “atmosphere”

A

90 degrees overhead

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58
Q

2 “atmospheres”

A

30 degrees above horizon

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59
Q

11 “atmospheres”

A

5-10 degrees above horizon

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60
Q

Tropic of Cancer

A

23.5 degrees north of equator

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61
Q

Tropic of Capricorn

A

23.5 degrees south of equator

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62
Q

explain what a lag or march of temperature is?

A

when a high/low temperature occurs before predicted time (march); annually and daily

when a high/low temperature occurs after predicted time (lag); annually and daily

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63
Q

Circle of Illumination

A
  • boundary separating light part of the planet from the dark part
  • hits ATX (or anywhere) 1x/day
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64
Q

of 100% of incoming solar radiation…

how much is absorbed by the earth?

A

51%

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65
Q

of 100% of incoming solar radiation…

how much is absorbed by atmosphere and clouds?

A

19%

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66
Q

of 100% of incoming solar radiation…

how much is scattered and reflected by clouds?

A

20%

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67
Q

of 100% of incoming solar radiation…

how much is scattered from atmosphere?

A

6%

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68
Q

of 100% of incoming solar radiation…

how much is reflected from surface?

A

4%

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69
Q

transfer of heat from molecule to molecule within a substance

EX:
grabbing a metal pot handle and it being hot

A

conduction

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70
Q

vertical transfer of heat in our atmosphere

the transfer of heat by the mass movement of a fluid, such as water and air

EX:
billowing of clouds

A

convection

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71
Q

the emission of energy as electromagnetic waves or as moving subatomic particles, especially high-energy particles that cause ionization

EX:
shortwave (solar)
longwave (terrestrial)

A

radiation

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72
Q

horizontal transfer of energy

EX:
wind, cold/warm fronts

A

advection

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73
Q

Rayleigh scattering

A

shortwave (blue part of spectrum); gases cause the blue sky

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74
Q

Mie scattering

A

lower levels of the atmosphere; pollen, dust, smoke, clouds, fog

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75
Q

Albedo varies…

A

place to place / time to time
due to cloud cover / particulate matter
due to the angle of the sun
due to the nature of Earth’s atmosphere

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76
Q

define albedo

A

total fraction of total radiation that is reflected by a given surface

***higher albedo=higher reflectivity

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77
Q

higher albedo = ______ (lower/higher) reflectivity

A

higher

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78
Q

Average Planetary Albedo… (in percent)

A

30%

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79
Q

The Atmospheric “Greenhouse” Effect

A

the relatively easy transmission of shortwave (incoming /solar) radiation by the atmosphere coupled with the selective absorption of longwave (outgoing / terrestrial) radiation

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80
Q

If an object radiates more energy than it absorbs, the objects turns…..

A

cooler

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81
Q

If an object absorbs more energy than it radiates, the object turns….

A

warmer

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82
Q

what is a black body

A

a perfect absorber (all the radiation it receives is absorbed) or a perfect emitter (emits the maximum radiation possible at a given temperature)

Ex: Earth

Earth’s atmosphere is NOT a black body

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83
Q

define energy

A

the property of a system that enables it to do work (kinetic, chemical, electrical, etc.)

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84
Q

define heat

A

form of energy transferred between objects by virtue of temperature differences

Mass MATTERS

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85
Q

define heat capacity

A

ratio of heat absorbed (or released) by a system compared to the corresponding temperature rise / fall

Water has a GREATER heat capacity than land

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86
Q

water has a _______ (higher/lower) heat capacity than land

A

higher

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87
Q

define latent heat

A

the type of heat that is required for a change of state

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88
Q

Latent Heat is absorbed during….

A
  • *Cooling Process
  • evaporation
  • melting
  • sublimation

> LAMES

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89
Q

Latent Heat is released during…

A
  • *Warming Process
  • freezing
  • condensation
  • deposition

> LRCDF

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90
Q

Maximum Thermometers use what substance?

A

Mercury

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91
Q

Minimum Thermometers use what substance?

A

Alcohol

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92
Q

albedo of…

fresh snow

A

85%

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93
Q

albedo of…

thick clouds

A

70 - 80%

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94
Q

albedo of…

water (low sun angle)

A

50 - 80%

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95
Q

albedo of…

old snow

A

50 - 60%

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96
Q

albedo of…

thin clouds

A

25 - 50%

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97
Q

albedo of…

sand surface

A

20 - 30%

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98
Q

albedo of…

green grass

A

20 - 25%

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99
Q

albedo of…

dry earth

A

15 - 25%

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100
Q

albedo of…

wet earth

A

10%

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101
Q

albedo of…

forested areas

A

5 - 10%

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102
Q

albedo of…

water (sun overhead)

A

3 - 5%

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103
Q

Earth’s RET temperature vs. actual observed surface temperature

A

Earth’s RET = 0 degree F / -18 degree C
AOST = 59 degrees F / 15 degrees C

**Without gases (CO2 & H2O) the atmosphere would be like the Earth’s RET; BUT…Earth’s atmosphere
is NOT a black body and selectively absorbs & emits radiation

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104
Q

RET stands for…

A

radiated equilibrium temperature

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105
Q

latent heat of evaporation

A

Heat is “hidden away” in resulting water vapor when water evaporates

Evaporation is a COOLING process

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106
Q

latent heat of condensation

A

Sensible heat is released with the rising air parcels

Condensation is a WARMING process

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107
Q

what is significant about 30 - 50 latitude?

A
  • Location at which most heat transfer occurs

- Areas of Stormy weatherf

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108
Q

at 36 degrees latitude or below, _______ (more/less) shortwave radiation is received than lost

A

more

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109
Q

above 36 degrees latitude, _______ (more/less) shortwave radiation is lost than received

A

more

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110
Q

what are the three main temperature scales

A

fahrenheit, celsius, kelvin

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111
Q

who developed the Fahrenheit scale and in what year

A

Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit ; 1714

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112
Q

based on mercury-in-glass thermometer based upon a “zero point” ; only in US

A

Fahrenheit Scale

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113
Q

what are the three significant temperatures on the Fahrenheit scale

A

98.6 - human body temperature
212 - water’s boiling/steam point
32 - freezing/”zero” point

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114
Q

who developed the Celsius scale and in what year

A

Anders Celsius ; 1742

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115
Q

devised using the decimal scale and a “zero” point; used widely worldwide (except US)

A

Celsius Scale

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116
Q

a degree of celsius is ________ (smaller/larger) than a degree of Fahrenheit by a factor of _____

A

larger ; 1.8

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117
Q

what are the three significant temperatures on the Celsius scale

A

37 - human body temperature
100 - water’s boiling/steam point
0 - freezing point

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118
Q

who developed the Kelvin scale and in what year

A

Lord Kelvin (William Thompson) ; 1848

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119
Q

used in scientific formulas/applications ; no negatives on this scale ; the “zero” point is the cessation of molecular motion

A

Kelvin Scale

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120
Q

what are the significant temperatures on the Kelvin scale

A

273 - freezing point of water

373 - water’s boiling/steam point

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121
Q

temperature scale conversion: Fahrenheit to Celsius

A

(F - 32) / 1.8 = C

EX: 50 F = 10 C
(50 F - 32) / 1.8 = 18 / 1.8 = 10C

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122
Q

temperature scale conversion: Celsius to Fahrenheit

A

C x 1.8 + 32 = F

EX: 30 C = 86 F
(30 C x 1.8) + 32 = 86 F

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123
Q

what are heating/cooling degree days

A

units of measure ; developed in the early 20th century ; a method of evaluating energy demand and consumption

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124
Q

what is the daily mean temperature that marks/determines when to be heating or cooling

A

65 F / 18.3 C

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125
Q

if the average temperature is >65…

A

CDD

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126
Q

if the average temperature is

A

HDD

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127
Q

the degree difference between the average temperature and 65 F tells you…

A

the number of HDD or CDD

EX: high temp is 90 F , low temp is 60 F ; therefore the average temp is 75 F ; this is 10 F > 65 F ; therefore, it would be a 10 CDD observed for the day

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128
Q

CDD season

A

Jan - Dec

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129
Q

HDD season

A

July 1 - June 30

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130
Q

what are the 2 factors of the heat stress index

A

temperature and humidity

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131
Q

85% of body heat loss is from…

A

top of head to neck/shoulders

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132
Q

what are the 2 main factors of the wind chill index

A

air temperature and wind speed

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133
Q

what is the most important compound in the atmosphere

A

water vapor

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134
Q

the amount of water vapor (gas) in the atmosphere is _____ (higher/lower) in the polar regions and _____ (higher/lower) near the equator/tropical regions

A

lower (near 0%) ; higher (near 4%)

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135
Q

water vapor is very important when considering…

A

atmospheric stability

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136
Q

(AKA-water vapor density) ; the weight/mass of the water vapor per volume of air parcel

A

absolute humidity

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137
Q

comparing the weight/mass of the water vapor per volume of air parcel with the total weight/mass of the air in the parcel including the water vapor

A

specific humidity

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138
Q

comparing the weight/mass of the water vapor per volume of air parcel with the weight/mass of the remaining dry air

A

mixing ratio

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139
Q

ratio of the air’s actual water vapor content compared with the amount of water vapor required for saturation at a given temp

A

relative humidity

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140
Q

relative humidity can be influenced, or changed, by…

A
  • adding/subtracting moisture to air

- changing given air temp

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141
Q

relative humidity has _______ relationship to temperature

A

inverse ; so if temperature is getting higher throughout the day, RH is getting low

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142
Q

the temperature to which a parcel of air would need to be cooled to (assuming no change in air pressure or moisture content) in order for the given parcel of air to reach saturation

A

dew point temperature

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143
Q

dew point temperature is always __________ air temperature

A

less than or equal to

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144
Q

when dew point temp = air temp…

A

air is saturated (relative humidity = 100%)

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145
Q

relative humidity is lowest when…

A

there is a greater difference between dew point temp and air temp

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146
Q

relative humidity is highest when…

A

there is a smaller difference between dew point temp and air temp

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147
Q

a lower dew point temperature means…

A

less moisture in air (cold air can hold less water)

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148
Q

a higher dew point temperature means…

A

more moisture in air

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149
Q

dew cell

A

directly measures the air’s actual water vapor pressure (used in ASOS/AWOS sensor systems)

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150
Q

atmospheric stability refers to…

A

a state of equilibrium of the atmosphere

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151
Q

in order to determine atmospheric stability, we look at…

A

the temperature of a parcel of air as it rise and/or sinks in the atmosphere and compare that temperature to the temperature of surrounding air

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152
Q

when you force a parcel of air to rise…

A

it expands and cools

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153
Q

when you force a parcel of air to sink

A

it compresses and warms

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154
Q

when a given parcel of air expands/cools or compresses/warms with NO interchange of heat with its outside environment

A

adiabatic process

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155
Q

in unsaturated air, air cools/heats at a rate of…

A

5.5 F / 1000 Ft

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156
Q

in saturated air, air cools/heats at a rate of…

A

3.3 F / 1000 Ft

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157
Q

when the ELR is greater than the DALR, the atmosphere is said to be

A

absolutely unstable

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158
Q

when the ELR is greater than the MALR, but less than the DALR, the atmosphere is said to be

A

conditionally unstable

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159
Q

when the ELR is less than the MALR, the atmosphere is said to be

A

absolutely stable

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160
Q

stability is enhanced by…

A
  1. radiational cooling of the earth’s surface after sunset
  2. cooling of air mass from below as it moves over a colder surface
  3. subsidence of an air column
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161
Q

instability is enhanced by…

A
  1. intense solar heating
  2. heating of air mass from below as moves over a warmer surface
  3. forceful lifting of air (orographic and frontal)
  4. upward motion with surface air convergence
  5. radiational cooling from nocturnal thunderstorm cloudtops
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162
Q

parcels rise in _____ (warmer/colder) air

A

Environmental Lapse Rate ; rate at which air cools with height

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163
Q

water that has condensed onto objects near the ground when the temperature of those objects has cooled below the dew point temperature of the surrounding air ; not a form of precipitation, but still an important source of moisture

A

dew

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164
Q

what happens when the air temperature falls below freezing after dew has formed?

A

frozen dew ; NOT CALLED FROST (frost is produced by deposition - meaning it does not pass through a liquid state)

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165
Q

a covering of ice crystals produced by deposition on exposed surfaces when the air temperature falls below the freezing point and the temperature of the exposed objects falls below the surrounding air’s dew point temperature

A

frost

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166
Q

what kills more people annually than any other weather-related factors

A

heat

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167
Q

what are the four phases of the hydrologic cycle

A

evaporation, condensation, transpiration, infiltration

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168
Q

hydrolic cycle:

water going through the roots and out through the leaves of the plants

A

transpiration

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169
Q

hydrolic cycle:

soaking into the soil ; aquifer?

A

infiltration

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170
Q

if air temperature and dew point temperature are one degree apart, what is the RH

A

96%

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171
Q

there is a _______ (direct/indirect) relationship between dew point temp and moisture in air

A

direct ; more moisture in air at higher dew points, and less moisture in air at lower dew points

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172
Q

sling psychrometer : dry bulb records

A

actual air temperature

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173
Q

sling psychrometer : wet bulb records

A

NOT dew point temperature ; after wetting the shoestring and slinging it, the evaporative cooling yields a wet bulb temperature

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174
Q

through this we can determine RH & Dew Point Temp using dry and wet bulb temps and psychometric tables

A

sling psychrometer

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175
Q

electronic hygrometer

A

electrical conductors coated with moisture absorbing chemical (usually carbon); Passage of current varies as Relative Humidity varies; used in Radiosondes / Rawinsondes

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176
Q

infrared hygrometer

A

measures the amount of infrared energy absorbed by water vapor in a given sample of air; used in weather satellites (water vapor imagery)

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177
Q

hair hygrometer

A

based on a hair strand lengthening with higher RH; hair strands attached to an index dial

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178
Q

most clouds form as air _____, _______, & _______

A

rises, expands, and cools

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179
Q

a cloud with its base at the earth’s surface

A

fog

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180
Q

most common type of fog we see in south central texas ; radiates heat away then cool to dew point temp ; fog forms because air becomes saturated ; little to no wind

A

radiation fog

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181
Q

most common type of fog along west coast ; horizontal wind/movement ; can occur with little wind ;

A

advection fog

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182
Q

latin root : stratus means…

A

“layer”

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183
Q

latin root : nimbus means…

A

“violent rain”

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184
Q

latin root : cumulus means…

A

“heap”

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185
Q

latin root : cirrus means…

A

“curl of hair”

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186
Q

if a parcel is colder than the air temp, what will happen

A

it will sink to get warmer/compress

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187
Q

if a parcel is warmer than the air temp, what will happen

A

it will rise to get colder/expand

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188
Q

when the parcel expands / cools or compresses / warms with interchange of heat with the outside environment

A

diabatic process ; but we assume adiabatic process

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189
Q

thermodynamic diagram : the yellow line is the…

A

parcel line

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190
Q

thermodynamic diagram : compare the yellow line to the…

A

air temperature line (NOT the dew point temp line)

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191
Q

thermodynamic diagram : when the parcel (yellow) line is left of the air temperature line, the atmosphere is…

A

stable

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192
Q

thermodynamic diagram : when the parcel (yellow) line is right of the air temperature line, the atmosphere is…

A

unstable

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193
Q

the quicker it gets colder with height the more ______ (stable/unstable) the parcel is

A

unstable

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194
Q

the slower it gets colder with height or if there are temperature inversions the more _____ (stable/unstable) the parcel is

A

stable

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195
Q

cloud formation process:

A
  1. surface heating and free convection
  2. topographic lift
  3. widespread lifting (ascent) due to surface convergence
  4. uplift along weather fronts (tornado capital causer)
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196
Q

Adding more moisture to the air than it can hold (you can see your breath when it is cold)

A

evaporation/mixing fog

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197
Q

Fog that forms when air is forced to move up slowly ; associated with topographic lift

A

upslope fog

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198
Q

cloud classification schemes : who made the first classification and in what year

A

Lamarck , 1802

199
Q

cloud classification schemes : who made the second modification to the classification and in what year

A

Howard , 1803

200
Q

cloud classification schemes : who made the last expansion to the classification and in what year

A

Abercromby & Hildebransson , 1887

201
Q

cloud coverage is measure in what

A

octas

202
Q

cloud coverage : 0/8

A

clear sky (CLR/SKC)

203
Q

cloud coverage : 1/8 - 2/8

A

few clouds (FEW)

204
Q

cloud coverage : 3/8 - 4/8

A

scattered (SCT)

205
Q

cloud coverage : 5/8 - 7/8

A

broken (BKN)

206
Q

cloud coverage : 8/8

A

overcast (OVC)

207
Q

precipitation types

A

rain, freezing rain, drizzle, freezing drizzle, sleet, hail, snow

208
Q

geostationary satellites

A

22,500 miles above ground ; images of same geographic area continuously

209
Q

polar orbiting satellites

A

532 miles above ground ; closely parallel the earth’s meridian lines ; they pass over the north and south polar regions with each pass

210
Q

precipitation formation process : collision - coalescence process

A

warmer temperature process

211
Q

precipitation formation process : bergeron process

A

colder temperature process

212
Q

what is the water equivalent of snowfall

A

1” liquid rainfall = 10” snow

213
Q

water equivalent of wet snowfall

A

1” liquid rainfall = 5” snow

214
Q

water equivalent of dry powdery snow

A

1” liquid rainfall = 15” snow

215
Q

what are the three types of precipitation measurement

A

standard rain gauge ; tipping bucket rain gauge ; weighing type rain gauge

216
Q

what are things to remember when measuring snowfall

A
  • avoid areas with drifting/blowing snow
  • away from trees/buildings
  • measure in 3 places with a ruler and average
217
Q

CLOUD ID: wispy streamers ; lower/shallower near poles ; “mares tales” ; fair weather

A

cirrus

218
Q

precipitation that does not reach the ground

A

virga

219
Q

what are the high clouds

A

cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus (all at or above 20,000 feet)

220
Q

CLOUD ID: occasional precipitation that doesn’t hit the ground (virga); always white ; scales of fish ; small puffs

A

cirrocumulus

221
Q

CLOUD ID: “halo” -usually transparent to sunlight; shadows are cast ; thin sheet like layer

A

cirrostratus

222
Q

what are the middle clouds

A

altocumulus ; altostratus (6,500 - 20,000 ft)

223
Q

CLOUD ID: gray base-distinguishable ; “rising castles” ; common on mornings of severe weather days ;

A

altocumulus

224
Q

CLOUD ID: gray-blue/gray (NEVER white) ; no shadows cast ;

A

altostratus

225
Q

what are the low clouds

A

stratus ; stratocumulus ; nimbostratus

226
Q

CLOUD ID: uniform grey stratified layer ; light drizzle or light snow possible ; very uniform cloud bases

A

stratus

227
Q

CLOUD ID: lumpy cloud layer ; blue sky visible between cloud elelments

A

stratocumulus

228
Q

CLOUD ID: dark grey wet-looking cloud ; light to moderate rain (never heavy precipitation) ; bases are normally impossible to identify ; no sun or moon visible through cloud mass

A

nimbostratus

229
Q

what are the clouds of vertical extent

A

cumulus ; cumulonimbus

230
Q

CLOUD ID: only out when the sun is ; when they have a flat base, air has reached dew point temp ; dense and well defined ; cotton puffs

A

cumulus

231
Q

more cloud towering means…

A

more instability

232
Q

CLOUD ID: large, towering, precipitating ; thunder, lightning and rain ; severe storms

A

cumulonimbus

233
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: lenticularis

A

lens like

234
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: fractus

A

broken or fractured

235
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: humilis

A

of small size

236
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: congestus

A

to pile up/become congested

237
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: undulatus

A

having waves

238
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: translucidus

A

to shine through

239
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: mammatus

A

bag/pouch like ; mammary (extreme turbulence)

240
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: pileus

A

cap

241
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: castellanus

A

small castles

242
Q

CLOUD SUBTYPES: contrails

A

condensation trails (behind jets)

243
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: falls from low stratus clouds ; drops are less than 0.02” ; trace amounts of rainfall

A

drizzle

244
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: diameters greater than 0.02”; generally produced by nimbostratus or cumulonimbus clouds; ***intensity is based upon rate of fall

A

rain

245
Q

what does trace mean

A

not measurable, but occurs

246
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: rain that falls in liquid form but freezes upon impact; droplet size greater than 0.02”; ice storms

A

freezing rain

247
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: drizzle that falls in liquid form but freezes upon impact; droplet size less than 0.02”; difficult to see-dangerous

A

freezing drizzle

248
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: frozen raindrops (freeze in air, not upon impact) ; diameter is 0.2” or less; distinctive sound when hitting ground

A

ice pellets (sleet)

249
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: produced through deposition ; up to 0.8” in diameter ; intensity is always based upon visibility

A

snow

250
Q

FORMS OF PRECIPITATION: always produced by cumulonimbus clouds ; large liquid water contents, large cloud droplet size, and great vertical height are favorable in creating this form of precipitation ; diameter of 1” (size of quarter) or greater is one criteria that classifies a thunderstorm as being “severe”

A

hail

251
Q

the weight of air above a given surface

A

air pressure

252
Q

as you climb in elevation, there are fewer air molecules above you, therefore , air pressure always ______ with height

A

decreses

253
Q

two identical columns of air (fixed width):

if we move air into the column with no temperature change…

A

surface pressure would increase

254
Q

two identical columns of air (fixed width):

if we move air out of the column with no temperature change…

A

surface pressure would decrease

255
Q

two identical columns of air (fixed width with same air pressure):

if we warm one column…

A

the molecules move faster and spread farther apart, the air becomes less dense and the column expands in height

256
Q

two identical columns of air (fixed width with same air pressure):

if we cool one column…

A

the molecules move more slowly and crowd closer together, the air becomes more dense and the column shrinks in height

257
Q

it takes a ____ (shorter/taller) column of cold, dense air to exert (less, more, same) surface pressure as taller column of warm, less dense air

A

shorter, same

258
Q

atmospheric pressure decreases more rapidly with elevation in a ______ (warm/cold) column of air

A

cold

259
Q

true/false: high pressure is always cold

A

false ; high pressure is not always hot or cold, it depends on where it is in the atmosphere

260
Q

atmospheric pressure decreases more slowly with elevation in a _____ (warm/cold) column of air

A

warm

261
Q

warmer air aloft is normally associated with ________ (higher/lower) atmospheric pressure aloft

A

higher (resulting in a more stable atmosphere)

262
Q

colder air aloft is normally associated with _________ (higher/lower) atmospheric pressure aloft

A

lower (resulting in a more unstable atmosphere)

263
Q

unequal heating of the Earth’s surface causes…

A

the wind to blow (lack of equilibrium)

264
Q

how do we measure air pressure

A

barometers (mercurial vs. aneroid)

265
Q

corrections must be made for what factors when measuring air pressure

A
  1. temperature
  2. instrument
  3. gravity
  4. sea level
266
Q

atmospheric pressure decreases, on average, ____ inch of ______ for each ______ foot rise in altitude

A

one ; mercury ; 1000

267
Q

what is the standard surface atmospheric pressure

A
  1. 2 mb (milibars)
  2. 7 lbs/inch
  3. 92 “ mercury
268
Q

high pressure is also referred to as…

A

“anticyclone”

269
Q

(rising/sinking) air is more stable ; is this more associated with high or low pressure?

A

sinking ; high pressure

270
Q

a “mountain” of air above a given location

A

high pressure

271
Q

a “valley” of air above a given location

A

low pressure

272
Q

low pressure is also referred to as…

A

“cyclone”

273
Q

(rising/sinking) air is more unstable ; is this more associated with high or low pressure?

A

rising ; low pressure

274
Q

storminess is generally brought by (high/low) pressure

A

low pressure (rising air)

275
Q

low pressure:

warm core lows

A

tropical ; tropical cyclones

276
Q

low pressure:

cold core lows

A

extratropical ; frontal lows

277
Q

planes should always take off or land (against/into) the wind

A

INTO

278
Q

high pressure in the NORTHERN HEMISPHERE always rotates (clockwise/counterclockwise)

A

clockwise

279
Q

low pressure in the NORTHERN HEMISPHERE always rotates (clockwise/counterclockwise)

A

counterclockwise

280
Q

if you see a front drawn on a map…

A

it is a surface weather map

281
Q

troughs = (low/high) pressure

A

low pressure

282
Q

ridges = (low/high) pressure

A

high pressure

283
Q

with corrections made to surface pressure readings, surface pressure charts use ______ to depicts lines of _________________________

A

isobars ; lines of equal surface pressure

284
Q

upper air charts are also called…

A

constant height charts

285
Q

“ASL”

A

“above sea level”

286
Q

upper air charts are constructed to show…

A

height variations along a constant pressure height surface

287
Q

on upper air charts, height contour lines depict…

A

pressure

288
Q

on upper air charts, higher heights =

A

higher pressure @ respective height

289
Q

on upper air charts, lower heights =

A

lower pressure @ respective height

290
Q

850 mb chart

A

4,000 ft ASL

291
Q

700 mb chart

A

9,800 ft ASL

292
Q

500 mb chart

A

18,500 ft ASL

293
Q

300 mb chart

A

30,000 ft ASL

294
Q

250 mb chart

A

34,250 ft ASL

295
Q

200 mb chart

A

38,500 ft ASL

296
Q

Newton’s 1st Law of Motion

A

an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion will remain in motion (and will travel at a constant velocity along a straight line) as long as no force is exerted on the object

297
Q

Newton’s 2nd Law of Motion

A

the force exerted on an object equals its mass times the acceleration produced

(F=ma)

298
Q

Newton’s 3rd Law of Motion

A

for every action, there’s and opposite and equal reaction

299
Q

hurricanes and tornadoes are (high/low) pressure systems

A

low pressure systems

300
Q

90% of tornadoes will turn (clockwise/counterclockwise)

A

counterclockwise (in Northern Hemisphere; because low pressure rotates counterclockwise)

301
Q

pressure gradient force

A

air will always move from higher to lower pressure

THINK : tire blowouts

302
Q

define the coriolis force

A

deflection cause by a rotating object

303
Q

in the northern hemisphere, deflection from the coriolis effect is towards the (left/right)

A

right

304
Q

coriolis force is ________ at equator and ________ near poles

A

NEGLIGIBLE at equator and STRONGER near poles

305
Q

coriolis force only affects wind __________, not wind ___________

A

direction ; NOT speed

306
Q

the amount of deflection depends on…

A
  1. rotation of the earth
  2. latitude
  3. objects’ speed
307
Q

large scale wind systems are associated with…

A

the coriolis effect

308
Q

generally hurricanes do not form within 5 degrees of __________

A

the equator

because the coriolis effect is weak at equator and strong at poles; and large wind systems are associated with CF

309
Q

define friction

A

wind blowing across Earth’s surface and against other air molecules

310
Q

friction causes _____% tilt towards (high/low) pressure

A

33% ; low pressure

311
Q

Buys-Ballot Rule

A

says if you stand with your back to the wind and turn to the left 30 degrees, on your right will always be high pressure and on your left low pressure

312
Q

geostrophic wind generally acts in absence of…

A

friction (because it is found higher up)

313
Q

define geostrophic wind

A

theoretical horizontal wind blowing in a straight path, parallel to the isobars (constant contour lines) at a constant speed

314
Q

geostrophic wind is caused by an exact balance of _______________ and ___________

A

pressure gradient force & coriolis force

315
Q

define hydrostatic balance

A

in the vertical, an exact balance between vertical pressure gradient force and gravity

316
Q

what allows the Earth’s atmosphere to remain in place

A

hydrostatic balance

REMEMBER :

outgoing pressure (geostrophic wind) is balanced by gravity, keeping us from being sucked into space! This is hydrostatic balance

317
Q

wind is characterized by…

A
  1. direction
  2. speed
  3. gustiness
318
Q

speed vs. gustiness

A

speed is always based on a two minute average

gustiness is instantaneous and a certain % above sustained wind

319
Q

veering vs. backing wind

A

veering shifts clockwise

backing shifts counterclockwise

320
Q

back wind shifts (clockwise/counterclockwise)

A

counterclockwise

321
Q

veneering wind shifts

A

clockwise

322
Q

what are wind roses/what do they do

A

graphical device to indicate frequencies of which wind direction is

**USDA and TCEQ

323
Q

who uses wind roses

A

airport runways and architects

324
Q

what is the average prevailing wind direction in ATX

A

south

325
Q

wind instrumentation examples

A
wind vane anemometer
ice free wind sensor
aerovane
wind sock
rawinsonde
doppler radar

***(located 30 feet above surface)

326
Q

what are the scales of atmospheric motion

A

microscale, mesoscale, macroscale

327
Q

scales of atmospheric motion:

microscale

A
  • small area/footprint
  • close to earth (turbulent flow)
  • not very representative
328
Q

scales of atmospheric motion:

mesoscale

A
  • size of several state (regional view)

- big advancements have been on this scale

329
Q

scales of atmospheric motion:

macroscale - synoptic

A
  • weathermap scale

- map of US

330
Q

scales of atmospheric motion:

macroscale - global

A

encompasses most

331
Q

who invented the single cell global atmospheric circulation model and in what year

A

george hadley ; 1700s

332
Q

describe the single cell global atmospheric circulation model

A

with higher pressure at the poles, sinking cold air flowed southward from the polar regions…once it got to the Equator, after warming, with lower pressure, air was lifted

**one big circulation cell ; too simple

333
Q

Hadley Cell location

A

equator 30 degrees north or south latitude

334
Q

what is the ITCZ

A

Intertropical Convergence Zone ; area around the equator (“Doldrums”)

335
Q

in general during the WINTER in the northern hemisphere…higher pressure is over (land/water) and lower pressure over (land/water)

A

higher pressure is over LAND and lower pressure is over WATER

336
Q

in general during the SUMMER in the northern hemisphere…higher pressure is over (land/water) and lower pressure over (land/water)

A

higher pressure is over WATER and lower pressure is over LAND

337
Q

the troposphere is _________ (shallower/deeper) near the equator, and (shallower/deeper) near poles

A

DEEPER at equator, SHALLOW at poles

338
Q

define jet streams

A

strong, mainly upper level, tropospheric steering wind

339
Q

polar jet streams are found best at

A

300 mb height

340
Q

subtropical jet streams are found best at

A

200 mb height

341
Q

low level jet streams are found best at

A

850 mb to 700 mb heights ; common in central US

342
Q

surface waters of oceans tend to move with the ________

A

surface wind (upwelling)

343
Q

la nina

A

colder than average equatorial pacific ocean water temps

344
Q

el nino

A

warmer than average equatorial pacific ocean water temps

345
Q

notable el nino events:

1982 - 1983

A

strong event ; $8 billion in damage

346
Q

notable el nino events:

1986 - 1987

A

weaker event ; ended drought in SE USA

347
Q

notable el nino events:

1991 - 1992

A

strong event ; severe TX flooding ; 5 year drought ended in CA

348
Q

what are monsoons

A

season wind shifts that result in heavy rain

349
Q

where are monsoons most common

A

india/southeastern asia

**baby monsoon - southwestern usa (because of summer thermal low)

350
Q

what are thermal lows

A

a low pressure circulation created by changes in air temperature

351
Q

katabatic wind

A
  • cold, downslope wind (gravity)
  • can be quite destructive
  • Greenland, Antarctica
  • referred to as a “mistral” in the Alps
352
Q

chinook wind

A
  • warm downslope wind
  • referred to as the “snoweater” wind by Native Americans
  • eastern slopes Rockies in US/Canada
353
Q

santa ana wind

A
  • warm, dry downslope wind in California
  • most common during fall months (october)
  • strong surface high pressure over the Great Salt Lake Region
354
Q

desert winds

A
  • dust devils

- haboob (N. Africa/India)

355
Q

wind shear

A

rapid change in wind direction and or wind speed in a small area

EX: tornadoes, thunderstorms, cold fronts

356
Q

eddy

A

small whirlwind of water

357
Q

air masses are characterized by

A

homogeneous physical properties

-temperature & humidity

358
Q

A or cA

A

continental arctic

359
Q

cP

A

continental polar

360
Q

mP

A

maritime polar

361
Q

mT

A

maritime tropical

362
Q

cT

A

continental tropical

363
Q

what air mass is best described by the following:

canada, not as cold as arctic, lake erie modifies temperature upward

A

continental polar (cP)

364
Q

what air mass is best described by the following:

gulf of mexico, austin, houston, new orleans, ingredient in thunderstorms

A

maritime tropical (mT)

365
Q

what air mass is best described by the following:

think arctic circle, barrow, alaska, only reached austin a couple of times

A

continental arctic (A or cA)

366
Q

c =

A

land

367
Q

m =

A

water

368
Q

T =

A

warm

369
Q

P =

A

cool

370
Q

A =

A

very cool

371
Q

what air mass is best described by the following:

northern desert in mexico, part of new mexico, and arizona; hot and dry

A

continental tropical (cT)

372
Q

dry air has a (higher/lower) molecular weight

A

higher

373
Q

fronts are found

A

in troughs of low pressure

**surface convergence and upper level divergence

374
Q

what is cyclogenesis

A

low pressure developing at the surface

375
Q

what causes cyclogenesis

A

increased surface convergence and upper level divergence (low pressure)

376
Q

what is a front

A

a boundary between air mass

377
Q

frontolysis

A

a weakened or dying front

378
Q

frontogenesis

A

the birth or growth of a new front

379
Q

overrunning

A

when less dense air mass runs up over a heavier air mass (frizzing drizzle, lots of clouds)

380
Q

cold front

A

4 - 5 mph

  • when cold air ACTIVELY advances into a region formerly occupied by warmer air
  • steeper slope
  • the most dynamic weather comes from the cold frontal lift
381
Q

a cold front is shown by the color _____ and a line of ________ pointing in the direction that ________________

A

blue ; triangles ; the front is moving

382
Q

warm front

A
  • when the surface position of a front moves such that warmer air occupies territory formerly occupied by colder air
  • more gentle slope
383
Q

a warm front is shown by the color _____ and a line of _________pointing in the way that ____________

A

red ; semicircles ; the front will move

384
Q

stationary front

A
  • when little forward movement of either air mass, usually upper level winds are parallel to the surface frontal boundary
  • causes the floods in TX
385
Q

a stationary front is shown by a line of ___________

A

ALTERNATING triangles and semicircles

386
Q

occluded front

A
  • when a cold front overtakes a warm front in the vicinity of a surface low
  • more common over northern US
387
Q

an occluded front is shown by a line of _____________

A

triangles and semicircles

all on one side of the line, unlike stationary fronts where the triangles and semicircles are alternating

388
Q

what do dry lines do

A

separate two air masses - boundary between cT (hot, dry air) and mT (warm, moist air)

389
Q

true/false: dry lines are a type of front

A

FALSE ; dry lines are not technically a front

390
Q

the molecular weight of cT air is __________(heavier/lighter) than that of the mT air…..what does this mean?

A

heavier ; when it charges east a dry line lift occurs which can cause thunderstorms

391
Q

define weather forecasting

A

predicting how the state of the atmosphere will change with time

392
Q

what resources do we use to “piece together the puzzle” of weather forecasting?

A
  • satellite
  • doppler radar
  • rawinsondes
  • aircraft data
  • lightning data
  • buoy data
  • weather charts/maps
  • numerical weather predictions/comp model
  • citizen weather observations
  • surface aviation weather observations
  • storm spotters/chasers
  • looking outside
393
Q

what air mass is best described by the following:

northern pacific/atlantic, foggy, rainy, chilly

*think Seattle

A

maritime polar (mP)

394
Q

remember that air masses ________ as they move

A

modify

**meaning they can start off as one type (ex: cT) and modify into another as it travels (ex: mT)

395
Q

severe weather and thunderstorms are associated most with which type of front

A

cold front

**need dynamic lift

396
Q

define overrunning

A

less dense air spreading over/occupying more dense air

397
Q

how does warmer air remover colder air

A

from the top…“eating” its way down

398
Q

what type of front are floods associated with

A

stationary front

399
Q

what type of front are clouds and fog associated with

A

occluded front

400
Q

to be able to forecast the weather, what must be known

A

the current weather information over a large area

401
Q

ASOS/AWOS cannot observe

A
  • hail
  • tornadoes
  • sleet
  • snow depth
402
Q

what is one of the most reflective hydrometers

A

wet hail

403
Q

humans augment what weather observations

A
  • hail
  • tornadoes
  • sleet
  • snow depth
404
Q

what is the cone of silence

A

a single sight radar ; when a storm is near or over the radar site, data is unavailable and shows up as this black hole

405
Q

what color representations on a radar are more reflective/less reflective

A

less reflective = green

more reflective = red

406
Q

ASOS/AWOS can observe

A
  • temperature
  • pressure
  • speed
407
Q

how often are rawinsondes released

A

twice a day at hundred of locations worldwide ( 6-7 am & 6-7pm CST)

408
Q

what do rawinsondes measure with ascension

A
  • temperature
  • humidity
  • atmospheric pressure
  • wind speed/direction
409
Q

what is the average flight of a rawinsonde

A

60 - 90 minutes

410
Q

how high do rawinsondes travel

A

as high as 100,00 ft (15 - 20 miles)

411
Q

what are METARS

A

coded aviation (surface) weather observations that are transmitted globally >hourly ; it is a description of the meteorological elements observed at an airport at a specific time

412
Q

what does WMO stand for

A

World Meteorological Organization

*it is a UN specialized agency

413
Q

what is the WMO responsible for

A

the international exchanges of weather data and certifying that the observation process DOES NOT vary between nation since all weather observations must be comparable

414
Q

where do people get their weather forecasts

A
  • radio
  • tv
  • internet
  • newspapers
  • AMS/NWA
415
Q

what does it take to be a part of AMS

A

AMS certified broadcast meteorologist have to pass a test ; joining the AMS/NWA is voluntary because we do not/rarely license meteorologists in the US

416
Q

who issues weather watches/advisories/warnings

A

the National Weather Service (government)

**this is the SOLE source to issue these

417
Q

which is described below: watch, advisory, or warning?

type of weather specified is imminent or is occurring and is a public inconvenience (smaller to larger geographic area)

A

advisory

418
Q

which is described below: watch, advisory, or warning?

type of weather specified is imminent or is occurring and is an immediate threat to life and/or property (generally smaller geographic area)

A

warning

419
Q

which is described below: watch, advisory, or warning?

atmospheric conditions are favorable for the type of weather specified (generally larger geographic area)

A

watch

420
Q

time span of weather watches

A

longer time span: 4 - 6 hours up to 24 - 48 hours

421
Q

time span of weather advisory

A

6 - 24 hours

422
Q

time span of weather warning

A

.5 - 1 hour

423
Q

what are the different methods of forecasting

A
  • persistence forecasting
  • steady state/trend forecasting
  • analogue method forecasting
  • ensemble forecasting
  • climatological forecasting
  • “gut” forecasting
424
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

looking at similar systems from the past

A

analogue method forecasting

425
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

looking at movement of system

A

steady state/trend forecasting

426
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

tied to numerical weather prediction; several members are run to collect data and test accuracy of model

A

ensemble forecasting

427
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

basing forecast on climate/previous trends of that location and season

A

climatological forecasting

428
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

most valuable in short term, use when pattern is stable

A

persistence forecasting

429
Q

what type of forecasting method is best described by the following:

go with and make decisions based on your experience/instinct

A

“gut” forecasting

430
Q

weather forecasting is a ___________ science

A

non-perfect

431
Q

what method of weather forecasting should be used

A

all of them! don’t just look at one, use a combination

432
Q

what does NWP stand for

A

Numerical Weather Prediction

433
Q

what is NWP

A

computer atmospheric models made through programs

434
Q

how often are NWP models run

A

1-4 times/day

435
Q

what are some problems with the NWP system

A
  • if bad data in, then bad data out
  • model make certain assumptions therefore have certain biases
  • data sparse areas of the world
  • cannot adequately interpret many of the factors that influence surface weather
  • small disturbances/errors tend to be amplified with time
436
Q

what does POP forecasting stand for

A

probability of precipitation

437
Q

true/false: POP forecasting is very misunderstood

A

true

438
Q

how do we arrive at forecast POP

A

(forecaster certainty) x (areal coverage expected)

EX: 50% x 20% = 1000 or 10% POP

**it means there’s a 10% chance that it will rain AT A GIVEN LOCATION

it does not mean that it will be raining 10% of the time or 10% of the area

439
Q

what is the short term forecast accuracy

A

80-90% (today/tonight)

440
Q

what is the medium term forecast accuracy

A

over 80% (2-3 days out)

441
Q

what is the monthly or seasonal outlook accuracy

A

much lower (30-90 days out)

442
Q

what is the longer range forecast accuracy

A

70% (4-8 days out)

443
Q

what percent of thunderstorms worldwide are classified as severe

A

less than 5%

444
Q

true/false: straight line winds can cause more damage than tornadoes

A

true ; straight line winds diverge whereas the winds of tornadoes converge

445
Q

what are the basic requirements for a thunderstorm

A
  • lift
  • instability
  • moisture
446
Q

how long to most thunderstorms last

A

about an hour

447
Q

how are thunderstorms brought to an end

A

the down draft (cold, more dense air) cuts off the updraft and the storm commits atmospheric “suicide”

448
Q

true/false: severe thunderstorms do not last as long as air mass thunderstorms

A

false ; severe thunderstorms are longer lasting because of an established/well developed wind structure (2 hours longer)

449
Q

where do most severe thunderstorms occur

A

middle latitudes along cold fronts/dry lines

**cP/mP/mT/cT boundaries

450
Q

what are the criteria for a US severe thunderstorm

A
  • presence of a tornado
  • 1 inch or larger diameter hail (@ surface)
  • convective wind gusts of 50 knots/58mph

**this is an AND/OR list; only one criteria must be met for it to be considered severe

451
Q

true/false: the presence of an initial tropospheric temperature inversion contributes to thunderstorm development

A

true

452
Q

define squall lines

A

a line of thunderstorms

453
Q

what is something you should always remember to look for in a squall line

A

always watch for the storm at the end of the line

454
Q

what determines the severity of the individual thunderstorms in a squall line

A

the density of the storms along the line

455
Q

define super cells

A

long lasting thunderstorms that develop a strong, internal wind structure and that control their atmospheric environment

456
Q

true/false: super cells are always severe

A

true

457
Q

define mesocyclones

A

a rotating updraft, usually 3 - 7 miles, within an intense cumulonimbus cloud/severe thunderstorm

458
Q

what percent of mesocyclones produce tornadoes

A

less than 20%

459
Q

what is a mesoscale convective complex/system

A

a number of individual thunderstorms that grow in size and arrange and organize into a long lasting convective complex

460
Q

where are mesoscale convective systems commonly found

A

USA plains and into Mississippi Valley

461
Q

how much larger can mesoscale convective systems be than average air mass thunderstorms

A

as much as 1000x

462
Q

what does derecho mean

A

“straight ahead” or “direct”

463
Q

what is a derecho

A

a widespread and usually fast moving convective wind storm

464
Q

how severe is the reach and damage of a derecho

A

can produce damaging wind over areas hundreds of miles long and more than 100 miles across

465
Q

true/false: thunderstorms are bad for the environment

A

false; thunderstorms are good for the environment because they help keep the Earth in electrical balance; they also serve as a great way for the atmosphere to release energy

466
Q

what are the 4 different types of thunderstorms

A
  • single cells
  • multicell clusters
  • multicell lines
  • supercells
467
Q

what are the stages of thunderstorm developement

A
  • cumulus (updrafts dominate)
  • mature (updrafts/downdrafts coexist)
  • dissipating (downdrafts dominate)
468
Q

lightning won’t develop until _____________ develop

A

downdrafts

469
Q

at any given moment, how many individual thunderstorms are in progress worldwide

A

2000

470
Q

of the 2000 individual thunderstorms in progress worldwide, what percent are severe or non-severe

A

over 95% non-severe ; less than 5% severe

471
Q

what are the differences in hail size between severe and non severe thunderstorms

A

non-severe : hail less than 1” in diameter

severe: hail equal or greater than 1”

472
Q

what are the differences in formation location between severe and non-severe thunderstorms

A

non-severe : found WITHIN mT airmass

severe : found ON boundaries of mT airmass

473
Q

hail size (and thunderstorm severity) is entirely dependent on _____________

A

thunderstorm updraft and downdraft speed

474
Q

largest hail often falls ________ (NW, NE, SW, SE) of tornadoes

A

NE

475
Q

what is the number one weather killer in the US

A

summer heat

476
Q

true/false: flash floods are one of the top weather killers in the US

A

true ; general public does not understand the power of moving water

**south central texas is considered the flash flood capital of the US

477
Q

what are straight line thunderstorm winds

A

strong downdraft winds from thunderstorms with a divergent wind pattern

**referred to in general as downbursts

478
Q

where are GOES satellites east and west located

A

GOES west is at 135 W longitude

GOES east is at 75 W longitude

479
Q

what are the three different satellite image types

A

visible, infrared, and water vapor

480
Q

what does the visible satellite image type display

A

shows what the sun light up, cannot see at night

481
Q

what does the infrared satellite image type display

A

hotter colors denote colder cloudtops, 24 hrs a day

482
Q

what does the water vapor satellite image type display

A

mid and upper level atmospheric moisture

483
Q

reflectivity vs. velocity data

A

reflectivity will show levels of precipitation

velocity will show where it’s moving

484
Q

what is clear air mode

A

when there is high certainty of no precipitation, satellites can enter this mode and not do as much work

485
Q

what is dual pol

A

horizontal and vertical measurements/waves, this crossection allows us to capture both size and shape of hydrometers

486
Q

ASOS stands for

A

automated surface observing system

487
Q

AWOS stands for

A

automated weather observing system

488
Q

an example of an airport that uses human augmentation

A

austin bergstrom

489
Q

an example of an airport that does not use human augmentation

A

camp mabry

490
Q

what are the most common lightning types

A

cloud to cloud & intracloud

491
Q

a bolt of lightning is about the diameter of…

A

a pencil

492
Q

within the lightning bolt, it is about ___ times the temperature of _______________

A

5 times the temperature of the outer surface of the sun

493
Q

what about tornadoes kills most people

A

the flying debris