Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VM 609 Therio > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What repro problem in mares results in small ovaries and absent ovulation fossa?

A

Turners syndrome (X, O)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why should mare endometrial culture be done before cytology?

A

Can introduce infection with cytology done first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What indicates contamination in a mare cytology and culture?

A

bacteria without inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What procedure is done on mares to give a prognosis for the mare to carry a foal to term?

A

endometrial biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the best time for identifying cervical defects in mares?

A

under progesterone influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the two most common bacterial causes of endometritis in mares?

A

e. coli and strep equi zooepidemicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two most common fungal causes of endometritis in mares?

A

candida albicas

aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes equine contagious metritis?

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is endometritis in mares diagnosed?

A

US and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is endometritis in mares treated?

A

antibiotics
ecbolics - contraction
uterine flsuhing
corticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two most common causes of ovarian enlargement in mares?

A

granulosa theca cell tumor

anovulatory hemorrhagic follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is granulosa theca cell tumor treated in mares?

A

surgery - colpotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the best test for granulosa theca cell tumor in mares?

A

antimullerian hormone test, also do progesterone (to rule out preg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of endometrial cysts in mares?

A

Lymphatic

Glandular - less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes infertility with endometrial cysts?

A

prevent embryo from implanting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the signalment for hemorrhagic follicles in mares?

A

older than 16 yrs
cloprostenol shot
spring and fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for hemorrhagic follicles?

A

not much known about pathogenesis, spontaneous, give prostaglandin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes pyometra in mares?

A

defective cervical drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is unique about stallions during off season in regard to their testicles?

A

decreased # of sertoli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should not be used in washing the stallions penis?

A

soap or anti-septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes coital exanthema in horses?

A

EHV type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why can’t a mare be a carrier for EVA?

A

testosterone dependent - only males can be carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can you tell if a stallion is a persistant carrier for EVA?

A

positive blood Ab –> then do viral isolation of semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is EVA prevented?

A

vaccine for colts(6-9 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common cause of scrotal enlargement?

A

fluid accumulation in vaginal cavity (b/w parietal and vaginal tunic) (hydrocele)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What systemic diseases can cause scrotal enlargement?

A

septic peritonitis
hemoperitoneum
ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What pathologies can cause damage to the scrotal wall?

A

habronema, cutaneous neoplasia, trauma, dermaitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the difference between scrotal hernia and inguinal hernia in stallions?

A

scrotal hernia is outside vaginal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the main cause of inguinal hernias in stallions?

A

breeding activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between testicular rotation and torsion?

A

rotation is less than 180 degrees, normal blood supply, no tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common testicular neoplasia in stallions?

A

seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should be done if a horse has testicular neoplasia?

A

do rectal - feel for metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What can be done to diagnose a cryptorchid in horses if not seen on US?

A

hormone testing - AMH (anti mullerian) test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What test can confirm if there was an ejaculation from a stallion?

A

alkaline phosphatase in semen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where do stallions accumulate sperm to in spermiostasis?

A

extra-current ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where can sperm be blocked in spermiostasis?

A

ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can urospermia in stallions indicate?

A

can be sporadic or neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

By what route should prostaglandin be given to mares?

A

always IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the benefits/cons of doing a stallion open castration?

A

can see if hemostasis

higher risk of eventration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How should the emasculator be held when castrating? How long should it stay on?

A

nut to nut!

1 minute for every year of age, up to 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the primary sign of internal hemorrhage in a horse castration?

A

tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What 3 horse breeds are prone to eventration because of large inguinal rings?

A

standardbreds, saddlebreds, draft breeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the most common type of a cryptorchid horse?

A

unilateral and inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which side cryptorchid in horse is most likely to be abdominal?

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the etiology of cryptorchid?

A

failure of gubernaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What test is used for geldings with retained cryptorchid?

A

AMH (should be high if have testicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the term for failure of detumescense in horses? (constant erection)

A

priapsim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the term for penis does not retract in horses?

A

paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in paraphimosis in horses?

A

tranqulizers, phenothiazines may worsen or cause paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What surgical technique is used to creat a scar to retract penis in paraphimosis?

A

boltz technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the most common neoplasia of the stallion penis?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What surgical technique is performed if a caslicks alone doesnt restore dorsal seal on mares? What is the last resort?

A

perineal body reconstruction, epesioplasty

last resort: perineal body transection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a 2nd degree laceration in a mare? How treated?

A

involves mucosa, perineal body, vestibule, and anal sphincter
tx: perineal body reconstructioon + caslicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a 3rd degree laceration in a mare? How treated?

A

rectovaginal septum lacerated

tx: reconstruct rectovaginal septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How long should you wait before repairing a perineal laceration in mare?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When should surgical repair be done on a mare with a cervical laceration?

A

during estrus or diestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How long do have from when the mares water breaks to deliver a live foal?

A

90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the most common complication in mare ceserean section?

A

hemorrhage from uterine incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How should the uterine in a mare be stitched up after c section?

A

whipstitch uterine edges
simple continuous reduces blood loss
then use utrecht to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are indications for using midline celiotomy in uterine torsions for mares?

A

concurrent intestinal lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What technique should be done on a mare uterine torsion if less than 320d pregnant?

A

flank laporatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the two main complications from ovary removal in mares?

A

hemorrhage and hypotension (reflexive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the ways that rectovaginal fistulas can be repaired in a mare?

A

make it a 3rd degree RV tear
vaginal mucosal flap
close rectal and vestibular flaps closed seperately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a good dose of motile sperm for breeding a mare for cold shipped semen? frozen semen?

A

cold 500 million

frozen - 300 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What size should the mares follicle be before doing AI?

A

30-40 mm + uterine edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How long until you do AI after you give deslorelin to mare?

A

36 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What does the embryo produce that allows it to enter uterus of mare?

A

PGE2 (relaxes uterus, maintains preg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When is the embyro fixation in the mare?

A

day 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What do the endometrial cups in the mare produce? When?

A

eCG, day 35 (luteinizes follicles to help with progesterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When does the primary CL produce progesterone in mares? secondary CLs?

A

primary - ovulation to 100d
secondary - 35 to 100d
placenta takes over after that

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What maintains pregnancy in the mare from 150d to term?

A

5alpha dihydroprogesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What do the fetal gonads produce during pregnancy?

A

Androgens -> DHEA ->estrogen for uterus

pregnenolone –>progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When should the first pregnancy diagnosis be performed on a mare?

A

14-15 d post ovulation (before fixation), check for twinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What day for preg check for mare will you see a heart beat?

A

25 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When on ultrasound is the embryo in the middle of the yolk sac?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the problem with aborting mares after 35 days?

A

has endometrial cups - will not return to heat in the season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What kind of placenta do horses have?

A

microcotyledonary, diffuse, epitheliochorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the definitions for embryonic loss and fetal loss in mares?

A

embryonic - less than 40d

fetal - greater than 40d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a sign of ruptured pre pubic tendon in pregnant mares?

A

blood in mammary gland, poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What fungus causes abortion, prolonged gestation, retained placentas in mares?

A

fescue toxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What can be done about fescue toxicosis in mares?

A

take off pasture 30d prior to foaling, give dopamine antagonist to reverse some effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When should pregnant mares be vaccinated for EHV1?

A

5, 7, and 9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What 2 viruses cause abortion in mares?

A

EHV 1 and EVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the 4 types of placentitis in mares?

A

ascending - most common
nocardioform - common in kentucky, lesions around body and base of horns
diffuse - leptospira, inflammed cord, abortion storm
multifocal - candida albicans, rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the main bacteria that causes ascending placentitis and abortion?

A

strep equi ssp zooepidemicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the clinical signs of ascending placentitis in mares?

A

premature mammary gland development, vulvular discharge

produces prostaglandings - abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is gold standard for diagnosing ascending placentitis?

A

US - placental seperation, combined thickness of uterus and placenta
false positives - amnion, fetal extremities

88
Q

How is nocardio placentitis diagnosed in mares?

A

PCR

89
Q

What abortion disease is linked with eastern tent caterpillars?

A

mare reproductive loss syndrome

90
Q

What happens to pH of mammary gland right before foaling?

A

becomes acidic, more accurate than electrolytes

91
Q

When does the feet of the equine feet get locked in the uterine horn?

A

5 months

92
Q

How long should stage 3 parturition occur in the mare?

A

less than 3 hours

93
Q

What 2 problems does a retain placenta cause in a mare?

A

metritis and laminitis

94
Q

What are the 5 different dark/terminal pig breeds?

A

berkshire, duroc, hampshire, poland china, spot

95
Q

What are the 3 white/maternal pig breeds?

A

chester white, landrace, yorkshire

96
Q

What pig breeds have erect ears?

A

breeds that end in shire and tamworth

97
Q

What age do sows go through puberty?

A

5-8 months

98
Q

What is the most common method used to induce puberty in gilts?

A

boar effect

99
Q

How long after farrowing can pigs go into fertile heat?

A

21 days (4-7 days after weaning)

100
Q

When does ovulation occur in gilts/sows?

A

2/3 way through estrus (36 hours avg)

101
Q

Why cant you short cycle a gilt?

A

CL refractory to exogenous prostaglandins until day 12 of diestrus

102
Q

What is used to induce estrus in non cycling gilts?

A

PG 600 (PMGS = FSH, HCG = LH)

103
Q

What can be used to cycle sows in US?

A

altrenogest (synthetic progesterone) in feed

104
Q

What happens if sows are underfed/underdosed with synthetic progestogens?

A

cystic ovarian dz, failure to cycle, variable farrowing rates

105
Q

When/how is there maternal recognition of pregnancy in sows?

A

day 11 via estrogenic compounds produced by embryos (reroutes prostaglandin away from blood)

106
Q

What kind of placenta do pigs have?

A

diffuse epitheliochorial, microcotyledonary (same as horses)

107
Q

How long is pig gestation?

A

114 days

108
Q

What is the number one method of pregnancy diagnosis in sows?

A

non-return to estrus in 18-24 days post breeding

109
Q

When does immunocompetence occur in pig fetus?

A

70 days

110
Q

How long do the stages of farrowing occur in pigs?

A

1 - 2-12 hrs

2: 2-4 hrs (piglets every 15 mins)
3: none given, rare retained placentas

111
Q

What are the 2 main causes of porcine dystocia?

A

uterine inertia

fetal maldisposition

112
Q

How is uterine intertia treated?

A

oxytocin every 30 mins IM

DO NOT USE IF OBSTRUCTION

113
Q

When and why do you induce partruition in sows?

A

prostaglandins 18-36 hrs before farrowing, makes sure that someone is there to watch
also fostering, same piglet size, etc

114
Q

What should be done if a sow has a uterine prolapse?

A

euthanize/slaughter

115
Q

What should be done with sows that have vaginal prolapse if near term? if not near term?

A

near term: repair, open back up when farrowing

if not near term: cull

116
Q

How can you tell if a sows vaginal discharge is metritis?

A

normal lochia 1-5 days postpartum

other CS, malodorous = metritis

117
Q

What pig disease is characterized by CV crisis w/ subsequent pulmonary edema in late gestation? How tx?

A

puffer sow syndrome

tx: calcium, corticoids, antihistamines

118
Q

If fetal death in sows occurs less than 14 days, what happens? What about 14-35 days?

A
119
Q

When does mummification ocurr in sows?

A

after 35 days (mineralization)

120
Q

What are the two most common nonifectious causes of infertility in sows?

A

hydrosalpinx (2ndary to bursitis or peritonitis –>adhesions)
2nd - cystic ovarian dz

121
Q

What disease causes SMEDI in sows?

A

porcine parvovirus

122
Q

When does porcine parvovirus cause CS?

A

until farrowing, usually in naive replacement gilts

123
Q

How is porcine parvo prevented?

A

vax, acclimization of replacement gilts

124
Q

In bovine herd health, what should be investigated and reduced immediately?

A

introduction of the dz, cross contamination and amplification

125
Q

What amount of control samples should you take when investigative a disease compared to case samples?

A

4:1

126
Q

What are the CS of trichomonas in cows?

A

takes 45d, pyometra and abortion

127
Q

How is trichomonas treated in cows?

A

dont - cull non pregnants and bulls

128
Q

What causes vibriosis in cows?

A

campy fetus subsp. venerealis

129
Q

How is campy spread between cows?

A

through AI, semen, fomites

130
Q

What are CS of vibriosis/campy in cows?

A

infertility, mild endometritis, occasional abortion (30-70d)

131
Q

How is campy controlled/prevented?

A

vaccine (different from trich)

132
Q

What is the treatment for penile hematomas in bulls?

A

hydrotherapy, abs, antiinflammatories, for months

133
Q

What disease occurs in young bulls?

A

seminal vesiculitis

134
Q

What causes testicular degeneration in bulls?

A

increase temp –>reduced spermatozoal membrane glycoprotein (CD52)

135
Q

What are primary/secondary abnormalities in a bovine breeding soundness exam for a bull?

A

primary: vesiculitis
2ndary: testicular function?/epididymal fxn

136
Q

What bull breeds have tendency to prolapse of the prepuce?

A

polled breeds

137
Q

What is the minimum normal morphology for bull semen for BSE? What is minimum motility?

A

morph: 70% normal cells
motility: greater than 30%

138
Q

What should scrotal circumference be for bulls?

A

30-34 cm

139
Q

What is the location of epidural anesthesia in cows?

A

S4-C1

140
Q

What are teh 2 places to do an episiotomy in a cow?

A

10 OR 2 o clock

141
Q

What breed of cows most commonly prolapses uterus and vagina?

A

herefords

142
Q

Which side do you do a C section on cow?

A

left side

143
Q

What closure pattern should be used for cow uterus?

A

inverting - utrecht, cushings, lembert

144
Q

What is the most common cow teat surgery indication?

A

stenosis (streak canal) TQ

145
Q

What do dogs have around their ovary that other animals dont have?

A

ovarian bursa

146
Q

What is split heat in dogs?

A

show signs of pro estrus but do not ovulate, then return to heat later. associated with first heat in dogs

147
Q

What types of dogs have longer interestrus?

A

older smaller dogs

148
Q

What is the purpose of anestrus in dogs?

A

essential for endometrial repair

149
Q

How long does anestrus last in dogs?

A

90-150 d

150
Q

How long does estrus last in dogs?

A

9 d

151
Q

What type of cytology is seen in dogs with estrus?

A

> 90% cornified, anuclear

152
Q

What kind of ovulation do dogs have?

A

2N oocyte, must undergo reduction division before fertilization

153
Q

What is different in dogs with progesterone?

A

preovulatory rise in progesterone, caused by estral luteinization of follicles

154
Q

What is vaginal cytology right at the beginning of diestrus?

A

50% cornification, PMNs return

155
Q

When is the fertile period for dogs?

A

4 to 8 d after LH surge

156
Q

What kind of placenta do dogs have?

A

endotheliochorial placentation, zonary

157
Q

When can you see on US in dogs the zonary placenta, heart beat, kidney and intestinal motility?

A

placenta 27 d
heart beat 23 d
kidney 39d
intestines 57d

158
Q

What happens with prolactin and progesterone at the time of canine paturition?

A

prolactin goes up, progesterone goes down

159
Q

What are the signs of impeding parturition in dogs?

A

drop in temp
relaxation of pelvic muscles
nesting, shivering, more friendly

160
Q

How many days from LH surge will parturition take place in dogs?

A

65d

161
Q

How long do the parturition stages take in dogs?

A

stage 1: 6-12 hrs
stage 2: 3-6 hrs
stage 3: 15 mins after each pup

162
Q

How long does lochial discharge last in dogs? how long does uterine involution take?

A

lochia: 3 weeks

uterine involution: 12-15 wks

163
Q

WHen should you intervene on a dog parturition?

A

brown or green discharge
longer than 2-4 hrs with no puppy
irregular straining
if 2nd stage lasts more than 12 hours

164
Q

Whats the most important control factor for chronic egg laying in avians?

A

decrease calories

165
Q

What drugs can be used to treat chronic egg laying in avians?

A

leuprolide acetate or deslorelin implant

166
Q

What does mutliple eggs indicate in egg binding in avians?

A

non-oviductal eggs, rupture –> need surgery

167
Q

What is the treatment for stable birds with egg binding?

A

pain relief, fluids, calcium, oxytocin or PGF2a

168
Q

What is treatment for toxic/declining birdsd with egg binding?

A

ovacentesis, abs

169
Q

What are the CS of egg related peritonitis in birds?

A

abdominal swelling, neurologic signs = yolk stroke

170
Q

What causes ovarian cysts in birds? CS?

A

chronic estrogen stimulation

CS - increased medullary bone, ascites

171
Q

How are ovarian cysts treated in birds?

A

hormones - leuprolide, deslorelin

172
Q

In what avian species is prolapse of the phallus a problem?

A

ratites and waterfowl

173
Q

What are CS of estrogen toxicosis in ferrets?

A

pancytopenia

tx with spay

174
Q

How long is gestation in rabbits?

A

28d

175
Q

What is the most common repro disorder in female rabbits? CS?

A

uterine adenocarcinoma

CS - subclinical, hematuria

176
Q

How long is estrous cycle and gestation length in guinea pigs?

A

estrous - 15 d

gestation 62 d

177
Q

What is a common ovarian disease in guinea pig sows?

A

cystic ovaries - ovariectomy

178
Q

What age must guinea pigs be bred by?

A

6 months

179
Q

Why is egg dystocia more chronic in reptiles?

A

dont have as big of eggs, not an emergency

180
Q

What is ddx for egg dystocia in reptiles?

A

follicular atresia - delayed ovulation

181
Q

What species of reptile get egg related coelemitis? CS?

A

bearded dragons
cs - bloated, depression
tx - sx

182
Q

What are the etiologic agents of canine acute mastitis?

A

e coli, staph, strep

183
Q

What is the MOA for hypocalcemia in post partum dogs?

A

increased permeability of muscles to ions - requires less stimulus –> tetanus and increased temp

184
Q

How is brucella canis diagnosed in bitches?

A

rapid card agglutination test - follow up with serology

185
Q

What is the most common leptospira serovar that causes abortion in dogs?

A

bratislava

186
Q

What 3 dog viruses cause abortion?

A

herpes, parvo, distemper

187
Q

What are the CS of brucella canis in dogs?

A

diskospondylitis, abortion from 30-57 d

188
Q

How is pregnancy terminated in dogs (3 ways)?

A

PGF2a - hospitilization
dopamine agonist (inhibits prolactin)
aglepristone (EU) (inhibits progesterone)

189
Q

When is the appropriate time to terminate a pregnancy in dogs?

A

after 30 days - confirm pregnancy

190
Q

How long does involution of placental sites take in bitches?

A

12 weeks

191
Q

What causes sub involution of placental sites in dogs?

A

trophoblast cells - invade endometrium

192
Q

What must be present to cause pyometras in dogs?

A

cystic endometrial hyperplasia

193
Q

What bacteria can cause pyometras in dogs?

A

e coli, staph aureus, strep, pseudomonas, proteus

194
Q

What 2 agents can cause primary adult vaginitis in dogs?

A

brucella canis or herpes

195
Q

What is the sequelae of chronic follicular cysts in dogs?

A

hyperestrogenism

196
Q

What are the 2 most common ovarian neoplasias in dogs?

A

adenocarcinoma, granulosa cell tumor

197
Q

What is the treatment for hypoluteoidism in pregnant dogs?

A

progesterone supplementation

198
Q

When does vaginal prolapse occur in dogs?

A

time of peak of estrogen

199
Q

What are the 3 degress of vaginal prolapse in dogs?

A

1 - not yet protruding past vulva
2 - through vulvuar lips
3 - entire vagina - doughnut shaped mass

200
Q

How are vaginal prolapses treated?

A

surgical treatment preferred

201
Q

What are the 3 fractions of semen in dogs?

A

pre seminal - cleans urethra
second fraction - sperm rich
third fraction - seminal glands

202
Q

What is used for chemical sterilization in dogs?

A

zinc arginine, zinc gluconate

203
Q

When can you diagnose cryptorchidism in dogs?

A

6 months

204
Q

What bacteria causes orchitis in dogs?

A

brucella canis

205
Q

What is the most common testicular tumor in dogs? What are the next 2 common?

A

most common - sertoli cell tumor

also seminoma and leydig

206
Q

What testicular tumor is only in scrotal testes (not in cryptorchid)??

A

interstitial/leydig cell tumor

207
Q

What ist the cause of hydroceles in dog testis?

A

secondary to compromised lymphatic drainage

208
Q

What are 2 infectious causes of scrotal dermatitis in dogs?

A

brucellosis, rocky mountain spotted fever

209
Q

What are the 3 most common types of scrotal neoplasia in dogs?

A

SCC, melanoma, mast cell tumor

210
Q

What are the 3 treatments for benign prostatic hyperplasia in dogs?

A
  1. castration
  2. finasteriede
  3. osaterone acetate (anti androgen)
211
Q

What are CS of acute bacterial prostatitis in dogs?

A

septicemia, overtly ill

212
Q

What is a sequale of chronic prostatis in dogs?

A

prostatic abscess

213
Q

What is the prognosis for prostatic neoplasia?

A

poor - grave, surgery unrewarding

214
Q

What is gynecomastia in dogs correlated with what neoplasm?

A

sertoli cell tumors

215
Q

What is the treatment for retrograde ejaculation in dogs?

A

sympathomimetic drugs

VM 609 Therio (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions