Final Flashcards

1
Q

Four reasons amniotic fluid is collected during pregnancy

A

parent with known chromosomal abnormality, elevated maternal alpha-fetoprotein, fetal distress, pulmonary maturity, sex determination, predicting HDN

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2
Q

Amniotic fluid is collected in early pregnancy most likely to determine what?

A

genetic and congenital disorders

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3
Q

What is the definition of oligohydraminos?

A

abnormally decreased amounts of amniotic fluid

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4
Q

What would be the reason for protecting amniotic fluid from light?

A

to protect light-sensitive bilirubin if present

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5
Q

When present in amniotic fluid, fetal cells are adversely affected by what?

A

refrigeration

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6
Q

What might you find when performing a physical examination of amniotic fluid?

A

normally colorless or very pale yellow; degree of particulate matter depends on stage of pregnancy

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7
Q

What are the four tests done to evaluate the surfactants present to the fetal pulmonary system?

A

lecithin sphingomyelin (L/S), FSI, microviscosity, and phosphatidylglycerol

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8
Q

Using and comparing the L/S ration and the PG determinations, what would indicate fetal lung maturity?

A

L/S ration >2.0 is fetal lung maturity

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9
Q

What does zone 1 mean on a Liley’s 3 zone chart?

A

normal

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10
Q

What is transudates?

A

non-inflammatory caused by disturbances by hydrostatic or oncotic pressure

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11
Q

Three biochemical indicators that are used to evaluate the secretory function of the prostate.

A

Zinc, citric acid, and acid phosphatase

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12
Q

What biochemical indicator can positively identify a fluid as seminal fluid and useful in ages of sexual assault?

A

acid phosphatase

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13
Q

Four reasons for a physician to order a semen analysis

A

evaluate evaluate fertility, forensic applications, semen donation, and vasectomy follow-up

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14
Q

Which structures contribute secretions to seminial fluid?

A

seminal vesicles, prostate gland, testes, and epididymis

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15
Q

What is normal concentration of a normal seminal fluid?

A

20-250 million/mL

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16
Q

Is a single person’s seminal fluid concentration constant?

A

not constant in a single individual

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17
Q

What factors influence seminal fluid concentration?

A

depends on periods of sexual abstinence, viral infections, and stress

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18
Q

Is seminal fluid concentration the most important factor when determining infertility?

A

no

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19
Q

What percentage of sperm with normal morphology is considered normal or acceptable?

A

50% or more sperm with normal morphology is acceptable

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20
Q

How is sperm morphology determined?

A

evaluated by smears of fresh semen, can be stained

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21
Q

What parameter of a semen analysis is directly related to and provides a check of the motility evaluation?

A

viability

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22
Q

How is semen motility evaluated?

A

distinguishes dead from immotile

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23
Q

What is the normal pH of seminal fluid?

A

7.2-7.8 is the normal range for pH of seminal fluid

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24
Q

What might a pH of <7.2 of seminal fluid indicate?

A

abnormality of the epididymis, vas deferent, or seminal vesicles

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25
Q

What might a pH of >7.8 of seminal fluid indicate?

A

infection in male reproductive tract

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26
Q

Testing fructose in seminal fluid reflects the secretory function of what?

A

seminal vesicles

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27
Q

Testing fructose in seminal fluid reflects the functional integrity of what?

A

the ejaculatory ducts and vas deferens

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28
Q

What is the primary function of seminal fluid?

A

transports sperm

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29
Q

What are the requirements for the collection of a specimen for semen analysis?

A

must be collected and given to lab within one hour of collection and protected from extreme temperatures

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30
Q

What is the normal length of time for semen specimens to liquefy?

A

within 30 minutes semen begins to liquefy

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31
Q

After liquefaction, the viscosity closely resembles what other fluid?

A

closely resembles water

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32
Q

What would be considered abnormal liquefaction of semen?

A

takes greater than 60 minutes to liquefy

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33
Q

Motility of seminal fluid should be evaluated within how many minutes following collection?

A

60 minutes

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34
Q

What color, clarity, viscosity, and clot formation is for normal synovial fluid?

A

Colorless or pale yellow, clear, extremely viscous, no clots

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35
Q

Is fibrinogen a normal constituent of normal synovial fluid?

A

No

36
Q

Does hyaluronate affect the turbidity of a synovial fluid specimen?

A

No

37
Q

Name some things that might cause a synovial fluid to be turbine in appearance

A

RBCs WBCs, fat droplets, synoviocytes, crystals, cellular debris

38
Q

Why should a synovial fluid be examined ASAP

A

crystals are pathognomonic and can form during storage or WBCs can phagocytize the crystals

39
Q

The synovial fluid should be placed in a tube containing which anticoagulant?

A

sodium heparin

40
Q

Why should other anticoagulants be avoided for synovial fluid?

A

other anticoagulants can form artifacts

41
Q

Name the diluent that should be used if a synovial fluid needs to be diluted for microscopic exam

A

0.85% saline

42
Q

A joint disease process is indicated by what?

A

Neutrophils >25%

43
Q

What type of microscopy differentiates synovial fluid crystals based on their birefringence?

A

a wet prep using both direct and compensated polarizing microscopy

44
Q

How is birefringence achieved of synovial fluid crystals?

A

based on the colors, blue or yellow, produced when the crystals are oriented perpendicular or parallel to the axis (yellow parallel)

45
Q

Indicators that synovial fluid should be classified as septic

A

Yellow-green color, low viscosity, WBCs high, >40 mg/dL plasma synovial glucose difference

46
Q

Which crystal is usually seen in patients with gout?

A

monosodium urate monohydrate

47
Q

Is monosodium urate crystals birefringent?

A

yes

48
Q

Are calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals birefringent?

A

yes

49
Q

Are cholesterol crystals birefringent?

A

yes

50
Q

Which analytes are present in synovial fluid at concentrations equal to blood plasma levels?

A

Glucose and uric acid

51
Q

How do you determine if a bloody CSF fluid is caused by a traumatic tap or if the patient hemorrhaged?

A

is the amount of blood the same in all the tubes?

52
Q

What is xanthochromia?

A

yellow discoloration due to RBC pigment

53
Q

does fibrinogen normally pass through the blood-brain barrier?

A

no

54
Q

What should the first tube collected during a lumbar puncture procedure be used for?

A

chemical and immunologic

55
Q

A predominance of lymphocytes within CSF indicates which type of meningitis?

A

viral meningitis

56
Q

What are the normal ranges for glucose in a normal CSF?

A

50-80 mg/dL

57
Q

What are the normal ranges for protein in a normal CSF?

A

15-45 mg/dL

58
Q

What condition would a decreased glucose and increased protein indicate?

A

meningitis

59
Q

What is the amount of glucose in CSF compared to plasma concentration?

A

60-70% or 2/3

60
Q

What is pleocytosis as it relates to CSF?

A

increase in number of cells in CSF

61
Q

Does an increased number of leukocytes within CSF cause xanthochromia?

A

no

62
Q

An uneven distribution of blood in the CSF collection tubes most likely indicates what?

A

traumatic tap

63
Q

What is the normal CSF WBC cell count for adults?

A

0-5 cells/microL

64
Q

What is the normal CSF WBC cell count for children?

A

0-10 cells/microL

65
Q

What is the normal CSF WBC cell count for newborns?

A

0-30 cells/microL

66
Q

In adult CSF cell counts, what two cell types are considered normal?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

67
Q

A predominance of neutrophils within CSF indicates which type of meningitis?

A

bacterial meningitis

68
Q

What is the normal range for lactase in CSF>

A

10-22 mg/dL

69
Q

Normal lactate levels are often found in patients with what type of meningitis?

A

viral

70
Q

Which procedure frequently provides a rapid presumptive diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

A

Gram stain

71
Q

What does pinkish to red color mean for amniotic fluid?

A

blood

72
Q

What does green color mean for amniotic fluid?

A

meconium

73
Q

What does yellow or amber color mean for amniotic fluid?

A

bilirubin

74
Q

Is L/S ration affected by meconium?

A

yes

75
Q

In regards to PG determination, what indicates fetal lung maturity?

A

PG present

76
Q

Is PG affected by meconium?

A

no

77
Q

What does zone 2 mean in reference to Liley’s 3 zone chart?

A

moderate hemolysis

78
Q

What does zone 3 mean in reference to Liley’s 3 zone chart?

A

severe hemolysis

79
Q

What is exudate?

A

inflammatory, caused by increased capillary permeability or decreased lymphatic reabsorption, usually secondary to disease

80
Q

Describe transudates

A

usually clear, no clots, few cells

81
Q

What is the specific gravity of transudates?

A

<1.015

82
Q

What is the total protein of transudates?

A

<3.0

83
Q

describe exudates

A

cloudy, can have clots, lots of cells

84
Q

What is the specific gravity of exudates

A

> 1.015

85
Q

What is the total protein of exudates?

A

> 3.0