Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

two dominant manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis

A

Proteinuria and hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

causes of acute glomerulonephritis

A

immune complex disease, hereditary, metabolic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

clinical manifestations of acute tubular necrosis

A

decreased urine flow, inability to concentrate urine, and loss of many tubular epithelial cells into urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is acute tubular necrosis associated with

A

reduced blood supply to renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

three manifestations of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, and edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

common causes of urinary obstruction

A

congenital malformation, stricture from infection, tumors, and calculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

explain pyelonephritis

A

infection of kidney and renal pelvis which initially affects renal interstitial but progresses into renal tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

two main clinical findings in urine that may indicate diabetes mellitus

A

glycosuria and ketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what would you expect to see in regards to volume and SG in diabetes mellitus

A

increased SG and increased volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is unconjugated bilirubin

A

linked loosely to albumin, insoluble in water so not found in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is conjugated bilirubin

A

unconjugated bilirubin that has been conjugated by esterification by glucuronic acid in the liver, now water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is urobilinogen

A

conjugated bilirubin that is reduced by the intestinal flora of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is PKU

A

patient lacks phenylalanine hydroxylase for the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how would PKU be detected

A

the metabolite phenylpyruvic acid appears in the urine; diagnosed by phentest which uses ferric ions: dk green to blue green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is alkaptonuria

A

patient lacks homogentistic acid oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is alkaptonuria detected

A

homogentistic acid accumulates in the blood, body fluids, and urine; gives orange color with Clinitest tablet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is maple syrup disease

A

patient lacks enzyme needed in branched-chain amino acid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how is maple syrup disease detected

A

accumulation of leucine, isoleucine, keto, and hydroxy acid in urine, blood, and CSF; maple syrup odor; gives purple color with Acetest tablet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is Fanconi’s syndrome

A

the proximal convoluted tubule function of the kidney is impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is Fanconi’s syndrome detected

A

produces a deficiency of blood phosphates, aminoaciduria, and glycosuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is cystinuria

A

urinary excretion of large amounts of the amino acid cystine, as well as arginine, lysine, and ornithine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is cystinuria detected

A

cystine calculi are produced due to the ability of cystine to readily precipitate in acid pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is galactosemia

A

patient is able to break down lactose to glucose and galactose, but lack the enzyme to convert galactose to glucose causing galactose to accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is galactosemia detected

A

detected in infancy as diarrhea, vomiting, and failure to thrive; neg on dipstick and pos on Clinitest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is hematuria
presence of abnormal number of RBCs accompanied by urinary system disease
26
causes of hematuria
glomerular disease, tubular disease, interstitial disease, vascular disease, lower UT infection, tumors, and calculi
27
urine culture container and specimen
sterile with clean catch midstream
28
overall patient health urine sample
random specimen in a clean, dry, clear disposable plastic container with lid; 50-100 mL capacity
29
Addis count specimen and container
large container for 12 hour specimen; approx 3000 mL
30
postprandial urine specimen
2-3 hours after meal
31
protein urine specimen
first morning in regular container or 24 hours
32
glomerular filtration rate or renal clearance specimen
24 hour large container
33
quantitative glucose specimen
24 hour specimen
34
chemical changes in urine at room temp
pH increases, glucose decreases, ketones decrease, bilirubin decreases, urobilinogen decreases, nitrite increases
35
physical changes in urine at room temp
color darkens, clarity decreases
36
cellular changes in urine at room temp
blood cells decrease, casts decrease, bacteria increase, trichomonads decrease
37
time limit for examination of urine held at room temp
one hour
38
what is Addis count used for
follows progress of renal disease; 12 hour period overnight
39
what should the status of pH and concentration for an Addis count
low pH and high concentration
40
what is catheterization
insertion of sterile catheterization into the bladder
41
when should catheterization be used
patients with urinary tract infections or if they are unable to pass urine due to obesity or severe illness
42
what is suprapubic aspiration
puncturing the abdominal wall and distended bladder with needle and syringe
43
when should suprapubic aspiration be used
bacterial cultures of anaerobes and in infants where contamination is unavoidable
44
three characteristics of urine routinely recorded in physical examination
color, odor, and clarity
45
what preservative gives false positive result for albumin in protein precipitation test
Thymol
46
what urine preservative for the preservation of bacteria
refrigeration
47
what urine preservative preserves cellular elements
formalin
48
which reactions are not time critical on Multistix
pH and protein
49
total time to read a Multistix
two minutes
50
ten Multistix tests
pH, protein, glucose, ketones, blood, leukocytes, specific gravity, bilirubin, nitrite, urobilinogen
51
abnormal colors for urine
red, dark brown to black, green
52
cause for red urine
RBCs and hemoglobin
53
cause for dark brown to black urine
due to melanin, associated with malignant melanoma
54
cause for green urine
Pseudomonas UTI, small intestine infection
55
what causes urine to be cloudy
crystals, epithelial cells, fat, microbes, white blood cells, radiographic contrast media
56
what causes large amounts of white foam
protein
57
what causes large amounts of yellow foam
bilirubin
58
what causes a pungent odor
UTI
59
what causes a sweet or fruity smell
increased ketones, diabetes mellitus, starvation
60
what causes a mousy odor
phenylketonura
61
what causes a maple syrup odor
maple syrup urine disease
62
what is the specific gravity range of normal urine
1.002 - 1.030
63
three substances that may cause high SG readings
glucose, protein, radioactive dye
64
what is refractive index
ratio of velocity of light in air to velocity in the solute
65
what is osmolality
expression of concentration in terms of the number of solute present (no dependent on the size of solutes)
66
what is specific gravity
ratio of density of an equal volume of pure water (dependent on the number and size of solutes)
67
two constituents of urine that contribute most to SG
NaCl and urea
68
one condition may be responsible for abnormally low SG
diabetes insipidus
69
what is oliguria
decreased urine excretion (<400 mL/day); elevated SG and decreased volume
70
cause of oliguria
dehydration, urinary tract obstruction, nephrotic syndrome
71
what is anuria
complete lack of urine excretion, potentially fatal
72
what causes anuria
major hemolytic transfusion reaction, acute renal failure, urinary tract obstruction
73
what is hyposthenuria
low SG, lack of ADH
74
what causes hyposthenuria
diabetes insipidus
75
what is polyuria
excessive excretion (>3 L/day) aka diuresis
76
what causes polyuria
diabetes mellitus
77
what is nocturia
increased urine excretion at night (>500 mL), form of polyuria
78
what causes nocturia
kidney disease, diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus
79
what is isosthenuria
fixed specific gravity around 1.010
80
what causes isosthenuria
chronic renal disorder where kidneys cannot concentrate or dilute
81
what is hypersthenuria
high specific gravity
82
what causes hypersthenuria
radiographic dye, nephrotic syndrome with proteinuria, diabetes mellitus with glycosuria, dehydration
83
what causes refrigerated urine to become cloudy
increased amorphous
84
what properties are used in the determination of urine osmolality
freezing point depression
85
average normal urine output for average adult
1200 - 1500 mL/day
86
what happens to urobilinogen
99% excreted as feces and some reabsorbed by intestinal mucosa and then travels back to liver
87
brown/amber color urine cause
bilirubin
88
pink color urine cause
blood
89
what causes rancid odor
tyrosonemia
90
what causes phenolic odor
disinfectant like lysol
91
normal urine excretion
600-1800 mL/day with <400 mL at night
92
what can cause urine to be concentrated
dehydration, low fluid intake, first morning
93
what can cause urine to be diluted
increased intake and or excretion