FINAL

Question 1

1. In a patient with a hemorrhage in the posterior cavity of the eye, the nurse knows that blood is accumulating

a. in the aqueous humor.

b. between the lens and retina.

c. between the cornea and lens.

d. in the space between the iris and lens.

Answer 1

b. between the lens and retina.

Question 2

2. Increased intraocular pressure may occur due to

a. edema of the corneal stroma.

b. dilation of the retinal arterioles.

c. blockage of the lacrimal canals and ducts.

d. increased aqueous humor production by the ciliary process.

Answer 2

d. increased aqueous humor production by the ciliary process.

Question 3

3. Ask patients using eyedrops to treat their glaucoma about

a. use of corrective lenses.

b. their usual sleep pattern.

c. a history of heart or lung disease.

d. sensitivity to opioids or depressants.

Answer 3

c. a history of heart or lung disease.

Question 4

4. Always assess the patient with an eye problem for

a. visual acuity.

b. pupillary reactions.

c. intraocular pressure.

d. confrontation visual fields.

Answer 4

a. visual acuity.

Question 5

5. When examining the patient’s eyes, which finding would be of most concern to the nurse?

a. Intraocular pressure of 16 mm Hg

b. Slightly yellowish cast of the sclera

c. Outward turning of the lower lid margin

d. Small, white nodule on the upper lid margin

Answer 5

d. Small, white nodule on the upper lid margin

Question 6

6. Presbyopia occurs in older people because

a. the eyeball elongates.

b. the lens becomes inflexible.

c. the corneal curvature becomes irregular.

d. light rays are focusing in front of the retina.

Answer 6

b. the lens becomes inflexible.

Question 7

7. Before injecting fluorescein for angiography, it is important for the nurse to (select all that apply)

a. obtain an emesis basin.

b. ask if the patient is fatigued.

c. administer a topical anesthetic.

d. inform patient that skin may turn yellow.

Answer 7

a. obtain an emesis basin.
d. inform patient that skin may turn yellow.

Question 8

8. A patient says she was diagnosed with astigmatism. When she asks what that is, what is the best explanation the nurse can give to the patient?

a. “It happens because the lens of the eye is absent.”

b. “People with astigmatism have abnormally long eyeballs.”

c. “The cornea of the eye is uneven or irregular with astigmatism.”

d. “Astigmatism occurs because the eye muscles weaken with age.”

Answer 8

c. “The cornea of the eye is uneven or irregular with astigmatism.”

Question 9

9. Which intervention would be part of the plan of care for a patient who has new vision loss?

a. Allow the patient to express feelings of grief and anger.

b. Have the AP perform all self-care activities for the patient.

c. Address any family present first when discussing care concerns.

d. Speak loudly and clearly, addressing the patient with each contact.

Answer 9

a. Allow the patient to express feelings of grief and anger.

Question 10

10. Which patient behaviors would the nurse promote for healthy eyes? (select all that apply)

a. Protective sunglasses when bicycling

b. Taking part in a smoking cessation program

c. Supplementing diet intake of vitamin C and beta-carotene

d. Washing hands thoroughly before putting in or taking out contact lenses

e. A woman avoiding pregnancy for 4 weeks after receiving MMR immunization

Answer 10

a. Protective sunglasses when bicycling

b. Taking part in a smoking cessation program

c. Supplementing diet intake of vitamin C and beta-carotene

d. Washing hands thoroughly before putting in or taking out contact lenses

Question 11

11. The most important intervention for the patient with epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is

a. cleansing the affected area with baby shampoo.

b. monitoring spread of infection to the opposing eye.

c. regular instillation of artificial tears to the affected eye.

d. teaching the patient and caregivers good hygiene techniques.

Answer 11

d. teaching the patient and caregivers good hygiene techniques.

Question 12

12. What should be included in the discharge teaching for the patient who had cataract surgery? (Select all that apply.)

a. Eye discomfort is often relieved with mild analgesics.

b. A decline in visual acuity is common for the first month.

c. Stay on bed rest and limit activity for the first few weeks.

d. Notify the provider if an increase in redness or drainage occurs.

e. Following activity restrictions is essential to reduce intraocular pressure.

Answer 12

a. Eye discomfort is often relieved with mild analgesics.

d. Notify the provider if an increase in redness or drainage occurs.

e. Following activity restrictions is essential to reduce intraocular pressure.

Question 13

1. In a patient with vertigo, the parts of the ear most likely involved are the (select all that apply)

a. cochlea.

b. ossicles.

c. vestibule.

d. semicircular canals.

e. tympanic membrane.

Answer 13

c. vestibule.

d. semicircular canals.

Question 14

2. A patient reports tinnitus and balance problems. The medication that may be responsible is

a. digoxin.

b. warfarin.

c. furosemide.

d. acetaminophen.

Answer 14

c. furosemide.

Question 15

3. What assessment technique should the nurse use to assess an adult patient’s tympanic membrane?

a. Have the patient tilt the head toward the nurse.

b. Stabilize the otoscope with your fingers on the patient’s cheek.

c. Pull the auricle down and back to straighten the auditory canal.

d. Use a speculum slightly larger than the size of the patient’s ear canal.

Answer 15

b. Stabilize the otoscope with your fingers on the patient’s cheek.

Question 16

4. A normal finding the nurse would expect when assessing hearing would be

a. absent cone of light.

b. bluish purple tympanic membrane.

c. midline tone heard equally in both ears.

d. fluid level at hairline in the tympanic membrane.

Answer 16

c. midline tone heard equally in both ears.

Question 17

6. The nurse teaches a patient scheduled for an electronystagmography that the test involves

a. measuring ear drum movement in response to pressure.

b. recording eye movements associated with ear irrigation.

c. placing an electrode on the eardrum and assessing for dizziness.

d. wearing headphones and determining which sounds can be heard.

Answer 17

b. recording eye movements associated with ear irrigation.

Question 18

5. Common age-related changes in the auditory system include (select all that apply)

a. drier earwax.

b. tinnitus in both ears.

c. auditory nerve degeneration.

d. atrophy of the tympanic membrane.

e. greater ability to hear high-pitched sounds.

Answer 18

a. drier earwax.

b. tinnitus in both ears.

c. auditory nerve degeneration.

d. atrophy of the tympanic membrane.

Question 19

9. Teach the patient who is newly fitted with bilateral hearing aids to (select all that apply)

a. replace the batteries monthly.

b. clean the ear molds weekly or as needed.

c. clean ears with cotton-tipped applicators daily.

d. disconnect or remove the batteries when not in use.

e. initially restrict usage to quiet listening in the home.

Answer 19

b. clean the ear molds weekly or as needed.

d. disconnect or remove the batteries when not in use.

e. initially restrict usage to quiet listening in the home.

Question 19

10. Which strategies would best aid the nurse communicate with a patient who has a hearing loss? (select all that apply)

a. Overenunciate speech.

b. Speak normally and slowly.

c. Exaggerate facial expressions.

d. Raise the voice to a higher pitch.

e. Write out names or difficult words.

Answer 19

b. Speak normally and slowly.

e. Write out names or difficult words.

Question 20

7. Care of the patient with an acute attack of Ménière disease includes (select all that apply)

a. giving antiemetics as needed.

b. implementing fall precautions.

c. keeping the room dark and quiet.

d. placing the patient on NPO status.

e. ambulating in the hall independently.

Answer 20

a. giving antiemetics as needed.

b. implementing fall precautions.

c. keeping the room dark and quiet.

Question 21

8. The patient who has a conductive hearing loss

a. hears better in a noisy environment.

b. hears sound but does not understand speech.

c. often speaks loudly because their own voice seems low.

d. has clearer sound with a hearing aid if the loss is less than 30 dB.

Answer 21

a. hears better in a noisy environment.

Question 22

1. The nurse provides diligent skincare because the primary function of the skin is

a. insulation.

b. protection.

c. sensation.

d. absorption.

Answer 22

b. protection.

Question 23

2. Age-related assessment findings of the hair and nails include (select all that apply)

a. oily scalp.

b. scaly scalp.

c. thinner nails.

d. thicker, brittle nails.

e. longitudinal nail ridging.

Answer 23

b. scaly scalp.

d. thicker, brittle nails.

e. longitudinal nail ridging.

Question 24

3. When assessing the nutritional-metabolic pattern in relation to the skin, the nurse asks the patient about

a. joint pain.

b. the use of moisturizing shampoo.

c. recent changes in wound healing.

d. self-care habits related to daily hygiene.

Answer 24

c. recent changes in wound healing.

Question 25

4. The nurse assessed a patient’s skin lesions as firm, edematous, and irregularly shaped with a variable diameter. They would be called

a. wheals.

b. papules.

c. fissures.

d. plaques.

Answer 25

a. wheals.

Question 26

5. During the physical assessment of a patient’s skin, the nurse would

a. use a flashlight in a poorly lit room.

b. note cool, moist skin as a normal finding.

c. pinch up a fold of skin to assess for turgor.

d. perform a lesion-specific assessment and then a general inspection.

Answer 26

c. pinch up a fold of skin to assess for turgor.

Question 27

6. Patients with dark skin are more likely to develop

a. keloids.

b. wrinkles.

c. skin rashes.

d. skin cancer.

Answer 27

a. keloids.

Question 28

7. On inspection of a patient’s dark skin, the nurse notes a blue-gray birthmark on the forehead and eye area. This assessment finding is called

a. vitiligo.

b. intertrigo.

c. Nevus of Ota.

d. telangiectasia.

Answer 28

c. Nevus of Ota

Question 29

8. Diagnostic testing is recommended for skin lesions when

a. a health history cannot be obtained.

b. a more definitive diagnosis is needed.

c. percussion reveals an abnormal finding.

d. treatment with prescribed medication has failed.

Answer 29

b. a more definitive diagnosis is needed

Question 30

1. Postoperatively, a patient who had a green light laser photoselective vaporization of the prostate (PVP) has continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) with a 3-way urinary catheter with a 30-mL balloon. On assessment, CBI outflow is light pink. The patient reports bladder spasms with the catheter in place. The nurse would

a. inflate the balloon to 35 mL to decrease bulk in the bladder.

b. stop the irrigation and notify the HCP of possible obstruction.

c. deflate the balloon and then reinflate to ensure that the catheter is patent.

d. tell him spasms are expected and he should not try to urinate around the catheter.

Answer 30

d. tell him spasms are expected and he should not try to urinate around the catheter.

Question 31

2. Which factors would place a patient at a higher risk for prostate cancer? (select all that apply)

a. Older than 65 years

b. Asian or Native American

c. Long-term use of an indwelling urethral catheter

d. Father diagnosed with early-stage prostate cancer

e. History of undescended testicle and testicular cancer

Answer 31

a. Older than 65 years

Question 32

3. A patient who is recovering from a radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer expresses concern that he will have erectile dysfunction. In responding to this patient, the nurse would keep in mind that

a. testosterone therapy will improve his libido.

b. PDE5 inhibitors are contraindicated in prostatectomy patients.

c. erectile dysfunction can occur even with a nerve-sparing procedure.

d. he will not be able to ejaculate which will decrease his desire for sex.

Answer 32

c. erectile dysfunction can occur even with a nerve-sparing procedure.

Question 33

4. The nurse explains to the patient with chronic bacterial prostatitis who is undergoing antibiotic therapy that (select all that apply)

a. all patients require hospitalization.

b. treatment is generally 8 to 12 weeks.

c. α-adrenergic blockers can help with pain.

d. long-term therapy may be needed in immunocompromised patient.

e. if the condition is not treated appropriately, he is at risk for prostate cancer.

Answer 33

b. treatment is generally 8 to 12 weeks.

d. long-term therapy may be needed in immunocompromised patient.

Question 34

6. Which points would the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with erectile dysfunction? (select all that apply)

a. The most common cause is benign prostatic hypertrophy.

b. Only men who are 65 years or older benefit from PDE5 inhibitors.

c. There are medications and devices that can be used to help with erections.

d. This condition can be caused by psychologic problems like anxiety or depression.

e. If they take a PDE5 inhibitor, they may experience a headache and nasal congestion.

Answer 34

c. There are medications and devices that can be used to help with erections.

d. This condition can be caused by psychologic problems like anxiety or depression.

e. If they take a PDE5 inhibitor, they may experience a headache and nasal congestion.

Question 35

5. Assessment findings that may be present in a patient with testicular cancer include

a. painful ejaculation.

b. urinary incontinence.

c. painless mass in the scrotal area.

d. rapid onset of dysuria with scrotal swelling and fever.

Answer 35

c. painless mass in the scrotal area.

Question 36

7. When discussing a male patient’s reproductive organs, the nurse should

a. arrange to have male nurses care for the patient.

b. look away and avoid eye contact with the patient.

c. maintain a nonjudgmental attitude toward his sexual practices.

d. use medical terms and anatomic names for his genitalia and sexual organs.

Answer 36

c. maintain a nonjudgmental attitude toward his sexual practices.