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Preventative Medicine > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

core vx in dogs

A

rabies
distemper
adenovirus
parvovirus

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2
Q

cat core vx

A

rhinotracheitis
calicivirus
panleukopenia
rabies

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3
Q

cat less than 10 should have a PE every?

A

every 12 mo

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4
Q

cat more than 10 should have a PE every?

A

every 6 mo

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5
Q

FeLV tests test for?

A

antigen

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6
Q

FIV tests test for?

A

antibodies

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7
Q

it takes how long for FeLV to be detected

A

<30 days

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8
Q

it takes how long for FIV to be detected

A

<60 days

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9
Q

what tests are used to test for FelV and FIV

A

ELISA
rapid immunomigration (RIM)

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10
Q

a 5 yr old dog got his1 yr rabies at 16 weeks and 3 yr rabies at 1 yr. What vx do u give now?

A

rabies 3 yr

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11
Q

common clinical signs of strangles

A

pyrexia/fever
pharyngitis
anorexia
lethargy
lymphadenopathy
bilateral nasal discharge

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12
Q

nasal shedding begins ___ after onset of fever and persists for _____

A

2-3 days

2-3 weeks

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13
Q

strangles transmission

A

direct & indirect

esp viable in water 4-6 weeks, not feces or soil

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14
Q

optimal samples of strangles

A

FNA of enlarged/abscessed LN

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15
Q

overweight horses affected by which diseases

A

metabolic syndrome/laminitis
insulin resistance
osteoarthritis

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16
Q

egg counts for ascarid infections have what?

A

high Sp
moderate Se
no correlation was found between egg counts and number of worms in SI

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17
Q

parascaris equorum prepatent period

A

70 days

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18
Q

what antihelmintic CAN worsen foal SI impactions with ascarids

A

ivermectin
pyrantel pamoate

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19
Q

what antihelmintic can you give for ascarid impaction

A

benzimidazoles like fenbendazole
dose-determining (higher dose required)

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20
Q

deworming protocol for foals vs adult equids

A

foals - recommended treatment with benzimidazoles at 60-90 days old

acquired immunity usually develops before the horse is 2 yrs old - ascarid control efforts are not required in mature horses

monthly frequency of ivermectin is excessive -> resistance

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21
Q

EHV-1 & 4 clinical signs

A

1st - biphasic fever

neurologic (EHM)
respiratory
neonatal death
abortion

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22
Q

diagnostic choice for EHV

A

nasopharyngeal swab or blood in PTT

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23
Q

equine core vx

A

EEE/WEE
rabies
tetanus
west nile virus

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24
Q

prevention for EHV

A

isolate
keep pregnant mares away
biosecurity
vaccination - does not prevent neuro signs

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25
Q

cause of calf death < 2 days

A

non-infectious
physiological derangements

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26
Q

cause of calf death > 3 days

A

infectious

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27
Q

what is the most influential manageable factor of calf health and survival

A

colostrum acquistition

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28
Q

what does colostrum feed provide

A

warmth
fluids
standard nutrients
micronutrients
immunoglobulins
non-immunoglobulin immune factors (cells, cytokines, enzymes)

29
Q

what is the majority immunoglobulin provides in colostrum

A

IgG1

30
Q

does colostrum or milk have a higher…
specific gravity
total solids
fat
total protein
Ig
minerals

A

colostrum

31
Q

5 key things about colostrum management

A

quality
quantity
cleanliness
quickness
quantify

32
Q

what does categorizing variables improve

A

communication w manager
progress in managing changes
recognition of management success

at risk populations and cutoff for groupings

33
Q

what is suggestive of FPT

A

serum IgG < 10 g/L in 24-48hrs of age

34
Q

what affects the mass of Ig consumed in the calf?

A

quality
volume

35
Q

what affects the absorption of colostrum in the calf?

A

quality
time

36
Q

what is suggestive of high quality colostrum for IgG and Brix refractometer

A

IgG > 50g/L
Brix >22% (18-23%)

37
Q

best way to measure serum IgG?

what is easiest to measure at the farm?

A

ideally radial immunodiffusion (RID)

farm - STP with optical refractometer or optical or digital Brix refractometer

38
Q

optical refractometer reading

A

5.0-5.5 cutoff for FPT

39
Q

Brix readings

A

8.1-8.5% cuttoff for FPT

40
Q

____ calves should have STP <5.1

_____ calves should have STP > 5.8

A

<10%

> 70%

41
Q

what causes Psittacosis and how is it spread

A

Chlamydia psittaci
ocular and nasal discharge & feces

42
Q

most important management strategy for controlling disease in herpetariums and avaries

A

quarantine area

43
Q

what 4-5 designated areas should be present

A

quarantine
nursery
isolation
breeding
food storage/supply

44
Q

quarantine for avians

A

45 days

45
Q

quarantine for reptiles

A

unknown hx 90 days
known hx maybe 14 days

46
Q

major clinical signs of Psittacosis

A

non-specific
anorexia, ruffled feathers, ocular/nasal discharge, diarrhea

47
Q

transmission to humans of Psittacosis

A

inhaling dust
handling infected birds

48
Q

when should the quarantine areas be serviced in an aviary

A

last area of the day

49
Q

higher risk groups for salmonella

A

children < 5
immunocompromised

50
Q

6 most common enteric zoonotic parasites in cats and dogs.

A

Toxocariasis
Echinococcosis
Giardiasis
Hookworm infections
Cryptosporidiosis
Toxoplasmosis

51
Q

does giardia or crypto have more zoonotic potential

A

cryptosporidum

52
Q

difference in infective stages of giardia and cryptosporidium

A

giardia - cyst
cyrptosporidum - sporulated oocyst

53
Q

cryptosporidum higher risk population vs giardia

A

crypto - immunosuppressed, vets, farm workers, vet students, children and neonatal animals

giardia - young animals and children, kennels, catteries, breeders, immunosuppressed

54
Q

best diagnostic for cryptosporidium

A

immunofluorescent assay (fluorescent Ab assay) - also detects giardia cysts

55
Q

best diagnostic for giardia

A

fecal float w centrifugation

NOT ELISA bc can remain + after treatment for variable period of time

56
Q

when to treat for giardia

A

only if diarrhea present

always do fecal float to see if treatment worked

treat with fendendazole NOT metronidazole

57
Q

most common cause of foodborne disease/outbreak in US

A

virus (norovirus)

58
Q

goal of FSMA

A

aims to ensure US food supply safe by shifting focus from responding to contamination to PREVENTING IT

59
Q

danger zone

A

41-135 degrees F

60
Q

what are the 6 sustainability goals

A

net zero warning
a good life for animals
diverse and abundant wildlife
enough clean water for all
no waste
health and happiness

61
Q

what is the best way to categorize climate associated illness in animals

A

by exposure pathway

62
Q

Which of the following best describes a no-cost action that all veterinarians can take to protect the health of wildlife?

A

advocate for protection of appropriate wildlife habitat

63
Q

ways to reduce water

A

flow restriction devices
low flow toilets
proper plumbing - no leak
leg-operated surgical scrub rather than elbow
drought resistant plans
minimize laundry

64
Q

ways to minimize anesthesia

A

anesthetic gasses with less green house potency
total IV and/or regional instead of inhalational anesthesia
avoid pre-emptive drawing up of meds

65
Q

type of care:
Integrating an understanding of the client’s financial and lifestyle realities into a fully developed treatment plan to meet their goals for patient care and health outcomes.

A

contextualized care

66
Q

type of care:
Offering a continuum of treatment plan options from those that are less complex and require less financial and time investment to those that are complex and involve high financial and time investment, so the animal caregiver can pick a path to follow that meets their goals and means.

A

spectrum of care

67
Q

type of care:
Implementing diagnostics and treatments in steps, one by one, in an intentional sequential manner that become more costly and complex over the timeline of care for the animal , where the next steps respond to the client’s expectations and financial constraints and change based on the patient’s response to initial treatment.

A

incremental care

68
Q

5 determinants of health according to DHHS

A
  1. economic stability
  2. education access
  3. health care access
  4. neighborhood & built environment
  5. social and community
69
Q

what are the conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.

A

DHHS definition of social determinants of health (SDOH)

Preventative Medicine (2 decks)

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