Final Flashcards
core vx in dogs
rabies
distemper
adenovirus
parvovirus
cat core vx
rhinotracheitis
calicivirus
panleukopenia
rabies
cat less than 10 should have a PE every?
every 12 mo
cat more than 10 should have a PE every?
every 6 mo
FeLV tests test for?
antigen
FIV tests test for?
antibodies
it takes how long for FeLV to be detected
<30 days
it takes how long for FIV to be detected
<60 days
what tests are used to test for FelV and FIV
ELISA
rapid immunomigration (RIM)
a 5 yr old dog got his1 yr rabies at 16 weeks and 3 yr rabies at 1 yr. What vx do u give now?
rabies 3 yr
common clinical signs of strangles
pyrexia/fever
pharyngitis
anorexia
lethargy
lymphadenopathy
bilateral nasal discharge
nasal shedding begins ___ after onset of fever and persists for _____
2-3 days
2-3 weeks
strangles transmission
direct & indirect
esp viable in water 4-6 weeks, not feces or soil
optimal samples of strangles
FNA of enlarged/abscessed LN
overweight horses affected by which diseases
metabolic syndrome/laminitis
insulin resistance
osteoarthritis
egg counts for ascarid infections have what?
high Sp
moderate Se
no correlation was found between egg counts and number of worms in SI
parascaris equorum prepatent period
70 days
what antihelmintic CAN worsen foal SI impactions with ascarids
ivermectin
pyrantel pamoate
what antihelmintic can you give for ascarid impaction
benzimidazoles like fenbendazole
dose-determining (higher dose required)
deworming protocol for foals vs adult equids
foals - recommended treatment with benzimidazoles at 60-90 days old
acquired immunity usually develops before the horse is 2 yrs old - ascarid control efforts are not required in mature horses
monthly frequency of ivermectin is excessive -> resistance
EHV-1 & 4 clinical signs
1st - biphasic fever
neurologic (EHM)
respiratory
neonatal death
abortion
diagnostic choice for EHV
nasopharyngeal swab or blood in PTT
equine core vx
EEE/WEE
rabies
tetanus
west nile virus
prevention for EHV
isolate
keep pregnant mares away
biosecurity
vaccination - does not prevent neuro signs
cause of calf death < 2 days
non-infectious
physiological derangements
cause of calf death > 3 days
infectious
what is the most influential manageable factor of calf health and survival
colostrum acquistition
what does colostrum feed provide
warmth
fluids
standard nutrients
micronutrients
immunoglobulins
non-immunoglobulin immune factors (cells, cytokines, enzymes)
what is the majority immunoglobulin provides in colostrum
IgG1
does colostrum or milk have a higher…
specific gravity
total solids
fat
total protein
Ig
minerals
colostrum
5 key things about colostrum management
quality
quantity
cleanliness
quickness
quantify
what does categorizing variables improve
communication w manager
progress in managing changes
recognition of management success
at risk populations and cutoff for groupings
what is suggestive of FPT
serum IgG < 10 g/L in 24-48hrs of age
what affects the mass of Ig consumed in the calf?
quality
volume
what affects the absorption of colostrum in the calf?
quality
time
what is suggestive of high quality colostrum for IgG and Brix refractometer
IgG > 50g/L
Brix >22% (18-23%)
best way to measure serum IgG?
what is easiest to measure at the farm?
ideally radial immunodiffusion (RID)
farm - STP with optical refractometer or optical or digital Brix refractometer
optical refractometer reading
5.0-5.5 cutoff for FPT
Brix readings
8.1-8.5% cuttoff for FPT
____ calves should have STP <5.1
_____ calves should have STP > 5.8
<10%
> 70%
what causes Psittacosis and how is it spread
Chlamydia psittaci
ocular and nasal discharge & feces
most important management strategy for controlling disease in herpetariums and avaries
quarantine area
what 4-5 designated areas should be present
quarantine
nursery
isolation
breeding
food storage/supply
quarantine for avians
45 days
quarantine for reptiles
unknown hx 90 days
known hx maybe 14 days
major clinical signs of Psittacosis
non-specific
anorexia, ruffled feathers, ocular/nasal discharge, diarrhea
transmission to humans of Psittacosis
inhaling dust
handling infected birds
when should the quarantine areas be serviced in an aviary
last area of the day
higher risk groups for salmonella
children < 5
immunocompromised
6 most common enteric zoonotic parasites in cats and dogs.
Toxocariasis
Echinococcosis
Giardiasis
Hookworm infections
Cryptosporidiosis
Toxoplasmosis
does giardia or crypto have more zoonotic potential
cryptosporidum
difference in infective stages of giardia and cryptosporidium
giardia - cyst
cyrptosporidum - sporulated oocyst
cryptosporidum higher risk population vs giardia
crypto - immunosuppressed, vets, farm workers, vet students, children and neonatal animals
giardia - young animals and children, kennels, catteries, breeders, immunosuppressed
best diagnostic for cryptosporidium
immunofluorescent assay (fluorescent Ab assay) - also detects giardia cysts
best diagnostic for giardia
fecal float w centrifugation
NOT ELISA bc can remain + after treatment for variable period of time
when to treat for giardia
only if diarrhea present
always do fecal float to see if treatment worked
treat with fendendazole NOT metronidazole
most common cause of foodborne disease/outbreak in US
virus (norovirus)
goal of FSMA
aims to ensure US food supply safe by shifting focus from responding to contamination to PREVENTING IT
danger zone
41-135 degrees F
what are the 6 sustainability goals
net zero warning
a good life for animals
diverse and abundant wildlife
enough clean water for all
no waste
health and happiness
what is the best way to categorize climate associated illness in animals
by exposure pathway
Which of the following best describes a no-cost action that all veterinarians can take to protect the health of wildlife?
advocate for protection of appropriate wildlife habitat
ways to reduce water
flow restriction devices
low flow toilets
proper plumbing - no leak
leg-operated surgical scrub rather than elbow
drought resistant plans
minimize laundry
ways to minimize anesthesia
anesthetic gasses with less green house potency
total IV and/or regional instead of inhalational anesthesia
avoid pre-emptive drawing up of meds
type of care:
Integrating an understanding of the client’s financial and lifestyle realities into a fully developed treatment plan to meet their goals for patient care and health outcomes.
contextualized care
type of care:
Offering a continuum of treatment plan options from those that are less complex and require less financial and time investment to those that are complex and involve high financial and time investment, so the animal caregiver can pick a path to follow that meets their goals and means.
spectrum of care
type of care:
Implementing diagnostics and treatments in steps, one by one, in an intentional sequential manner that become more costly and complex over the timeline of care for the animal , where the next steps respond to the client’s expectations and financial constraints and change based on the patient’s response to initial treatment.
incremental care
5 determinants of health according to DHHS
- economic stability
- education access
- health care access
- neighborhood & built environment
- social and community
what are the conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.
DHHS definition of social determinants of health (SDOH)
