Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

best and worst study designs in vetmed

A

best - meta-analysis and systemic reviews
worst - case reports, opinion papers and letters

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2
Q

which study shows strongest evidence about clinically important questions

A

systemic reviews and meta-analyses

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3
Q

which study provide the greatest control of bias and confounding but are not clinically applicable

A

randomized controlled trials

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4
Q

which study is clinically applicable but do not have great control of bias and confounding

A

observational studies

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5
Q

which study has Strongest evidence for cause-effect

A

randomized controlled traisl

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6
Q

which study has a follow-up; temporal cause-effect

A

cohort study

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7
Q

type of bias:
veterinarian using a patient’s signalment, history, comorbid conditions, and
other variables to develop diagnostic and treatment plans

A

selection bias

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8
Q

type of bias:
when the degree of scrutiny differs among animals or groups; occur when certain animals or groups of animals are observed more closely, with different observation or monitoring methods, or for a longer period than other animals or groups of animals because of characteristics such as breed, age, housing conditions, severity of clinical signs, or convenience

A

information bias

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9
Q

type of bias:
factors are associated with each other but not evenly distributed among the subjects evaluated, making it difficult to identify which factor is truly associated with the outcome of interest; when clinical observations are used to make assumptions about disease causation or treatment effectiveness

A

confounding bias

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10
Q

type of bias:
“false positive” rejects a null hypothesis that is actually true in the population

Statistical association is found, but are false

A

type I error

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11
Q

type of bias:
“false negative” fails to reject a null hypothesis that is actually false in the population
NO statistical association

A

type II error

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12
Q

type of bias:
controlled by a good diagnostic test; individual is assigned to a different category than the one to which they should be assigned

A

misclassification bias

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13
Q

type of bias:
gatekeepers are the “journals” deciding what to publish and what not to publish

A

publication bias

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14
Q

adverse event, which is “an unintended injury caused by medical management that resulted in measurable disability.

A

medical error

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15
Q

the failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation

A

negligence

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16
Q

a failure of one charged with exercising ordinary diligence, care and skill commensurate with members of his profession

A

malpractice

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17
Q

list 6 intrinsic errors

A
  1. time pressure
  2. overconfidence
  3. faulty or incomplete data gathering
  4. knowledge gap or inexperience
  5. physical factors
  6. conscious or unconscious bias by the doctor (appearance, behavior, body language, prejudice, gender bias, etc.)
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18
Q

list 7 systemic errors

A
  1. wrong site surgery
  2. failure of clinician/nurse/tech to recognize documented drug interactions or patient allergies
  3. miscommunication/ misunderstanding of verbal orders
  4. mislabeling of syringes, fluids, or other items contains meds
  5. improper rate of administration of fluids or CRI
  6. equipment failure
  7. poor lay out of the facility
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19
Q

Concluding evidence gathering and making a diagnosis prior to thorough reflection on all the data. The error is commonly associated with pattern recognition

A

premature closure

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20
Q

form of premature closure; limited analysis and/or information because you believe others have reached an identical conclusion

A

false consensus

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21
Q

The tendency to seek or favor data that confirms one’s preferred diagnosis while ignoring or disregarding data that would disfavor the diagnosis; run diagnostics first – tests/treatment

A

confirmatory bias

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22
Q

Pertinent information is unintentionally omitted by someone on the team, e.g., clinical sign, previous medical history, etc

A

Unintentional sequestration of data

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23
Q

associated to the way people store/retrieve knowledge; deceptive sense of security that because you’re working with a team, someone before you got all the data that you need (e.g. someone must have read the chart)

A

Illusory transactive memory system

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24
Q

Respect for authority or desire for consensus allows data to be interpreted as valid by others; usually associated someone with a position of power

A

contagious illusion

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25
Q

expectations influence your senses such that you can feel, hear or see something that you expect to hear

A

selective perception

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26
Q

initial events in the patient’s medical history or disease are weighted more heavily than events that occur later

A

primacy effect

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27
Q

most recent events in the patient’s medical history or disease are weighted more heavily than the events that occurred earlier

A

recency effect

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28
Q

estimating what is more likely by what is most available in your memory, which is inherently biased toward vivid, unusual, or emotionally charged examples

A

availability heuristic

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29
Q

if someone has already made a medical error are they more likely to make another in the future

A

yes - functional impairment
distressed after an error are at an increased risk of making medical errors in the future

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30
Q

are males or females more affected by medical errors

A

females - women report more work-related stress, anxiety, depression, and burnout than men; higher incidence of psychological distress, including suicidal ideation and depression, in female versus male veterinarians

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31
Q

what is the most commonly reported beneficial outcome of medical errors

A

a desire to improve oneself to prevent something similar from happening again

32
Q

reasons to report near misses and adverse events

A
  • ethically correct
  • preempt potential legal ramifications
  • system change or feedback or advice
  • trust with supervisor and client
33
Q

reasons people do not report near misses and adverse events

A
  • no need since nothing actually happened
  • dislike confrontation or not wanting to upset supervisor
  • not wanting to upset client and damage relationship
34
Q

4 pillars of quality improvement

A
  1. system-based approach
  2. leadership commitment to quality - safety culture
  3. medical error reporting
  4. improvement & implementation science
35
Q

epidemiological triad

A

host, agent, environment

36
Q

sharp rise in cases followed by rapid decline

A

point source

37
Q

series of progressive peaks of illness

A

propagated outbreak

38
Q

no temporal or spatial pattern

A

sporadic

39
Q

around all the time

A

endemic

40
Q

widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a community at a particular time

A

epidemic

41
Q

variable associated with increased risk of disease or infection

A

risk factor

42
Q

variable associated with a decreased risk of disease or infection

A

protective factor

43
Q

any causal factor (host, agent, environment), “piece of pie”

A

component

44
Q

set of component causes capable of causing disease; when sufficient cause is present, disease can occur

A

sufficient cause

45
Q

component cause that is required for disease to occur

A

necessary cause

46
Q

what do each measure
odds ratio
relative risk
attributable risk
attributable fraction

A

strength
strength
effect
effect

47
Q

identifies at risk groups at the start of the outbreak

A

attack rate

48
Q

what do you use in case-control studies, odds ratio or relative risk?

A

odd’s ratio

49
Q

explain 95% CI

A

CI overlaps 1 → non-sig
CI below or less 1 → significant

50
Q

The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals who HAVE the disease
used for screenings
fewer false negatives

A

sensitivity

51
Q

The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals who do NOT have the disease
diagnostic tests
fewer false positives

A

specificity

52
Q

Predictive Values are NOT fixed, they depend on…

A
  1. Se & Sp
  2. prevalence of disease in population
53
Q

the proportion of individuals who test positive who actually have the disease

A

PPV

54
Q

the proportion of individuals who test negative who are actually free of disease

A

NPV

55
Q

higher the PPV means…

A

fewer false positives

56
Q

higher the NPV means…

A

fewer false negatives

57
Q

every test run must be positive to classify individual as positive; individual is classified as positive if each test is positive

A

testing in series

58
Q

every test run must be negative to classify individual as negative; individual is classified as positive if a single test is positive

A

testing in parallel

59
Q

Proportion of disease positive animals that test positive

A

Se

60
Q

Proportion of non-diseased animals that test negative

A

Sp

61
Q

parts of periodontium

A

gingiva
periodontal ligament
cementum
alveolar bone

62
Q

how much should the attached gingiva have

A

2-3 mm each

63
Q

horse occlusal angle

A

10-15 degrees

64
Q

rabbit occlusal angle

A

0 degrees

65
Q

guinea pig occlusal angle

A

30-40 degrees

66
Q

which part of periodontal disease can be prevented

A

plaque accumulation

67
Q

how long does calculus take to accumulate

A

within 3-5 days of plaque formation

68
Q

what stage of periodontal disease is reversible?

A

stage 1 gingivitis

69
Q

most common cause of endodontic disease? what are key features of ED?

A

tooth fracture

  1. wide pulp chamber
  2. periapical lucency
  3. root end resorption
70
Q

understand the current knowledge of the correlation between systemic disease and dental disease in dogs and cats.

A

Strong associations between periodontal disease and chronic inflammatory lesions in the kidneys & hearts of dogs

71
Q

conditions related to overgrowth in horses (preventable)

A

buccal lacerations
lingual lacerations
hooks
steps/waves

72
Q

what other pathologies can equine get besides PD and ED

A

equine caries
EOTRH (equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis)

73
Q

goals of preventative equine dentistry

A

Remove causes of pain
Maintain tooth alignment and jaw range of motion
Identify disease
Prevent 2o complications

74
Q

what should odontoplasty not exceed

A

no more than 3-4 mm every 3 months

75
Q

what is the most common cause of dental disease in small mammal species

A

poor diet

(e.g. rabbits should be fed hay too not just pellets)

76
Q

is PD or ED more commonly found in pet ferrets

A

periodontal disease