FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

quantitative and qualitative changes

A

Quan - Gradual, incremental change, as in the growth of a pine tree’s girth.

Qual - Large, fundamental change, as when a caterpillar changes into a butterfly; stage theories such as Piaget’s posit that each stage reflects qualitative change relative to previous stages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 stages and what happens in them

A

sensorimotor (0-2 years) - motor abilities
preoperational (2-7 years) - conservation error
concrete (7-12 years) - solve problems - cause and effect relationships
formal (12+ years)- abstract reasoning skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

continuous and discontinuous development

A

continuous = gradually improving/ refining the same type of skills that were there to being with
discontinuous = new ways of understanding and responding to the world emerge at specific time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Piaget cognitive development theory

A

cognitive abilities develop in different stages - children of similar ages have similar cognitive abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

concrete vs formal operational stage

A

concrete = can reason if objects are in front of them but have problems with imagined deductive reasoning/abstract thought

formal = not everyone reaches it - the ability to formulate hypotheses and test them in a logical and scientific fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vygotsky’s social-cultural theory

A

physical and social environments are important - language drives development not a by-product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the zone of proximital development

A

when children attempt skills that are just beyond what they can do independently but have guidance from adults who know where they are in terms of their progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

exemplar vs prototype theory

A

exemplar: specific remembred instances or examples

prototype: idealised pr average representation of properties within a category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the 4 emotions infants have at birth

A

interest, disgust, distress and happiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is intersubjectivity

A

the sharing of subjective states between two or more individuals (e.g. coping facial expressions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is joint attention

A

ability to share attention towards somethign with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is social referencing

A

taking cues from others when dealing with an unfamiliar situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what did harlows attachment study show

A

feeling secure was based on physical comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

attachment

A

a strong emotional connection such as the bond between a child and caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the 4 stages of attachment

A

stage 1 = pre-attachment - infant are in close contact with caregivers and rely on them for all needs - not distressed when they leave them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

stage 1 of attachment

A

infant is in close contact with caregivers and relies on them for all needs - not distressed when they leave them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stage 2 of attachment

A

infants prefer familiar people but will eventually calm with unfamiliar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stage 3 of attachment

A

infants actively seek comfort from caregivers - may show signs of separation anxiety when separated from caregivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stage 4 attachment

A

become more comfortable spending time away from caregivers but will occasionally check in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stranger anxiety

A

signs of distress that infants start to show towards strangers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the three types of attachment

A
  1. secure
  2. insecure - anxious/ avoidant
  3. disorganized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

temperment

A

each infants individual pattern of behaviours and emotional reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the 3 temperament types

A

easy, difficult and slow to warm up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 9 traits that are considered

A

activity level, rhythmicity, approach, threshold of responsiveness, intensity of reaction, attention span, distractibility, adaptability, quality of mood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the 4 parenting styles

A

authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, rejecting-neglectful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is authoritaitve parenting style

A

high warm and high expectations (e.g. zoe)
- explains the reasons behind the rules
- reason with their children
- high degree of freedom within firm boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is an authoritarian parenting style

A

low warmth and high expectations (e.g. von tramp)
- discipline using threats
- praise obedience and expect children to follow rules without explanation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is permissive parenting style

A

high warmth and low expectations (mom from mean girls)

  • believe children learn best on their own
  • allow children a great deal of freedom - regular their own lives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is a regecting/ neglectful parenting style

A

low expectations and low warmth
- do not set limits or monitor activities
- place own needs above children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what type of children so authoritative parents create

A
  • socially competent
  • self-confident
  • strong academics
  • strong impulse control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what type of children do authoritarian parents create

A
  • unhappy
  • poor social competence
  • Poor self-confidence
  • Conform to expectations of adults (will
    look to authority for moral guidance)
  • Physical discip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what type of children do permissive parents create

A
  • Poor impulse control
  • Poor responsibility
  • High self-confidence
  • Poor Academics
  • Substance abuse
  • May react intensely to
    conflict
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what type of children do neglectful parents create

A
  • Poor impulse control
  • Poor self-confidence
  • Poor competence
  • Antisocial & Social difficulties
  • Substance abuse
  • Depression
  • Risky sexual behaviour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

theory of mind

A

children are growing to understand the mental states that affect people’s behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

theory of mind

A

children are growing to understand the mental states that affect people’s behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

adolescence

A

developmental stage starting with puberty and ending with the transition to adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the 5 features of emerging adulthood

A
  1. the age of identity explorations
  2. the age of instability
  3. the self-focused age
  4. age of feeling in between
  5. age of possibilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

intelligence

A

street smarts - based on experience - think on the spot to overcome obstacles

book smarts - based on school learning - organised, prepared, back-up plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what type is general intelligence

A

book smart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

measuring intelligence

A

IQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how is IQ measured

A
  1. verbal comprehension
    (where is this?)
  2. perceptual reasoning scale
    (puzzles)
  3. working memory scale
    (repeat digits given, adding numbers)
  4. processing speed scale
    (search for symbol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is IQ

A

intelligent quotient
- best test of measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the formula for IQ

A

mental age / chronological age x 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the bell curve

A

the normal distribution of scores for standardized intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are 4 things that makes us smart?

A

brains that work well, smart genes, shared environmental factors, other factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

avilability heuristic

A

the tendancy to estimate how frequently something occurs based on the ease with which examples come to mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

base rate fallacy

A

tendency to ignore generall information about the requence of events in favour of specific salient information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

false consensus effect

A

the tendency of people to overestimate the number of people whp share thier beliefs and behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

conjunction rule

A

mutiple specific conditions cannot be more liekly than a single general one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

reasons for puberty starting easrlier

A
  • absent father during childhoof
  • less supportive and more harsh family interactions
  • both nature VS nurture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

biggest puberty change

A

height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

neurological changes in adolescence

A
  1. synaptic pruning - removes half of all synapses - mostly in the frontal lobe
  2. myelination - formation of a myelin sheath around the axon of a neuron - last part of the brain where neurons are completeyly myelinated is the frontal lobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

resuls of synaptic pruning

A
  • Less grey matter in regions responsible for
    higher cognition
  • Decline in outgrowth of new cortical
    synapses
  • Decreased total synapses on pyramidal
    neurons

Brain is more refined and efficient;
connectivity between brain regions is
more established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

cognitive changes in adolescence

A
  1. shift from concrete to abstract thinking
  2. enhancements in exploration, sensation seeking and sensitivity to novelty
  3. learning from experience over time rom imperfect feedback
  4. learning from negative feedback
  5. shaping behaviours based on positive and negative peer interactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what way does the cognitive control region move

A

linear fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are some social influences on adolescent behaviour

A
  • greater sensitivity to social feedback than children or adults
    -deviant peer contagion
  • importance of status or motivation to gain status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is deviant peer contagion

A

peer approve negative/risky behaviour increased its likelihood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what age is there behavioural changes

A

a spike at 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how do adolescent mental health change

A
  • spikes in mental health problems
  • higher suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

adolescent social development

A
  • shift from spending time with family to friends
  • family conflict peaks at 15 yo and then declines
  • friendships are more intimate than in childhood - private thoughts/ secrets
  • seek loyalty - friends are social support
  • popularity highly valued
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what are cliques made of

A
  • 5-6 people
  • usually same sex
  • more personal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are crowds made of

A
  • large group
  • based on reputation
  • revolve around the types of activities that you engage in
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the 5 characteristics of emerging adulthood

A
  1. identity exploration - different jobs, love relationships
  2. age of instability - temporary home, jobs
  3. self focused - maturing cognitive abilities - preparing for future
  4. in between - kids and adults table
  5. age of possibilities - what are the best choices for you
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are “bell curves”

A

find the score of IQ tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

bell curve scores

A

50-70 : intellectual disability
130+ : gifted
150+: extremely smart - einstien
115: university students

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

whats wrong with IQ tests

A
  • prone to racial and cultural bias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

motivation

A

a general term for phenomena that affect the nature, strength and persistence of an individual behaviours
- desires, needs and interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

drives

A

reversible internal conditions that affect the nature, strnegth and persistance or bahaviour
- specific for the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are some regulatry drives

A
  1. homeostatis
  2. attention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is homeostasis

A

the tendency of an animal to regulate its internal conditions

e.g. temperature, dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what part of the brain controls the homeostasis

A

hypothalamus - above the brain stem - primary function is to control the homeostatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how is homeostasis regulated

A
  • restore when deviations are detected
    -regulate it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how is attention a regulatory drive

A
  • focus on drive -congruent information
  • collapsing of time perspective
  • inward focus - hangry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what are some non-regulatory drives

A
  • indirect evolutionary purpose
  • safety, reproduction, cooperation, education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what was the research done by cannon & wshburn

A

hunger - balloon inside stomach - removal of the stomach does not prevent hunger - must be more involved when it comes to hunger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the hunger drive internal cues

A
  1. neural sensors -
  2. blood glucose
  3. stomach pressure sensors
  4. fat stores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what are hunger drive external cues

A
  1. meal time - 3 times a day
  2. social factors - with other people?
  3. aesthetic factors - yummy looking food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)

A

applying small electrical shocks to different parts of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

dophamine

A

neurotransmitter associated with excitement and anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how many emotions are there and what are they

A
  1. happiness
  2. sadness
  3. surprised
  4. fear
  5. anger
  6. disgust
  7. contempt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the series of neural responses to threat

A

eyes - thalamus - visual cortex - amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

the limbic system

A

emotions survival instinct and memories

amgdala - perceptions of emotions - if its happened before

hypthalamus - command centre - mobalizes autonomic nervus system - fight or flight

peridquaural grey - specific role in freezin response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

prefrontal cortex

A

evaluates the salience of emotional information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

too much of a good thing?

A

if we dont have fear - recklessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

context

A
  1. goodness-of-fit
  2. emotional coherence
  3. other emotions - mixed emotions - rapid recovery among people - development of awareness
86
Q

trigger warnings study what were the results

A
  1. TWs are not benefiting people in the way they are thought to
  2. it may be increasing anxiety and negativity
87
Q

health psychologu

A

how psychological, social, behavioural and environemntal factors impact health

88
Q

what are the three parts of the biopsychosocial modesl of health

A

biological, psychological, sociological

89
Q

what does the more modern example of the biopsychosocial model of health

A
  • complex interplay between the factes of the model
  • some elements have a strong influences on health dont fall into just one circel
90
Q

what is stress

A

a reactions that occurs when perceived demands exceed existing resources to meet those demands

91
Q

what are the 3 models of stress

A
  1. response model of stress - at the end
  2. stimulus model of stress - as a start
  3. transactional model of stress - the middle
92
Q

what does the yerken-dodson law show

A

theres an optimal stress - help our performance

93
Q

what are the response model of stress

A

fight or flight response - short term
chronic stress - increased risk of tension headaches, cancer etc

94
Q

what is the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

A

alarm stage: fight or flight
resistance stage: body adjusts to stressor
exhaustion stage: after prolonged exposure to the stressor the body wears out

95
Q

stress and immune function study

A
  1. quarantine 2 days
  2. higher stress with a cold
96
Q

stress and wound healing study

A

wound healed less quickly among caregivers

97
Q

what is the stimulus model of stress

A

42 life events and the rating of the social readjustment of them

e.g. death of spouse 100
marriage 50

98
Q

flaw with the stimulus model of stress

A

positive and negative emotional factors for each events

people react differently to stress

99
Q

difference between stressful life events which are dependant or independant

A

dependant: partially your fault - argument with friend

independent event: relative illness

100
Q

what is primary appraisal

A

concerns relevance to our well-being
1. personal stake
2. significance of situation

101
Q

what is secondary apprasial

A

do we have the ability to meet this harm
internal coping options and external options

102
Q

what ar interal coping options

A

self-efficacy: an individual’s belief about his or her ability to perform a specific task

optimism

placebo effect

103
Q

what are the 4 internal coping options categories

A
  1. problem-focused: existing stressful situation by eliminating it - time manegemtn
  2. emotionally focused: reduces our emtional reaction - exercise
  3. proactive coping: reduce future stressful events -taking notes
  4. stress inoculation: mild stressors before - mock exams
104
Q

what are some external coping options

A
  • quality of social connections over quantity
  • companionship support - social belonging
  • emotional support
  • tangible support
  • informational support
105
Q

whats the difference between trait vs state

A

trait: a person’s habitual patterns of thinking, feeling and behaving

state: a temporary physical or psychological engagement that influences behaviour

106
Q

personality

A

a particular pattern of behaviour and thinking that prevails across time and situations and differentiates one person from another

107
Q

how do we measure personality traits

A

personality tests - in different ways

108
Q

what is heterotypical stability?

A

consistency in the underlying psychological attributes across development regardless of any changes in how the attribute is expressed at different ages

109
Q

what is homotypic stability

A

consistency of the exact same thoughts, feelings and behaviors across development

110
Q

what are attitudes

A

learned tendencies to evaluate things in a certain way

111
Q

what are the 2 types o attitudes

A
  1. explicit: you are aware of them and overtly expressed
  2. implicit: impact thoughts/ behaviours outside awareness
112
Q

what is the affective component in attitudes

A

emotions we feel about a certain object

113
Q

what is the cognitive component in attitudes

A

thoughts, beliefs or knowledge about the topic object - classical music is technical therefore good

114
Q

behavioural component in attitudes

A

how we act towards a person or object - smiling at dog

115
Q

what is attitude strength

A

how quickly regularly and easily an attitude comes to mind

116
Q

what are the three ways attitudes become stronger?

A
  1. direct experience with target attitude
    2, other experiences
  2. when the 3 are in sync
117
Q

what direct experiences strengthen attitudes

A

puzzle example

stronger attitude who got to play with puzzle before

118
Q

attitude accessibility

A

attitudes become stronger when
1. we think about them, talk about them and say them out loud

  1. our attitudes and self concept are activated simultaneously
119
Q

changing attitudes

A
  • effective persuaders
120
Q

some characteristics of effective communicators

A
  • physical attractiveness
  • they give us something
  • more similar to us
  • actual experts
121
Q

what is the door in the face technique

A

request so large that it is likely to be rejected so that the real request may seem more reasonable

122
Q

how to seem like an expert

A
  1. speak faster and in a more straightforward manner
  2. appear unbiased
  3. present both sides of the issue
123
Q

what is the elaboration likelyhood model

A

model for explaning attitude formation and change

2 processing routes

  1. thoughtful processing - central processing route
  2. spontaneous processing - peripheral processing route
124
Q

what are the 3 routes which infroamtion is processed

A
  1. motivation
  2. ability
  3. opportunity
125
Q

motivation

A

desire to process the message you are receiving shaped by personal relevance
- do you actually want it

126
Q

ability

A

elaboration is costly
- do u have the skills?

127
Q

opportunity

A

elaboration is costly in that it takes time to receive a message and process it

don’t have the time to make a decision - pick a red car because its pretty and easy to pick

128
Q

what is central route

A

the degree of attitude change is related to the quality of the argument that is presented

  • paying attention to message quality
  • deep processing
  • understanding of the material
129
Q

peripheral route

A

less of focus on message content
quality is less important
superficial characteristics
neccessity - dont have the time to central route

attitude change is temporary

130
Q

liking in regards to attitude

A

increases the chances of complying with requests

131
Q

liking in regards to attitude

A

increases the chances of complying with requests

132
Q

ways of liking

A
  • putting audience in a good mood
  • fear as a form of persuasion
133
Q

what are 3 person-environment transactions

A
  1. active - individuals play a key role in seeking out selecting aspects of their environment
  2. reactive - attributes of the individual shape how a person perceives and responds to their environment
  3. evocative - attributes draw out a particular responses from other in their environment
134
Q

what are the three things that make a good personality measure

A
  1. standardized - scored the same
  2. reliability - scores are consistent over time
  3. valid - predict relevant current and future behaviour and differ in magnitude
135
Q

personality test options

A
  1. self-report
  2. informant ratings
  3. projective tests
  4. thematic apperception test (TAT)
  5. factor analysis
136
Q

what are a self-report and the advantages/ disadvantages of it

A

= describing yourself

+ simple
+ cost effective
+ valid, reliabile and standardized

  • faking the results to make yourself look better/ worse
  • impacted self enhancement biases
137
Q

what are informant ratings and the advantages/ disadvantages of it

A

someone who knows the person well descibres them

+ lots of information tihout biases of self-report

  • practical issues - who
  • biases - picking a references
138
Q

what are projective tests

A

the projective hypothesis which assumes that important information about personality is outside of conscious awareness

139
Q

what is the thematic apperception test

A

people are shown images and are asked to generate a story about each

140
Q

what is factor analysis

A

used to group items that people respond to similarly

141
Q

what is the big five (OCEAN)

A

personality traits
Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, , Agreeableness, Neuroticism

142
Q

what is openness personality trait

A

tendency to enjoy new things and experiences, attentiveness to inner feelings and independence of judgement

low: practical, conventional
high: curious wide range of interests, independent

143
Q

what is a conscientiousness personality trait

A

tendency to be reliable and prompt - manage impulses and desires - planning, organisation

low: impulsive, careless, disorganised
high: hardworking, dependable and organised

144
Q

what is the extraversion personality trait

A

get ones energy from interpersonal interactions - sociable, likely to be interested in enterprising occupations

low: quiet, reserved, withdrawn
high: outgoing, warm, seeks adventure

145
Q

what is the agreeableness personality trait?

A

tendency to be friendly, cooperative and compassionate, more likely to go along with others

low: critical, uncooperative, suspicious
high: helpful, trusting, empathetic

146
Q

what is a neuroticism personality trait

A

emotional stability, person experiences negative affect

low: calm, even-tempered, secure
high: anxious, unhappy, prone to negative emotions

147
Q

what is desire of affiliation

A

we have a need to live in groups

148
Q

what is desire for acceptance

A

we have a need to get other people to accept us

149
Q

what is ostracism

A

ignoring and excluding individuals or groups by other individuals or groups

150
Q

objective vs subjective

A

objective: the presence of relationships

subjective: one’s opinions, feelings and appraisals of their relationships

151
Q

what are the 4 things that define culture

A
  1. versatility
  2. sharings
  3. accumulation
  4. patterns
152
Q

what is versatility

A
  • culture is not fixed
  • situational identity: influenced by different aspects of a culture depending on a situation
153
Q

what is sharings

A

how people transmit information with other members of a culture

154
Q

what is accumulation

A

how collective knowledge of a culture grows across generations

155
Q

what is patterns

A

systematic ways of thinking and behaving that members of a culture tend to share - cultural norms

156
Q

vertical vs horizontal societies

A

vertical: some people are more esteemed or have more privileges than others

horizontal: far less variability in privileges/ respect given to people of these societies

157
Q

collectivism vs individualism

A

individualism: needs of the person over the needs of the group as a whole
- independence
- standing out

collectivism: value the needs of a group or community above individual needs

158
Q

where to draw the line between atypical and typical behaviour

A

differs across time and culture

159
Q

defining mental disorder

A
  • mental illness
  • statistical infrequency - behaviour is less than the population
  • violation of the cultural norm
  • personal distress
  • dysfunction/disability - harming their ability to function
160
Q

what is wakefields harmful dysfunction

A

failure of a person’s internal mechanisms to perform their functions as evolutionary biology and deemed negative by sociocultural standards

161
Q

what to use to find out if someone has a mental health problem

A

DSM-5 = Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders - manual to aid the diagnosis of disorder 2013

162
Q

advantages and disadvantages of the DSM-5

A

+ provides mental health proff with a reliable method
+ Consistency in diagnosis among different professionals and institutions

  • disagreement re the specifics of symptoms
  • create bias with labelling
  • mild and more severe cases are classified similarly
  • bias in term of gender socialization
163
Q

what is the diathesis-stress model

A

genes and environment interact to produce mental disorders

164
Q

what is diathesis

A

predisposition, vulnerability or tendacy

165
Q

anxiety disorder

A

an irrational or disproportionate fear of situations or stimuli that are minimally dangerous or not dangerous at all

166
Q

fear vs anxiety

A

fear: emotional response to real threats

anxiety: anticipation of future threats

167
Q

how long do anxiety symptoms need to be going on for

A

6 months of more
out of proportion

168
Q

what are panic attacks and symptoms

A

the sudden onset of intense fear - around 10 minutes

  • chest pain
  • tingling
  • feeling of loss of control
  • sweaty
  • feeling like you are choking
  • nausea
169
Q

panic disorder

A

when the panic reaction occurs without being precipitated by a particular fear arousing situation

170
Q

the steps before an anxiety attack

A

trigger - threat perceived - anxiety - catestrophic

171
Q

specific phobias

A

extreme, irrational fear or a specific object/ situation

172
Q

4 types of specific phobias

A
  1. animal
  2. blood-injury injection
  3. situational - small enclosed places
  4. the natural environment
    other - don’t fit into above
173
Q

generalized anxiety disorder

A

excessive and uncontrollable worrying about everyday events

174
Q

what is the cognitive behavioural model of GAD

A

situation - what if?

175
Q

PTSD and subtypes

A

development of characteristic symptoms following exposure to one or more traumatic events

acute 1-3 mos
chronic +3 month
delayed onset +6 months

176
Q

symptoms of PTDS

A
  1. intrusion symptom - distressing memories, dreams
  2. persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with trauma
  3. anxiety symptoms
177
Q

what is social anxiety disorder

A

fear and anxiety associated with social situations

178
Q

OCD

A

A disorder characterized by the desire to engage in certain behaviors excessively or compulsively in hopes of reducing anxiety. Behaviors include things such as cleaning, repeatedly opening and closing doors, hoarding, and obsessing over certain thoughts.

179
Q

what are neural abnormalities in schizophrenia

A

ventricles are enlarged

180
Q

what is schizophrenia

A

type of psychosis with disturbed thought, language and behaviour - disconnection between brain and external world it was meant to perceive and act upon 1% of population

181
Q

diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia

A
  1. delusions
  2. hallucinations
  3. disorganised speech
  4. disorganised
  5. negative symptoms

2 or more of these symptoms
must be present for 6 months

182
Q

the positive - excess from normal behaviour vs negative symptoms - subtractive of schizophrenia

A

positive:
- hallucinations
- delusions
- disorganised speech/ thoughts
- disorganised behaviours

negative: (five As)
- flattened AFFECT - the absence of behaviour that is normally present
- ASOCIALITY - withdrawal from social situations
- ALOGIA - poverty of speech
- AVOLITION - reduced motivation/ goal directed
- ANHEDONIA - reduced experience in joy

183
Q

the types of delusions

A

persecutory: harmed by individual or group
referential: certain gestures from someone
grandiose: exceptional abilities
somatic: health and organ
nihilistic: catastrophe will occur
erotomanic: someone is in love with them

184
Q

schizophrenia facts

A
  • highly heritable 50% in twins
  • age of onset
    male: early to mid 20s
    female: late 20s
  • three distinct phases
185
Q

the course of illness

A

premorbid (shaky, jumpy) : prodromal (confused, trouble organising their thoughts) : active (delusional thoughts): 1. residual (no longer strong ones but still some negative symptoms) or 2. recovery (2 years) or 3. chronic

186
Q

mood disorders

A
  • depressive disorders
  • bipolar and related disorders
187
Q

what are some major depressive episode symptoms?

A
  1. Depressed mood
  2. Loss of interest in activities and/or people
    (one of these has to be present)
  3. Marked insomnia or hypersomnia
  4. Low energy
  5. Appetite disturbance
  6. Psychomotor retardation or agitation
  7. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt
  8. Poor concentration or indecision
  9. Thoughts of death and/or suicide
188
Q

statistics of people that have major depressive disorder

A

lifetime = 20%
length = 6-9 months
average age = early 20s
recurrent course = 50-60%

189
Q

sex differences in depression

A

higher in females

190
Q

manic episode

A

distance period of abnormally and persistently elevated mood

191
Q

what are some symptoms of a manic episode

A
  1. Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity
  2. Decreased need for sleep
  3. Pressured speech
  4. Flight of ideas
  5. Distractibility
  6. Increase in goal-directed activity or agitation
  7. Excessive involvement in activities with high
    potential for painful consequences
192
Q

hypomanic episodes

A

similar to manic episodes but its a shorter duration 4days

not associated with severe impairment

193
Q

bipolar 1 disorders

A

euthymaia - hypomania - mania - drops to moderate depression - major depression - moderate - euthymia

cycles through these stages

194
Q

bipolar 2 disorders

A

they do not reach the mania stage but a lot of major depression

195
Q

cyclothymia

A

moderate mania and moderate depression

196
Q

historical treatment

A

hole in skull

197
Q

how much does mental illness cost in Canada

A

51 billion

198
Q

psychodynamic therapy

A

personality and behaviour are shaped by power forces - no mistakes

199
Q

what is Freud’s structural model

A

psychanalytic theory - conscious mind and unconscious mind

there are three parts
1. ID
2. Ego
3. superego

200
Q

what is the ID in the structural model

A

ID
- represents a collection of basic biological drives
- fueled by libido
- present from birth

201
Q

superego

A

partly conscious
- values and moral stanards
- forms over time through socialization

202
Q

ego

A

conscious
- decision-maker
- frequently under pressure/ tension
operates according to tot he reality principle

203
Q

what are some psychodynamic therapy

A
  1. free association - say a word associations
  2. dream analysis - repressed feelings and desires
  3. transference - redirect feelings of someone to your therapist
  4. countertranserence - displays therapist feelings onto a client
  5. behavioural therapy
204
Q

what is behavioural therapy

A

use techniques based on operate and classical conditiions

205
Q

examples of behavioural therapy

A
  1. systematic desensitization - exposing clients to the feared stimulus
    - taught relaxation techniques
    - very mild
    - if they can relax = good
  2. flooding = client exposed to the object without actual harm
  3. interoceptive exposure or panic disorder generate body conditions - spinning on chair
206
Q

person-centred therapy

A

assumes people naturally strive towards self-actualization

client is the expert - therapist guides them

207
Q

what are some key therapist features

A
  1. unconditional positive regard
  2. genuineness
  3. empathy

techniques: active listening

208
Q

cognitive therapy

A

three types of thought:

automatic: they think I’m stupid

intermediate: if i show my personality they will reject me

core beliefs: I’m unlovable

209
Q

cognitive behavioural therapy

A
  • active therapy
  • identify the thought that contribute to emotional distress
210
Q

mindfulness based stress reduction

A
  • focuses on the present moment
  • purposeful attention

techniques: body scan - different types of meditation

211
Q

dialectical behaviour therapy

A

individual therapy
group therapy
- mindfulness
- emotion regulation
- distress tolerance
- interpersonal skills