Final Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of locomotion

A

Controlled act of moving the body as a whole from one place to another

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2
Q

What are the 3 components of control in locomotion?

A
  • control of limb and body movements
  • control of where you are going
  • control of posture & orientation
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3
Q

Stance phase definition

A

Part of locomotor cycle (one leg) during which some part of the foot is on the ground

Begins at heel strike

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4
Q

Swing phase definition

A

Part of locomotion (one leg) where no part of the foot is in contact with the ground

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5
Q

Stride definition

A

One movement cycle of a single leg; consists of a stance and swing phase

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6
Q

Walk (bipedal) definition

A

Legged locomotion in which the legs move in antiphase

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7
Q

Run (bipedal) definition

A

Both feet never on the ground at the same time, but some flight periods; move in antiphase

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8
Q

Central pattern generator (CPGs)

A

Grouping of neurons (or circuits) within the spinal cord or brainstem that can generate coordinated rhythmic muscle activity

  • leads to rhythmic oscillatory behaviour (locomotion, flying, swimming) without afferent feedback
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9
Q

Who first demonstrated rhythmicity (CPGs) and what reflex was it called?

A

Sherrington; scratch reflex

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10
Q

Scratch reflex

A

Rhythmic movements of limb used to remove annoying stimulus

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11
Q

How did spinalised animals respond (in terms of reflex latency) when stimulation intensity increases?

A

As stimulation intensity increases, reflex latency decreases

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12
Q

What occurs to muscle contraction when stimulation increases in the scratch reflex?

A

As stimulation intensity increases, the strength of muscle contraction increases

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13
Q

What occurs to the duration of response when stimulation intensity increases?

A

As stimulation intensity increases, duration of response increases and outlasts the stimulus

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14
Q

What is the rhythmic movement of extension and flexion independent of?

A

Supraspinal or peripheral feedback

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15
Q

Who demonstrated rhythmic stepping in spinal animals after dorsal spinal root transection?

A

Brown (1914)

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16
Q

What are half-centres?

A

A type of spinal circuitry organization that explains rhythmic stepping

  • mutual inhibition
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17
Q

What is each limb controlled by?

A

An independent half-centre

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18
Q

What did Grillner confirm?

A

Confirmed Brown’s hypothesis about half-centres

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19
Q

What was the primary conclusion of Grillner’s work with spinalised cats?

A

Circuitry for locomotion is intrinsic to the spinal cord

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20
Q

What occurs when the inhibitory synapse is blocked in half-centres?

A

Rhythmic motion is still evoked

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21
Q

What are 3 motor regions that can be artificially stimulated to produce locomotor activity?

A
  • subthalamic locomotor region
  • mesencephalic locomotor region
  • diencephalic locomotor region
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22
Q

Locomotor region definition

A

Region of the brain containing neurons that produce descending signals that activate spinal locomotor CPG circuits causing locomotion

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23
Q

What did Shik, Severin, and Orlovsky show about descending stimulation from the mesencephalic locomotor region?

A

Locomotion was dependent on the stimulus intensity of the MLR

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24
Q

What are the 5 jobs of the brain in locomotor control?

A
  • initiating and terminating CPG activity
  • controlling the speed of locomotion and gait
  • adapting locomotion to the task
  • coordinating locomotor activity with concurrent activities
  • maintaining postural equilibrium during locomotion
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25
Q

What is a SCI?

A

Spinal cord injury; no sensory or motor function below the level of the lesion

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26
Q

AIS A vs AIS B

A

Sensory complete spinal cord injury; sensory incomplete spinal cord injury

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27
Q

What does epidural stimulation of spinal circuitry result in for completely paralyzed individuals?

A

Process sensory input to regain some voluntary control of paralyzed muscles

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28
Q

What is the stepping reflex? What does it provide evidence for?

A

An infant makes stepping motions when their feet touch the ground

Human evidence for CPGs and locomotion, present even in anacephalic infants with no descending control

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29
Q

What is the difference in evidence for CPGs and locomotion in animals vs humans?

A

Strong evidence for locomotion after SCI in animals, not as strong in humans

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30
Q

What are the 4 functions of the vestibular system?

A
  • balance and equilibrium
  • detect head motion
  • determine gravitational vertical
  • fixation of eyes while head moves
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31
Q

What are the 5 sensory organs of the vestibular system? How are they divided?

A

Three semicircular canals
- anterior
- posterior
- horizontal

Two otolith organs
- utricle
- saccule

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32
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the hair cells?

A

CN VIII: auditory

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33
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the vestibular system found?

A

Scarpa’s ganglion

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34
Q

Once information of the alignment of stereocilia is conveyed to the brainstem and cerebellum where does the info go? 2

A
  • MNs to extraocular muscles
  • MNs of antigravity muscles
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35
Q

On which side is the kinocilia in the hair cells of the right and left side?

A

Right, the kinocilia is on the right
Left, the kinocilia is on the left

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36
Q

When the kinocilia is deflected away from the midline what occurs?

A

Depolarization

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37
Q

When the kinocilia is deflected towards the midline what occurs?

A

Hyperpolarization

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38
Q

What does head tilt provide information on?

A

Acceleration (linear and angular changes in position)

39
Q

What structure does the crista contain?

A

Hair cells

40
Q

Where do the hair cells extend into?

A

Cupula; gelatinous mass

41
Q

What do the semicircular canals detect?

A

Head rotation

42
Q

What is the relationship of the direction of head turn and the direction of endolymph flow?

A

Endolymph flows opposite to the direction of the head

43
Q

If one side of hair cells depolarize in relation to head movement, what occurs to the opposite side of hair cells?

A

If one side depolarize, the other side hyperpolarizes

44
Q

Does the brain interpret direction of head turn from the hyperpolarized, or depolarized side of the hair cells?

A

Interprets direction from the depolarized side

45
Q

Which plane does the utricle and saccule lie in?

A

Utricle: horizontal plane
Saccule: vertical plane

46
Q

What 2 things are otolith organs specialized for?

A
  • detecting linear acceleration of the head
  • indicating static position of head relative to gravity
47
Q

What does the otolithic membrane contain? Where in the membrane are they found?

A

Otoconia (calcium crystals) that overlay the hair cells

48
Q

What is the function of the otoconia?

A

Increases the mass of the otolithic membrane, increased impact of gravity

49
Q

What are otoliths?

A

The 2 organs of saccule and utricle

50
Q

What are the type of afferent neurons that are primary from vestibular canals to the vestibular nuclei?

A

Bipolar neurons

51
Q

What are the 4 nuclei that make-up the vestibular nuclei?

A
  • lateral nucleus
  • medial nucleus
  • superior nucleus
  • inferior nucleus
52
Q

What 4 structures are the secondary connections formed with from the vestibular nuclei?

A
  • spinal cord
  • cerebral cortex
  • cerebellum
  • oculomotor nuclei
53
Q

What is the LVST?

A

Lateral vestibulospinal tract

54
Q

What is the primary function of the LVST and where does it’s axons synapse to achieve this?

A
  • regulation of upright stance
  • synapse on ipsilateral antigravity (extensor) muscles
55
Q

What occurs when there is transection above the LVST?

A
  • decerebrate rigidity; unopposed excitation of LVST
    Aka there are no inhibitory inputs to regulate
56
Q

What does the medial vestibulospinal tract (MVST) control? What is the name of the reflex?

A
  • reflexive control of head movements to maintain stability
  • vestibulo-colic reflex
57
Q

Where does the vestibulo-ocular pathway project to? 3

A
  • oculomotor nuclei CN III
  • trochlear nuclei CN IV
  • abducens nuclei CN VI
58
Q

Which reflex allows the eyes and head to move in opposing directions?

A

Vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR

59
Q

Which 2 ocular muscles allow for the eyes to move in horizontally opposing directions to the head? Which reflex is this involved in?

A

Medial rectus muscle
Lateral rectus muscle

VOR reflex

60
Q

What is the relationship between ipsilateral medial & lateral recti muscles for horizontal eye deviation?

What is the relationship between contralateral recti muscles?

A

Ipsilateral: medial and lateral recti muscles act as AG/ANT pair
Contralateral: medial and lateral recti muscles move synergistically

61
Q

Do the eyes move in the direction that is consistent with the hyperpolarized or depolarized side?

A

Eyes turn towards the hyperpolarized side

62
Q

What is nystagmus and what is its purpose?

A

Rapid eye movement; keeps images stable on the retina

63
Q

When does nystagmus occur?

A

When VOR is not enough to maintain image on retina (too large of head rotations)

64
Q

What are the 2 phases of visually induced (normal) nystagmus?

A

Pursuit: slow phase in one direction
Saccade: fast phase in opposite direction

65
Q

What are the movement directions with a rightward nystagmus?

A

Slow movement of the eyes to the left (pursuit) and fast recovery to the right (saccade)

66
Q

What is an example of nystagmus in daily life?

A

Tracking telephone poles with your eyes and they have to reset quickly

67
Q

What are the 3 types of nystagmus?

A
  • optokinetic nystagmus: tracking stimuli
  • rotary nystagmus: head rotation
  • caloric nystagmus: vestibular stimulation
68
Q

What test is used to measure nystagmus?

A

Electronnystagmography (ENG)
- records eye movement in response to visually or vestibular-induced nystagmus

69
Q

What does the irrigation of the inner ear do?

A

It mimics the movement of endolymph and can cause hyper or depolarization depending on the temperature of the water

70
Q

What is the effect (hyperpolarization/depolarization) when irrigated with cold vs warm water?

A

Cold: that side is hyperpolarized
Warm: that side is depolarized

  • eyes will turn to the hyperpolarized side
71
Q

Postural control definition

A

Controlling the body’s position in space

72
Q

Postural stability definition

A

Stabilizing the body’s CoG in relation to its BoS during movement

73
Q

Centre of Gravity (CoG) definition

A

A single location of a physical object where gravity acts on the object

74
Q

Base of support (BoS) definition

A

The area of support surface where the object and surface make contact
- drawn with straight lines

75
Q

What is the ability to maintain balance dependent on?

A

The size of the base of support

76
Q

Limit of stability definition

A

Maximum angle (vertically) that can be tolerated before balance is lost

77
Q

Postural orientation definition

A

Maintain relationship b/w body segments & b/w body and environment when doing tasks

78
Q

What 3 systems contribute to postural orientation?

A
  • vision
  • proprioception
  • vestibular system
79
Q

Postural muscle tone definition

A

Slight activation of many muscles of the neck, back, abdomen, and legs while standing

80
Q

What is the purpose of postural muscle tone? 2

A
  • opposes gravitational torque
  • keeps legs, trunk, and head in alignment
81
Q

What are the 2 requirements to maintain an upright posture?

A
  • keeping the CoG above the BoS
  • maintaining alignment of body segments
82
Q

Quiet stance definition

A

Standing still with no disturbances and performing no tasks

83
Q

Environmentally perturbed stance

A

Standing person is subject to externally disturbances

84
Q

Action perturbed stance

A

Standing person performs actions that involve movements

85
Q

What are 8 muscles that are involved in quiet stance?
Anterior (3) to posterior (5)

A
  • abdominals
  • quadriceps
  • TA
  • traps
  • erector spinae
  • glute med
  • hams
  • triceps surae
86
Q

What is a stabilogram?

A

Graphical representation of movement of an individuals CoG

87
Q

What are reactive postural adjustments?

A

Movement strategy that maintains CoG within BoS in response to an external disturbance

88
Q

What are the 2 types of movement strategies in relation to reactive postural adjustments?

A

Feet-in-place strategy
Stepping strategy

89
Q

What are the 2 strategies within the feet-in-place recovery strategy?

A

Ankle and hip strategy

90
Q

What is the order of muscle activation in the ankle strategy?

A

Distal to proximal muscle activation
- gastroc then hams then erector spinae

91
Q

Which sets of muscles (anterior/posterior) activate during a forward sway during feet-in-place recovery?

A

Forward sway, posterior muscles activate

Backward sway, anterior muscles activate

92
Q

What is a postural set?

A

Multiple muscle groups that are connected and can be suppressed or activated in response to perturbation

93
Q

What is the difference in order of muscle activation for the hip strategy compared to the ankle strategy?

A

Hip strategy activates muscles proximal to distal whereas ankle is the opposite