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Patho > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

A weakened patient, such as one with a weakened immune system, is an ideal target for an ________ pathogen.

A

Opportunistic

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2
Q

The immune system protects the body by distinguishing _______.

A

Self from non-self

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3
Q

T/F Prion diseases usually progress rapidly and are currently untreatable and fatal.

A

True

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4
Q

A common sign of ______ includes a butterfly rash across the cheeks and nose.

A

SLE Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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5
Q

AIDS is characterized by a reduction in the number of _______.

A

T- Cells

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6
Q

Allergy problems arise because the IgE binds to mast cells and induces them to release _____ and other potent chemicals responsible for allergy symptoms.

A

Histamine

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7
Q

Natural killer cells are a type of _____.

A

Leukocyte

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8
Q

A disease that causes no signs or symptoms is called an _____ disease.

A

Asymptomatic

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9
Q

A Type I allergic reaction is triggered by the ______, immunoglobulin that responds to the presence of allergens.

A

IgE

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10
Q

Which is the most prevalent method to replace permanently injured tissues and organs?

A

Transplantation

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11
Q

Autoimmune disorders fall into which category of “inappropriate responses of the immune system?”

A

Failure to recognize the body as self

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12
Q

A pathogen is a ___.

A

disease-causing microorganism

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13
Q

______ of potentially infectious materials, like surfaces in patients’ rooms and linens, is necessary to prevent transmission.

A

Disinfection

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14
Q

Malaria is caused by which type of infection?

A

Protozoan

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15
Q

Tracking the _____ of a disease is tracking the number of new cases of a disease in a population.

A

Incidence

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16
Q

T/F A chronic disease has a sudden onset and short duration.

A

False

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17
Q

A disease that will end in death is called a _____ disease.

A

Terminal

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18
Q

Genetically programmed cell death is a process that can destroy cells that are no longer needed. What is the name of this process?

A

Apoptosis

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19
Q

T/F Symptoms are evidence of disease, observed on physical examinations.

A

False

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20
Q

People who harbor an infectious agent but do not have signs or symptoms are known as _____.

A

Carriers

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21
Q

C-reactive protein test and erythrocyte sedimentation tests measure general levels of _____ in the body.

A

inflammation

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22
Q

Tinea Corporis

A

Ringworm

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23
Q

Tinea Pedis

A

Toes

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24
Q

Tinea Capitis

A

Head

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25
Q

Tinea Unguium

A

Nail

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26
Q

Tinea Versicolor

A

Patches of hypopigmentation on trunk and extremities

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27
Q

Tinea Cruris

A

Jock Itch

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28
Q

You notice that after you sprained your ankle that the ankle became swollen, red, and hot. Why did the ankle get hot?

A

Increased blood flow to the site.

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29
Q

The principal route of transmission of ______ infections are: contact with the healthcare staff, contact with contaminated instruments, and through the hospital’s ventilation system.

A

Nosocomial

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30
Q

_____ of infected persons in hospitals, such as a person with influenza remain home in bed, can be an effective way to control infectious diseases.

A

Isolation

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31
Q

Which condition can cause ischemia of the testicle?

A

Testicular Torsion

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32
Q

Which symptoms should a nurse observe for in a client who has pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

A
  • Oral temp 101
  • Increase in C-reactive protein levels
  • presence of white blood cells in vaginal secretions
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33
Q

The brains of Alzheimer disease patients have dense knots of protein deposits called

A

plaques

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34
Q

According to this pain theory, massage, scratching, and rubbing of the skin inhibit pain conduction.

A

Gate Control Theory

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35
Q

T/F In spina bifida, the meninges fails to fuse correctly.

A

False
Spina bifida is the malformation of the neural tube.

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36
Q

One type of neuron is the ____, which conveys messages from the CNS to muscles.

A

Motor Neuron

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37
Q

A patient with a spinal cord and brain injury is displaying neck extension and clenching of the jaw. His arms are extended with flexion of the wrists and fingers. This is called

A

Decerebrate posturing

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38
Q

Cranial Nerve 1

A

Olfactory
Smell

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39
Q

Cranial Nerve 2

A

Optic
Sense light

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40
Q

Cranial Nerve 3

A

Oculomotor
Eye movement and pupil reaction

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41
Q

One type of neuron is the _____, which detects environmental stimuli and transmits messages to the brain or spinal cord.

A

Sensory Neuron

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42
Q

swelling in the scrotum due to the collection of serous fluid.

A

Hydrocele

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43
Q

What happens to the hormones in PCOS?

A

Excess androgen production from the ovaries results in multiple immature ovarian follicles.

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44
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale measures?

A

Mental function, sensory responsiveness and motor ability

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45
Q

One type of neuron is the ____, which carries nervous impulses between meurons.

A

interneuron

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46
Q

What are signs of delayed puberty?

A
  • Gynecomastia
  • long arms and legs
  • persistent high pitched voice
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47
Q

T/F The signs and symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease often begin with memory loss and confusion.

A

True

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48
Q

A nurse is assessing a female client who has PID. Which condition in the client indicates that the client requires immediate hospitalization?

A
  • Nausea and fever
  • pregnancy
  • pelvic abscess
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49
Q

Why does bone loss occur with menopause?

A

from the effects of cytokines in the absence of ovarian hormones

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50
Q

T/F Testosterone is produces by the ovaries.

A

FALSE

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51
Q

Babinski Reflex

A

Positive test: the client has flaring toes in response to stimulation of the sole of the foot, indicates an upper motor neuron disorder

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52
Q

National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) Scores for the Level of Consciousness

A

0: Alert
1: Drowsy
2: Stuporous
3: Coma

53
Q

2/3 of the body’s water is located in

A

intracellular fluid

54
Q

1/3 of the bodys water is located in

A

extracellular fluid

55
Q

interstitial fluid and intravascular fluid are the main 2

A

extracellular compartments

56
Q

what is total body water?

A

sum of fluids within all compartments

57
Q

what is true about the amount of body fat?

A

-fat is water repellant
-more fat=less water

58
Q

wahat is edema?

A

excessive accumulation of fluid within the interstitual spaces

59
Q

4 most common mechanisms causing edema

A

-increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
-decreased plasma oncotic pressure
-increased capillary membrane permeability
-lymphatic obstruction

-

60
Q

capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

water moving outward from the capillaries to the interstitual space

61
Q

capillary plasma oncotic pressure

A

water moving from interstitial space back to the capillaries

62
Q

interstitial hydrostatic pressure

A

inward movement of water into the interstitial space into the capillary

63
Q

what is isotonic solution?

A

solution with the same concentration of solutes as the plasma

64
Q

hypertonic fluid alteration

A

individual excrete too much water without excreting electrocytes

65
Q

hypernatremia

A

sodium level higher than 147 meq

66
Q

hypotonic fluid imbalance

A

decrease in electrocyte concentration in fluid

67
Q

hypo natrimea

A

most common electrolyte disorder
-sodium less than 135meq

68
Q

hypokylemia

A

low potassium less than 3.5 meq

69
Q

cause of hyperkalemia

A

-excessive intake
-shift of potassium from icf to ecf
-decreasede kidney function

70
Q

maintain potassium balance is called

A

potassium homeostasis

71
Q

3 substances that regulate calcium and phosphate

A

-PTH parathyroid hormone
-vitamin d
-calcitonin

72
Q

cause of hypocalcemia

A

-nutritional deficiency
-removal of the parathyroid gland
-vitamin d deficiency
-pancreatitis
-alkalosis

73
Q

respiratory acidosis

A

when there is alveolar hypoventilation
-hydrogen ions are stored

74
Q

buffers

A

occurs in respond to change in acid/base balance
-absorbs excess acids or bases

75
Q

respiratory alkalosis

A

alveolar hyperventilation
-decreased concentration of plasma
dizziness/confusion
-coma
-convulsions
-tingling of extremities

76
Q

hypochloremic

A

low blood chloride levels

77
Q

hypercapnia

A

excess carbon dioxide in the blood

78
Q

fluid shifts in isonatremic dehydration are?

A

absent

79
Q

_____ is the iron-containing molecule found in red blood cells

A

heme

80
Q

_____ is the iron-containing molecule found in red blood cells

A

heme

81
Q

The nurse is carry for a client diagnosed with HIV/AIDS receiving a nucleoside-analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI). The client has developed lactic acidosis. The nurse attributes the development of lactic acidosis to the use of the NRTI and understands the pathophysiology to be:

A

NRTI action causes loss of mitochondrial DNA and therefore prevents production of components needed for normal ATP production

82
Q

A client reports abdominal pain, fever, and fatigue. On assessment, the client is diagnosed with hemolytic-uremic syndrome. Which abnormal diagnostic test result could further confirm the diagnosis?

A

High blood urea nitroge

83
Q

The nurse is assigned a client with dehydration. The nurse anticipates to observe all the following manifestations except

A

Moist mucous membrane

84
Q

A 30-year-old client who presents with symptoms of redness, heat, and pain in the joints undergoes a complete blood count test. The blood report shows an increased white blood cell count. Which condition does this indicate?

A

Inflammation

85
Q

_____ or red blood cells make up about half of the blood’s volume.

A

Erythrocytes

86
Q

Which is the outer layer of the heart?

A

Pericardium

87
Q

Which of the following is a major risk factor for testicular cancer?

A

cryptorchidism

88
Q

The nurse is assessing a client’s fluid status. The nurse knows that which electrolyte is most closely related to water balance?

A

Sodium

89
Q

COPD is characterized by _____ that is not fully reversible.

A

interference with air flow

90
Q

Hyponatremia causes the cell to:

A

Swell`

91
Q

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hypoparathyroidism?

A

tingling in the extremities

92
Q

Folic acid is synthesized by many different types of plants and _____.

A

bacteria

93
Q

Clinical manifestations for mild HAART-associated acidosis includes all of the following except?

A

coma

94
Q

The nursing instructor teaches a group of student nurses about the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome. After the teaching session, the nursing instructor asks the student nurse to determine the presence of lactose intolerance in a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which intervention by the student nurse indicates effective learning

A

The student nurse performs an upper endoscopy in the client.

95
Q

Which imbalance should the nurse anticipate for a client experiencing metabolic acidosis?

A

hyperkalemia

95
Q

Which imbalance should the nurse anticipate for a client experiencing metabolic acidosis?

A

Increased serum bicarbonate

96
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative and whose respirations are shallow and 9/min. Which of the following acid-base imbalances should the nurse identify the patient as being at risk for developing initially?

A

Respiratory Acidosis

97
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately represents the process of active transport of particles across a membrane?

A

Moves from lower concentration of particles to higher concentration of particles

97
Q

Which of the following statements most accurately represents the process of active transport of particles across a membrane?

A

Moves from lower concentration of particles to higher concentration of particles

98
Q

A client reports fullness of the stomach, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal bloating. The client is diagnosed with stomach cancer. Which medication does the nurse expect the primary health-care provider to prescribe?

A

Cisplatin

99
Q

Why does bone loss occur with menopause?q

A

from the effects of cytokines in the absence of ovarian hormones

100
Q

Phagocytosis is an example of which type of cellular function?

A

Ingestion

101
Q

Treatment of ascites is removal of fluid by which procedure?

A

Paracentesis

102
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) helps maintain appropriate fluid levels in the body. ADH is released when there is a(n)

A

increased in blood osmolality

103
Q

Which condition is the most significant risk factor for developing hypernatremia?

A

dehydration

104
Q

A nurse is teaching care measures to be followed by a client who has otitis externa. Which instruction by the nurse would be most beneficial to the client?

A

You should use ear plugs while you are bathing

105
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which of the following treatments is the most common method for increasing fluid excretion?

A

Diuretics

106
Q

Treatment for metabolic acidosis in parenteral nutrition includes which of the following?

A

Adjusting the solution

107
Q

_____ are produced in the bone marrow and are essential for blood clotting.

A

Platelets

108
Q

Which is a common clinical manifestation for testicular cancer?

A

-small, painless testicular mass
-the heaviness of the scrotum
-slight enlargement of the testicles

109
Q

Which of the following would be considered a severe clinical manifestation of HAART associated acidosis?

A

Hepatomegaly

110
Q

The student nurse is reviewing the pH balance of the body. Which of the body’s buffer systems is the first to respond?

A

Plasma buffer

111
Q

The nurse is monitoring intake and output for a patient using daily weights. The nurse understand that two-thirds of the body’s water is located in the:

A

Intracellular compartment

112
Q

A client has lost more water volume through diarrhea than solutes (electrolytes). The nurse correctly determines the client is experiencing:

A

Hypertonic dehydration

113
Q

Which wave in the electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

114
Q

A seasonal vaccination can be used to prevent _____.

A

pneumonia

115
Q

A client in an airplane reports to the flight nurse that he or she is unable to hear any sounds after takeoff of the flight. What should the flight nurse anticipate from the client’s statement?

A

The Eustachian tube is damaged in the client.

116
Q

A client’s blood gases reveal a pH of 7.49, CO2 of 40 mm Hg, HCO3 of 29 mEq/L, pO2 of 85 and SaO2 of 95%. What is the correct interpretation of these blood gases?

A

respiratory acidosis

117
Q

Disorders of _____ are commonly known as bleeding disorders

A

hemostasis

118
Q

This is the lethal aspect of cancer:

A

metastasis

119
Q

A client presents with lethargy and muscle flaccidity. The client’s family members report cognitive impairment in the client. What finding would the nurse look for if Tay Sachs disease is suspected?

A

Cherry-red spot on the retina on ophthalmologic examination

120
Q

A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia as a result of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A

Weak irregular pulse.

121
Q

The nursing instructor is discussing the physical assessment findings for hemorrhoids. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?

A

Presence of blood in stools may be observed.

122
Q

Which type of edema is the most severe and requires the most immediate attention?

A

cerebral

123
Q

The nurse is reviewing labs for a client and notes the magnesium level is 1.9 mE/L. The nurse should:

A

Document the magnesium level as normal

124
Q

A force that attempts to pull fluid from the interstitial and intracellular spacesThe parathyroid glands regulate the levels of circulating ______.

A

calcium and phosphate

125
Q

Mental health is the condition of being sound _____.

A

emotionally and mentally

126
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

A force that attempts to pull fluid from the interstitial and intracellular spaces

Patho (3 decks)

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