Final Flashcards

1
Q

How much CO2 is in the atmosphere and what is the tipping point for it

A

415.31 ppm; 350 ppm

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2
Q

How do CO2 levels change

A

They fluctuate throughout seasons depending on vegetation

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3
Q

What is the Ruddiamn hypothesis and does it hold true

A

That ancient agrarian ancestors may have started gas contributions to the atmosphere; no becuase measurable affects on the climate weren’t seen until the industrial revolution

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4
Q

When was the industrial revolution what started it

A

1750-1850 and was caused by coal shifting from an organic to a fossil economy releasing accumulated energy from millions of years of photosynthesis

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5
Q

What are the consequences of burning coal

A

Stored energy is released as heat and gas (methane and CO2) which escapes into the atmosphere and traps heat

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6
Q

What is the great acceleration

A

most recent period of the proposed anthropocene during which the rate of impact of human activity upon the earth’s geology and ecosystems is increasing significantly

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7
Q

When the great accerlation start

A

after the second world war

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8
Q

When did scientists discover the CO2 abosorbed radiation and what prediction did they make off of that

A

As early as 1859 and they predicted by the 1930s that burning fossil fuels would warm up the planet

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9
Q

What is the keeling curve

A

represents the measured concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere at the Mauna Loa Observatory since 1958. undulations of the curve show annual cycles of growth and decay on the land masses on the Northern Hemisphere, as plants fix and then release CO2 in their life cycle

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10
Q

What was the kyoto protocol

A

adopted in 1997 and took force in 2005 with 192 parties; committed parties were only asked to adopt policies and measures on mitigation and report periodically

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11
Q

What was the paris agreement

A

Legally binding international agreement meant to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees celcius

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12
Q

What is an interglacial

A

minimum of ice age, glacial minimum

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13
Q

When was Earth covered in 30% ice and was that a glacial minimum or maximum

A

About 18,000; glacial maximum when the oceans were a lot lower

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14
Q

What is the ice age fluctuations

A

between 10 and 30% of the Earth covered in ice and there are glacial maximums every 100,000 years

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15
Q

What is the evidence for widespread glaciation

A

Large boulders that are genetically unrelated to the underlying bedrock and when glaciers melted there was a large amount of water created sand

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16
Q

How do we know when the ice age began

A

Plankton record the oxygen isotope compistion of the ocean where they live which is controlled by how much continential ice exists

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17
Q

What are the two O isotopes and which ones predict glacial max or minimums

A

H2O 16 and 18 and higher amounts of H2O 18 in the ocean indicate glacials (glacial maximum)

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18
Q

High ice correlates to high or low dust and why

A

High dust since glacials are usually very windy and they dig sediment up creating dust making it colder since it blocks light; cold causes wind to glide across top of glaciers creating even more wind

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19
Q

What do CO2 and methane levels oscillate between and what is their relationship

A

CO2 oscialltes between 180 and 280 while methane switches between 700 and 300; they have a direct relationship

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20
Q

What are Milankovitch cycles and what are the three of them

A

Cycles of the Earth that affect Earth’s temperatute; Earth’s orbit of the sun, Earth’s tilted axis, and tilt wobbles

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21
Q

How does Earth’s orbit of the sun affect the Earth’s temperature

A

orbit changes from an oval to a circle and back every 100,000 years which is a direct correltaion with glacial max and minimums

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22
Q

How dos Earth’s axis affect Earth’s temperature

A

Tilt oscillates between 21 and 24 degrees every 41,000 years and affects how harsh season will be

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23
Q

What is an albedo

A

When Earth is covered in ice causing more solar energy to reflect off the ice and go into space. This causes the earth to cool more growing more glaciers

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24
Q

How do GHG create a feedback loop

A

Decomposition of organic material puts CO2 in the atmosphere and when it’s warmer the organic material decomposes faster

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25
Q

By how much is the sea rising

A

On average thye are rising by 3mm/year but in some places the sea is decreasing like Alaska or CA but rising is Maryland and Louisiana

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26
Q

What was the rate of sea level rise in the late 1800s and what is it currently

A

.9 mm/year but is now 3 mm/year

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27
Q

what is causing sea level rise

A

45% due to melting of mountain glaciers, 38% thermal expansions, 13% melting of antartic ice sheets and 4% ice loss from Greenland

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28
Q

What is energy coupling, what is coupling, and when they start to increase

A

Direct correlation between energy, CO2, and GDP; Energy and CO2 increased around the 1960, and CO2 and GDP increase around the 1850s

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29
Q

When did CO2 emissions start to rise and what is the biggest contributor to these emission

A

around 2000 and coal

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30
Q

What type of countries have increased their emissions lately and why

A

developing countries due to a shift in economy

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31
Q

How does demand side management work

A

Provide the same management with less energy consumption by using more efficient cars, motion light switches… this could be done by incentivizing people with reduced prices for less flexibility with the AC and thermostat

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32
Q

What is a negative effect of the demand-side management

A

Rebound effect in which people save energy thus use that energy elsewhere

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33
Q

How does the supply side management work

A

Taxing everything based on carbon intensity of fuel so if something is more carbon intensive then a higher tax

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34
Q

Where has supply side management been employed

A

British columbia in Canada, they have witnessed a decrease in CO2 emissions and was revenue neutral so taxes wasn’t raised

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35
Q

what did the kyoto protocol call for

A

use of flexible policies and transfers of CO2 reduction tech to developing countries where the carbon credit would flow back to country donating tech

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36
Q

What countries were required to make reductions under the Kyoto protocol

A

Japan, Canada, Australia, Turkey, the EU, Russia and the UK; The US would have been in it but did not sign on

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37
Q

What were the main differences between Kyoto and paris protocols

A

paris included less developed countries, had countries make specific plans for decrease in emissions, wanted a change that allowed the Earth to decrease temperature by 1.5 degrees celscius while Kyoto just called for countries to reduce C levels from 1990

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38
Q

What are the four sphere of Earth

A

Hydrosphere (water), biosphere (green of Earth), atmosphere (clouds), and lithosphere (major plates of Earth)

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39
Q

What is residence time and the equation to calculate it

A

Average time a substance spends in a reservoir. Equation is the reservoir divided by flow in OR out. Only meaningful if the flow in is about equal to the flow out

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40
Q

What is a non-excludable resource

A

A resource that you can’t stop people from over consuming even if barriers to entrance are put in place

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41
Q

What is a rival resource

A

when use by one person makes less of the resource available to others

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42
Q

What does a rival and non-excludable resource make and what is an example of one

A

Makes a common property open access resource like fisheries

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43
Q

What is the tragedy of the commons

A

When conscientious users get less, while those exploiting the resources get more resulting in a lack of incentive to conserve thus, the resource is over-exploited

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44
Q

What is a non-rival resource

A

When use by one person does not take away from someone else’s use of the resource

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45
Q

What are the features of a public good

A

Non-excludable and non-rival

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46
Q

What are the features of a common good

A

Non-excludale and rival

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47
Q

What are the problems associated with a public good

A

people over use the public good because they benefit from it but don’t help create it because it is too costly

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48
Q

What are externalities

A

The “bad” behavior that degrades the common or public good

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49
Q

What are some ways to sovle externality problems

A

Educate public so they voluntarily avoid bad behavior and attach a cost to the “bad” behavior

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50
Q

How are aerosols removed from the atmosphere

A

rainfall

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51
Q

What lead to pattersons discovery that tetraethyl lead was dangerous

A

Was trying to date the Earth but kept getting the wrong answer leading him to discover that there was excess lead everywhere. Found that humans had 600x more lead in their bodies than normal

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52
Q

How does acid rain affect the environment

A

Causes damage to native vegetation and declines in native fish as well as displacing essential plant nutrients (Ca+2, K+2) from soil and mobilizing aluminum killing fish

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53
Q

What caused acid rain in the 1960s

A

Post WWII used a lot of electricity power by coal; Burning coal released sulfur and nitrogen into the environment

54
Q

What policy was passed to get rid of acid rain and was it effective

A

Clean Air Act which let polluters figure out the least expensive way to reduce their acid rain emissions. Fixed amount of acid that can go in the air and factories could “trade” pollution. Improved pH levels from 4 to 5 in 3 decades

55
Q

What is the residence time of mercury

A

1-2 weeks

56
Q

How can mercury become more lethal

A

It is released from the atmosphere to the ocean where it can reacts with bacteria to become methyl mercury

57
Q

What is ASGM and how does it contribute to mercury levels

A

Artisinal and small-scale gold mining which burns mercury to get the gold it is bonded with

58
Q

What are the types of ozone

A

troposhere (bad ozone) is the inner layer and hold in ozone and stratosphere (good ozone) that is the outer layer that blocks UV light

59
Q

What are CFCs, how are they harmful, and what is their residence time in the atmosphere

A

Chloroflurocarbons destroy the ozone since they live in the stratosphere for a long time resulting in them releasing a Cl when reacting with UV light. 50 years

60
Q

What was done to decrease the amount of CFCs released into the atmosphere

A

Protocol was signed by every country to phase of the use of CFCs by the 2030s; allowed less developed countries 10 more years compared to more developed contries to mitigate emissions

61
Q

How effective was the protocol to mitigate CFC emissions

A

emissions have depleted but the ozone hole is still really bad since CFCs have such a long residence time

62
Q

When was the Clean Air Act passed

A

1970

63
Q

What did the CAA allow the EPA to do

A

Develop the NAAQS to regulate Criteria air pollutants (can cause health issues but not in small concentrations) and Hazardous air pollutants (carcinogenic and dangerous pollutants in small concentrations)

64
Q

How does the market based approach to air pollution work

A

permits are given to polluters that they are allowed to trade. Created a limit on pollution and did not dictate what technology could be used

65
Q

what are some cons to the market based approach to air pollution

A

Can create pollution hotspots, gives large firms (more money) market power, and takes away moral stigma associated with polluting

66
Q

What is soil

A

meter of biochemically altered regiolith

67
Q

What are the uses of soil

A

Crop growth, filter water, regulate aquifer quality, habitat for organisms, and C storage

68
Q

what are the 5 soil forming factors

A

Climate, parent material (volanic rock, ash), Steepness of terrain, Time (longer time for soil to form the better), and Biota (life that is there)

69
Q

How does the steepness of the terrain affect plant life

A

Small relief (difference in highest and lowest spot) is better for soil formation

70
Q

What is the optimal climate for soil development

A

Region with precipitation to evaporation ratio of one

71
Q

How do grass roots help the soil

A

Grass roots are tall allowing them to grab nutrients from deep below the soil. When the grass dies the nutrients is left at the top of the soil

72
Q

What caused the chain reaction that lead to the dust bowl

A

Homestead act of 1862 which created the transcontinental railroad; banks started making money from the railroad and financing houses

73
Q

What crops were mostly used due to the homestead act

A

What which was not adapted to dry climates and does not have roots as deep as the grass that was there

74
Q

What is el nino and la nina

A

El nino is the warmer climate while la nina is the colder climate. Used to predict if a desert or rain will come, if there is cold water a desert will come, if warm water then rain; cycles are about 7-11 years

75
Q

What is evapotranspiration and how did it contribute to the dust bowl

A

When plants cool the Earth’s air by evaporating water; there were no plants leaving the climate very dry

76
Q

What was the aim of the New Deal in terms of the dust bowl

A

Help farmers that were not getting paid enough for their crops and were not getting much relief from the government and focus on the environment

77
Q

How did the soil conservation service persuade farmers to use their tactics

A

Through education and monetary incentives

78
Q

How did the Civilian Conservation Corp help during times of the dust bowl

A

Gave work to the unemployed in which they were tasked with planting trees, stocking water sources with fish, fighting fires…

79
Q

What was the Indian Reorganization Act’s goal and how did they pursue that goal

A

To reduce the number of livestock on the Navajo reservation to an amount that the land could handle; pursued by reducing livestock rather than monetary incentives or cooperation like with farmers

80
Q

What is sustainable Agriculture

A
  1. satisfies human food and fiber needs; enhancing QOL of society and farmers
  2. enhances environmental quality
  3. Makes the most efficient use of nonrewnewable and farmer resources
  4. Sustains the economic viability of farm operations
81
Q

what are the impacts of conventional agriculture

A

high levels of erosion and water use, low N fixation in the soil, negative impacts on biodiversity and health due to chemicals used

82
Q

Why do farmers use conventional ag

A

engrained habits, concern about losing money if switch to other method, bad policies when it comes to crop insurance

83
Q

What is conservation agriculture

A

Using alternative techniques such as no till which causes less erosion due to less plant uptake and leaves organisms in ground

84
Q

What are the pros and cons of conservation agriculture

A

lower water, fertilization, herbicide, tractor, and fuel use but slightly lower yields

85
Q

What is stopping farmers from using conservation ag

A

takes about 5 years for soil to reach ideal environment, lack of human capital (know how) to implement system, many farmers are renting land and this takes time to give back

86
Q

What is organic ag

A

Foregoing the use of pesticides and synthetic fertilizers

87
Q

What are some of the cons for organic ag

A

requires large amounts of non-synthetic nutrients (animal waste, plant based nutrients), more land and labor intensive, less pesticide residue but might lead to more bacteria, higher price for food so less accessible for poorer people

88
Q

Why is biodiversity important

A

resiliency of ecosystems from big changes (climate change), healthier ecosystems and populations of organisms living there, water filtration, can be used for medicine

89
Q

What is species richness

A

number of species in an ecological community

90
Q

What is evenness

A

measure of how evenly distributed species are in an area. Likelihood that two samples from an area give different species; high evenness = high amount of species that exist

91
Q

What are charismatic megafauna

A

large, exotic terrestrail mammals; regarded as beautiful, impressive…

92
Q

What is the problem with the endangered species act

A

protection is not necessarily given to species based on cost or chances of success but emphasis is given to charismatic megafauna

93
Q

What does it mean for a species to be threatened

A

likely to become endangered within the foreseeable future

94
Q

What does it mean for a species to be endangered

A

species is in danger of extinction throughout all or a significant portion of its range

95
Q

What is a watershed and what are other names for it

A

Area of land above a point that contributes water that eventaully passes that same point; AKA drainage basin or catchment

96
Q

What is a drainage divide

A

high point from which water flows towards a point

97
Q

What area of the US can water fall and never go to an ocean

A

the highlands

98
Q

What makes it hard to maintain watershed quality

A

watersheds don’t follow state or county boundaries so policies are hard to keep the same along with airsheds that covers multiple states

99
Q

What are some pollutants of Lake matoaka

A

Fertilizer, sewage, road run-off from oil and things like heavy metals from airsheds

100
Q

What are some current problems with the Chesapeake bay

A

Fishery declines, submerged aquatic vegeatation declines, dissolved oxygen levels

101
Q

How can we find out when declines in watersheds started

A

Take a core from the bay and look at O levels and organic material

102
Q

What is the course of events of a fishery

A

There are a few fishers and lots of fish thus excellent catch, stocks begin to decline while catches remain relatively constant, stocks seriously decline and effort to catch remains the same but catch declines, stock collapses and fishers leave

103
Q

What is a TAC

A

total allowable catch which is when the size of the catch depends on competition and is not pre-assigned

104
Q

How do time restictions with TACs work

A

Fishers are given an amount of time they are allowed to catch fish, fishers manage to catch more than managers think, time is resticted, and the root of the problem is not addressed

105
Q

How do gear restrictions with TACs work

A

Managers prohibit the use of certain gear like nets sizes and number of crew

106
Q

How do property rights help oyster fishing

A

Fishers are given spatial rights over fishing grounds allowing reefs to attach to specific spots and reefs to managed wisely

107
Q

How do IFQs work

A

Individual fishing quotas work by dividing the TAC amongst fishers causing fishers to fish at their leisure making them more profitable and benefiting stock but may not be fair or prevent some from fishing

108
Q

What is anoxia

A

Lack of oxygen

109
Q

What is eutrophication

A

too much nutrients causing excess growth

110
Q

How does eutrophication work

A

Plants produce CO2 and H2O which is converted by the sun into CH2O and O2 allow algae growth which whne dead takes in O killing fish

111
Q

Looking at pollen cores what did Cooper and Brush find

A

There was a rise in Ragweek in the 1760s which coincides with a decrease in oak likely due to cutting down oak to build

112
Q

How did Cooper and Brush calculate age of layers

A

used dated sediment and compared them discovering that around the 1800s the sedimentation rate rose by 5x

113
Q

What are the 3 biggest pollutants in the Chesapeake bay

A

nitrogen, phosphorous, and sediment

114
Q

What is the biggest source of sediment to the Chesapeake Bay

A

agriculture

115
Q

When did the CB go anoxic and how do we know that

A

1950 because that is when pyrite formed which forms in the absence of O

116
Q

What makes ag the biggest contributor to pollution of the CB

A

fertilizers which contain N,P, and K, manurem soil erosion from tilling

117
Q

Has there been a change in the CB due to efforts from the 1980s

A

Nope but there have been decreases in wastewater treatment plant pollution it’s just a small part of the pollution

118
Q

How do riparian buffers work

A

Stip of native vegetation meant to separate ag fields from water sources by stripping the ag water of pollutants but often doesn’t work due to gaps in the buffer

119
Q

Why are SAVs important

A

provide habitats for the lower parts of the food chain adn C storage and uses N and P as nutrition

120
Q

What are point sources

A

sources that release pollutants from discrete conveyances that is regulated

121
Q

What are nonpoint sources

A

combination of pollutants from large are like cars or ag runoff

122
Q

What are CAFOs

A

concentrated animal feeding operations which are required to have permits but only if a certain size and are rarely enforced

123
Q

How does the CAA try to regulate non point sources

A

By establishing TMDLs (total maximum daily loads) for nutrient and sediment-related pollution in each watershed

124
Q

Why does the CAAs regulations for non-point sources fail

A

Non-point sources are hard to track, those with large plots of private land tend to hold political power, and the government can’t buy private property at the necessary scale to affect water quality

125
Q

How does PES work

A

Payments for ecosystem services works to pay people or communities to take actions that increase levels of desired ecosystems on private land

126
Q

What is an easement

A

a private legal agreement between a trust and landowner specifying protection of land permanently, landowner gives up some rights to land, easement transfers with changes in ownership, and the government may provide tax benefits to landowner as benefits

127
Q

What is the issue with easements

A

Not enough financial resources to incentivize owners, monitoring is insufficient, failure in an easement would require legal action which takes time and money

128
Q

What does a Secci Disc measure

A

how cloudy the water is

129
Q

What contributed to increased hg levels around the 1850s? 1950s? late 1900s?

A

Gold production; WWII meal mining and production; post WWII economic expansion

130
Q

What are two natural reasons that southeastern VA is susceptible to soil erosion

A

VA is very wet allowing intense storms to wash soil away and it is a coastal plain which is predominantly loose sand, silt, and clay that easily erodes