Final Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of immunity is inflammation, pH, and protein secretions?

A

Innate Immunity

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2
Q

What type of immunity uses macrophages?

A

Innate immunity

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3
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

Recognize antigens, engulf them, break them down, deliver them to helper T cells for cytokine release

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4
Q

What kind of cells attach to antigens and release cytokines to generate a B cell response?

A

Helper T cells

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5
Q

What kind of cells attach to antigens and destroy them

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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6
Q

What type of immunity uses immune system cells circulating from previous exposure?

A

Adaptive immunity

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7
Q

What type of cells mature to antibody producing cells and memory cells?

A

B cells (humoral immunity)

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8
Q

What type of vaccine must replicate to work?

A

Live attenuated

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9
Q

What type of vaccines do not replicate and may contain adjuvants to enhance the immune response?

A

Inactivated vaccines

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10
Q

What type of immunity do polysaccharide vaccines stimulate?

A

T-cell independent immunity
Short lived and have no booster effect

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11
Q

What type of immunity do conjugate polysaccharide vaccines stimulate?

A

T cell dependent immunity where helper t cells are involved to produce a memory

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12
Q

What are adjuvants?

A

Ingredients added to vaccine that help create a stronger immune response to antigen

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13
Q

What is the minimum interval between two live vaccines?

A

28 days

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14
Q

What happens if the interval between vaccine doses in a series is decreased?

A

Decreasing the interval between doses may interfere with antibody response and protection

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15
Q

What is the universal contraindication for all vaccines?

A

Severe allergy to a vaccine component following a previous dose

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16
Q

Can you give multiple vaccines in one day?

A

Data shows this does not cause any adverse effects but delaying doses will increase risk of infection and outbreajs

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17
Q

When should a Tdap be given in pregnancy?

A

After 20 weeks gestation

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18
Q

What type of vaccines pose an increased risk for an adverse effect due to uninhibited replication for altered immunocompetence?

A

Live vaccines

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19
Q

What is the concern for those who are immunocompromised that receive inactivated vaccines?

A

Decreased effectiveness

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20
Q

What is a grace period?

A

Minimum interval on catch up schedule most is 28 days

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21
Q

What is the ACIP grace period?

A

4 days
Same antigen live vaccines

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22
Q

What influenza vaccine is given to those above 65 years of age?

A

aIIV4 and IIV4-HD

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23
Q

How many doses of the flu vaccine do children 6 months to 8 years of age recieve

A

2
one as soon as possible and the second before october ends and more than 4 weeks after the first

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24
Q

Who should receive the PPSV23?

A

Those over 65
19-64 who smoke, have asthma, diabetes
2 years and older with chronic illness

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25
Q

How many doses of PPSV23 should a patient younger than 65 with immunosuppression or asplenia receive?

A

2 doses 5 years apart

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26
Q

How many doses of PPSV23 should patient under 65 with a cochlear implant or CSF leaks receive?

A

1 dose

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27
Q

If a child that has immunosuppression, CSF leaks, Asplenia, or cochlear implants and is between 6 weeks and 5 years old, which pneumonia vaccine should they recieve?

A

PCV13

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28
Q

If a patient is over 65 years old and is immunocompetent, what pneumonia vaccine should they receive?

A

PCV13

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29
Q

How many doses of PCV13 should be given?

A

1 dose

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30
Q

What kind of vaccine is the varicella vaccine and who should get it?

A

Live attenuated virus vaccine
2 doses to children at least 4 weeks apart (12 months and 4-6 years old)

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31
Q

What kind of vaccine is Shingrix?

A

Recombinant, adjuvanted zoster vaccine

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32
Q

Who should get the zoster vaccine?

A

adults over 50 years old and adults 18 years and older who have immunosuppression or immunodeficiency
2 doses (month 0 and 2)

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33
Q

TF: Dtap has more diptheria than Tdap?

A

True

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34
Q

Who should be routinely vaccinated for Hep A?

A

All persons aged 1 year or older experiencing homelessness

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35
Q

How long can Hep B last on surfaces?

A

7 days

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36
Q

Who should get the hep B vaccine?

A

All infants
All adolescents who have not been previously vaccinated
All adults 18-59
All high risk adults

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37
Q

How many doses of Recombivax HB are given to infants and adolescents and adults?

A

3 does

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38
Q

How many doses of HEPLISAV B (dynavax) are given to adults for HEP B?

A

2 doses one month apart

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39
Q

What is the most common Std?

A

HPV

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40
Q

How many doses are given for the 9vHPV vaccine?

A

3 or 2 doses

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41
Q

How many doses are given to 15-26 year olds of the 9vHPV vaccine?

A

3 doses

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42
Q

How many doses are reccomended for the MCV4 for meningitis?

A

2 doses
One at 11-12
One booster at 16

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43
Q

What kind of vaccine is the MMR Vaccine?

A

Live vaccine

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44
Q

When should adults be given the MMR?

A

If they were born before 1957

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45
Q

How many doses should children get for the MMR?

A

2 doses

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46
Q

What disease does the IPOL vaccine cover?

A

Poliomyelitis

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47
Q

What kind of vaccine is the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Live attenuated (oral)

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48
Q

What do all pharmacists provide?

A

Pharmaceutical care

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49
Q

What is pharmaceutical care?

A

The direct, responsible provision of medication related care for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s quality of life

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50
Q

What kind of setting is ambulatory care?

A

Hospital and community based settings

51
Q

What do association management pharmacists do?

A

offer services to members and the public

52
Q

What kind of pharmacist is the most easily accessible health care provider?

A

Community pharmacists

53
Q

TF: Clinical specialists may require additional training?

A

TRUE

54
Q

Where do pharmacists work that provide health care services and information to undeserved populations?

A

Community health centers

55
Q

Who may home health care pharmacists partner with?

A

hospice, visiting nurse teams, and social services team members

56
Q

What kind of pharmacy has the highest quality drug therapy management for the best price?

A

Managed care pharmacy

57
Q

What pharmacist prepares radioactive materials and requires additional training?

A

Nuclear pharmacists

58
Q

What is the goal of vigilant decision making?

A

Raise awareness of personal goals and motives

59
Q

What part of vigilant desicion making does be proactive fall under?

A

Appraising the challange

60
Q

What part of vigilant decision making does begin with the end in mind fall under?

A

Assessing yourself

61
Q

What part of vigilant decision making does put first things first fall under?

A

Surveying alternatives

62
Q

What is the responsibility of the pharmacist in drug information?

A

Provide drug information in various settings and for various audiences

63
Q

What is drug information?

A

Information found in a reference or verbalized by an individual that pertains to medications

64
Q

What are the opportunities to provide drug information?

A

Direct patient care
Managed care orgs
Insurance industries
Scientific writing and medical communication
Pharmaceutical industry

65
Q

What are the skills needed to provide accurate drug information?

A

Investigation (be thorough and ask questions)
Evaluation (think critically)
Communication (speak with confidence and compassion)

66
Q

What are the three C’s to successful communication?

A

Character (trust)
Competence (confidence)
Chemistry (compassion)

67
Q

What kind of information would you find in tertiary resources?

A

Filtered information
Summaries
Incomplete information and out of date

68
Q

What resource is medscape or facts and comparisons?

A

Tertiary

69
Q

What resource carries indexes and abstracts and usually is a database?

A

Secondary resources

70
Q

What are some examples of secondary resources?

A

PubMed
GoogleScholar
AccessPharmacy
ChochraneLibrary

71
Q

What resource is the most recent, and includes published and unpublished resources?

A

Primary resources

72
Q

Where would you find journals?

A

Primary resources

73
Q

What resource is access pharmacy?

A

Secondary

74
Q

What resource is CINAHL?

A

Secondary

75
Q

What resource is facts and comparisons?

A

Tertiary

76
Q

What resource is MEDLINE?`

A

Secondary

77
Q

What is autruism?

A

Make an unselfish commitment to serve the best interest of the patient above your own

78
Q

What are the 5 core competencies required for all health professionals?

A

Deliver patient centered care
Work as part of an interdisciplinary team
Practice evidence based medicine
Apply quality improvement approaches
Use information technology

79
Q

What are the responsibilities of a pharmacist in mississippi?

A

Dispensing of drugs
Patient records
Prospective drug use review
Patient counseling
Confidentiality

80
Q

What are the 5 rights?

A

Patient
Drug
Time
Dose
Route

81
Q

What are high alert medications?

A

Drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing significant harm when they are used in error

82
Q

What does USP 795 cover?

A

Nonsterile compounding

83
Q

What does USP 797 cover?

A

Sterile compoudning

84
Q

What does USP 800 cover?

A

Handling of hazardous drugs

85
Q

What does NIOSH do?

A

manage the hazardous drug list

86
Q

What type of registrant would fall under M?

A

Mid level practitioner
NP
PA
OD
ET

87
Q

What kind of registrant would fall under A/B/F/G?

A

Hospital
Clinic
Practitioner
Teaching Institution
Pharmacy

88
Q

What is wrong with this DEA?
Peter Adams, PA
AP5836727

A

He is not a doctor (only a mid level so it would start with M)
The first letter of his last name is not P

89
Q

What are the 4 classifications of Med errors?

A

Stage in the medication use process
Types of errors
Mistakes made when planning actions vs errors in the execution
Level of severity

90
Q

What is PDMP?

A

Prescription Drug Monitoring program
Statewide electronic database that collects designated data on controlled substances dispensed in the state

91
Q

TF: MTM is only done by pharmacists?

A

False
MTM is a collaborative effort and not just done by pharmacist

92
Q

What are the 5 MTM core elements?

A

Medication therapy review
Personal medication record
Medication related action plan
Intervention and or referral
Documentation and follow up

93
Q

What are the 5 steps of pharmacists patient care process?

A

Collect
Assess
Plan
Implement
Follow up and monitor

94
Q

TF: Patient counseling is required for all new prescriptions?

A

True

95
Q

TF: Pharmacy is moving away from dispensing and moving towards clinical practice?

A

True

96
Q

What is pharacogenomics?

A

The study of how genes affect a person’s response to drugs

97
Q

What is specialty pharmacy?

A

Aspect of pharmacy practice that deals with specialty drugs

98
Q

What are biologics?

A

Medicines made from living organisms through highly complex manufacturing processes

99
Q

What are biosimilars?

A

A biologic that is similar to another biologic that is already licensed by the FDA

100
Q

What is the Purple book?

A

A book that contains 20 biosimilars currently approved

101
Q

TF: Pharmacists are recognized as independent practitioners

A

FALSE

102
Q

What are the reasons for creation of the pharmacist’s patient care process?

A

Promote consistency
Provide a framework
Design an approach to patient care that facilitates interprofessional collaboration

103
Q

What are the foundational components of PPCP?

A

Establish a patient-pharmacist relationship
Open, effective communication with the patient, family, and caregivers
Collaborate, document, and communicate with physicians and other providers
Utilization of information tech systems

104
Q

What is received from the collect portion of PPCP?

A

Subjective and objective information

105
Q

What is done during the Assess portion of PPCP?

A

Identify and prioritize problems and achieve optimal care

106
Q

Why do we document?

A

If it isnt documented it didnt happen

107
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A

Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan

108
Q

What are the components of Subjective?

A

Chief complaint
HPI
History
ROS
Current medications
Allergies

109
Q

What is used for the HPI?

A

Onset
Location
Duration
Characterization
Alleviating and aggravating factors
Radiation
Temporal factor
Severity

110
Q

What are the components of Objective?

A

Vital signs
PE findings
Lab data
Imaging results
Other diag data
Documentation of other clinicians

111
Q

What factor impacted change in disease pattern between the Prehistoric era and the Neolithic period?

A

Lifestyle (now in permanent dwellings)
Expanded use of plants
Expanded knowledge of materia medica (anything that can be used to heal a patient)

112
Q

For sumerians, what organ was central to life?

A

Liver

113
Q

What Babylonian compound is still commonly used today?

A

Liniments
Licorice root and honey

114
Q

Which greek symbol is usually incorrectly utilized to represent physicians and healthcare workers?

A

Caduceus

115
Q

What was Hippocrates practice philosophy based upon? How did he apply it?

A

Body is composed of 4 humors and when they are healthy they are in balance (homeostasis)

116
Q

Where did the Rx symbol come from?

A

Romans - used to symbol pharmacy

117
Q

What were the three regulations outlined in the edict of frederick II?

A

Separation of pharmaceutical profession from medical profession
Official supervision of pharmaceutical practice
Obligation by oath to prepare drugs reliably and in a uniform suitable quality

118
Q

What system of delivery of medicine in Colonial America would be most similar to modern day community pharmacies?

A

Apothecary Shop

119
Q

What is the first and most commonly used biologic

A

Penicillin

120
Q

What antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming?

A

PEnicillin

121
Q

What was the first national pharmacy association in the US?

A

APhA

122
Q

What pharmacy org is targeted toward hospital pharmacists and regulate pharmacy residency programs?

A

ASHP

123
Q

What pharmacy org oversees the examinations required to become a registered pharmacist?

A

ACPE

124
Q

What is the only religious pharmacy org?

A

CPFI