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Biopsychology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

List two general (non-localizing) symptoms of brain tumors

A 
headache
nausea 
vomiting
mental dullness
decreased arousal (somnolence)
seizures
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2
Q

What are the most benign neoplasms discussed in class?

A

Meningiomas

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3
Q

True or False: There are several types of neurons

A

True.

Sensory neurons
Motor neurons
Interneurons

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4
Q

The ion channels that are involved in depolarization during the action potential open in response to a change in ______

A

voltage

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5
Q

What structure is primarily responsible for maintaining the resting potential?

A

Sodium-potassium pumps

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6
Q

The axon ______ “decides” whether an action potential is created, or whether the neuron will pass along information or not

A

hillock

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7
Q

Name one specific type of cell responsible for myelination

A

Oligodendrocytes

Schwann cells

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8
Q

How is the resting potential maintained?

A

Inside neuron - negatively charged

Extracellular fluid - positively charged

Result is resting potential of ~70mV inside cell

Surplus of potassium ions inside cell

Deficit of sodium ions inside cell

Sodium ions pumped out to counter effect of diffusion across concentration gradient

Potassium ions pumped in to counter effect of diffusion across concentration gradient

Sodium-potassium pumps actively transport sodium out and potassium in at 3:2 rate

This active transport maintains the resting potential

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9
Q

Which ion is responsible for repolarization during the action potential?

A

Potassium (K+)

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10
Q

Dendrites transmit the signal _____ the cell body

A

toward

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11
Q

Axons typically have _____ terminal button(s) / end bulb(s)

A

more than one

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12
Q

True or False: The purpose of myelin is to increase the speed at which the electrical impulse travels

A

True

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13
Q

Potassium (K) channels are faster to open and close than sodium (Na) channels

A

False

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14
Q

List three symptoms of multiple sclerosis, one involving sensory function, one involving motor function, and one other symptom

A

Sensory function - Loss of vision

Motor function - Uncoordinated movement, weakness, leg dragging, stiffness.

Other symptom - Squeezing sensation around the torso

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15
Q

What complicates chemotherapy for brain tumors?

A

The action of the blood-brain barrier does not allow for chemicals in the blood stream to enter most parts of the brain

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16
Q

The element of the cytoskeleton that mediates axonal transport are called ______

A

microtubules

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17
Q

List two differences between axons and dendrites in a typical neuron

A

Dendrites exhibit arborization while axons are consistent in diameter and consist of a single tube

Dendrites pass information toward the soma while axons pass impulses away from the soma

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18
Q

What happens if the membrane at the “beginning” of the axon, near the soma, does NOT reach threshold?

A

The resting potential is maintained

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19
Q

True or False: During repolarization the neuron cannot fire an action potential.

A

True

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20
Q

The depolarization (rising) phase of the action potential is primarily caused by which of the following?

a. sodium flowing in
b. sodium flowing out
c. potassium flowing in
d. potassium flowing out

A

a. Sodium (Na) flowing in

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21
Q

The unmyelinated regions of myelinated axons are called nodes of ________

A

ranvier

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22
Q

What part of the neuron is involved in multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A

Axons

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23
Q

Which of the following would be the best way to make a pathway in your brain faster?

A

Reduce the number of synapses

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24
Q

True or False: The most common neurotransmitter in the human nervous system is an amino acid

A

True

Glutamate

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25
Q

If axodendritic synapses are like one-way streets, what type of synapse is like a two-way street?

A

Dendrodendritic

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26
Q

Neurotransmitter is removed from the synapse through enzymatic degradation, diffusion, and ______

A

reuptake

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27
Q

What ion signals vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane?

A

Calcium (Ca+)

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28
Q

True or False: Excitatory postsynaptic potentials result in hyperpolarization.

A

False

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29
Q

Large molecule neurotransmitters are typically released in what type of synapse?

A

Non-directed

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30
Q

Which of the following is an example of an agonist?

a. Blocking a receptor
b. Preventing the breakdown of a neurotransmitter
c. Hindering synthesis of a neurotransmitter
d. Blocking the release of a neurotransmitter

A

b. Preventing the breakdown of a neurotransmitter

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31
Q

Stimulant drugs produce their effects by influencing which neurotransmitter?

A

Dopamine

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32
Q

At the synapse, communication is mediated chemically or electrically?

A

Chemically

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33
Q

List two differences between postsynaptic potentials and action potentials.

A

PSPs are decremental, graded, slower than APs, and are a passive process

APs are non-decremental, non-graded, faster than PSPs, and can be both active or passive processes

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34
Q

Why is it so easy to overdose on sedatives?

A

There are different receptors that will receive different sedatives, so multiple types of sedatives will not compete for receptors. The multiple types of receptors leads to a dangerous accumulation of sedative effects

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35
Q

True or False: Secondary seizures have no known etiology

A

False

Etiologies:
Tumors			
Vascular lesions (strokes)
Head trauma		
Infection
Congenital defects		
High fever (febrile)
Electrolyte imbalance	
Hypoglycemia
Drugs
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36
Q

According to conditioned drug tolerance, in what type of environment is an individual most likely to overdose?

A

A novel environment different from the one in which they normally use.

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37
Q

______ is a group of disorders involving seizures.

A

Epilepsy

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38
Q

List two ways in which generalized seizures differ from partial seizures.

A

Generalized seizures affect a greater number of regions in the brain and are less common than partial seizures

Partial seizures are more localized to specific parts of the brain and have a greater prevalence than generalized seizures

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39
Q

True or False: Neurotransmitter receptors exist on both the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.

A

True

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40
Q

What is the difference between a directed and a non-directed synapse?

A

Directed synapses are specifically connecting one synapse to another, and are separated by a synaptic cleft on a receiving dendrite or soma

Non-directed synapses are not aimed at any particular synapse but rather release neurotransmitters into the extracellular fluid in a more diffuse, less directed manner

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41
Q

Two postsynaptic potentials impact a neuron at the same time but in different synapses. This is an example of what type of summation?

A

Spatial

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42
Q

According to the lecture, the brain structure involved in pleasurable experiences is called the _______

A

nucleus accumbens

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43
Q

Which part of the brain is most associated with balance and coordination?

A

Cerebellum

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44
Q

What are the two elements of the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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45
Q

Damage to the reticular formation is most likely to create which of the following symptoms?

a. Heart attack
b. Coma
c. Poor judgment
d. Poor Coordination

A

b. Coma

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46
Q

For other parts of the nervous system to communicate with the cortex they usually have to go through the _______

A

Thalamus

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47
Q

What structure is responsible for maintaining body temperature, body weight, and other elements of a constant internal body environment?

A

Hypothalamus

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48
Q

If I cut off the top of your head, what plane would I be in?

A

Horizontal

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49
Q

The large commissure connecting the two hemispheres of the cortex is called the _________

A

corpus callosum

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50
Q

True or False: All cranial nerves are mixed nerves

A

False

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51
Q

What is the name of the secret lobe of the cortex that sits inside the Sylvian sulcus, the sulcus that is the superior margin of the temporal lobe?

A

Insula

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52
Q

Another name for efferent is _______

A

motor

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53
Q

The cerebral aqueduct divides the midbrain into the tectum and _______

A

tegmentum

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54
Q

Which part of the brain is most associated with thinking or cognition?

A

The cortex

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55
Q

What part of the cortex sends information to tertiary motor cortex?

A

Tertiary sensory cortex

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56
Q

True or False: The pons is superior to the medulla.

A

True

Superior to the medulla
Inferior to the midbrain
Anterior to the cerebellum

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57
Q

True or False: Subcortical nuclei are myelinated

A

False

Grey matter is, by definition, non-myelinated

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58
Q

What is a nerve?

A

A bundle of axons and dendrites - mostly axons

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59
Q

Identify one difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems

A

(Functional division of the nervous system)

Somatic - innervates striated muscles

Autonomic - innervates smooth muscles of internal organs (glands, blood vessels)

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60
Q

Identify one structure that is part of the limbic system

A 
Cingulate gyrus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Amygdala
Hippocampus
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61
Q

Most of the human brain is subcortical white matter

A

False

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62
Q

Which of the following structures is most associated with basic functions like maintaining heart rate and blood pressure?

a. Cerebellum
b. Midbrain
c. Basal ganglia
d. Medulla

A

d. Medulla

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63
Q

What is the name of the structure that functions like a reservoir which receives blood from the heart then distributes it to the brain?

A

Circle of Willis

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64
Q

How many ventricles are in the human brain?

A

4

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65
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is made by glial cells in a type of capillary bed called _______ plexus

A

choroid

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66
Q

A weak area in the wall of a blood vessel is called a(n):

A

aneurysm

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67
Q

Regarding stroke, which of the following is NOT true?

a. Motor symptoms include weakness
b. Sensory symptoms include severe headache
c. Symptoms are usually unilateral
d. Symptom onset is usually slow

A

d. Symptom onset is usually slow

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68
Q

The vertebral arteries join to form what artery?

A

Basilar

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69
Q

What are the two parts to the definition of a concussion?

A

Impact to the head and any alteration of consciousness

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70
Q

What are the three functions of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A

Mechanical support - supports the weight of the brain and spine

Metabolite/waste product removal

Protection

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71
Q

True or False: The severity of a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is often measured by the duration of memory loss (amnesia).

A

True

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72
Q

Little Jimmy steps on the end of a rake and it swings up and hits him in the forehead. In this case the coup is located in what lobe of the cortex?

A

Frontal

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73
Q

True or False: All other factors being equal, hemorrhagic strokes are more severe than ischemic strokes.

A

True

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74
Q

The area of dead tissue following a stroke is called a(n) _______

A

infarct

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75
Q

Who is most likely to experience a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

A male in their 20s

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76
Q

List two ways in which traumatic brain injury (TBI) impacts brain function.

A

Memory impairment

Impairment of social skills

77
Q

Regarding recovery from closed head injury, which of the following is false?

a. Chronic reduction in quality of life is common
b. The effects of even mild injuries are cumulative
c. Chronic neurological signs are common
d. Most recovery occurs within the first 6-9 months

A

c. Chronic neurological signs are common

Chronic effects lack neurological signs

78
Q

The twisting and pulling of axons that produces tiny lesions is called axonal ______

A

shearing

79
Q

True or False: Strokes involving the middle cerebral artery can cause motor and sensory symptoms.

A

True

80
Q

Some say that personality resides in the frontal lobes. Why is this a reasonable conclusion?

A

The frontal lobe is charged with choosing action and behavior. Personality is a set of fairly predictable actions and behaviors over time. If the frontal lobe is charged with choosing action and behavior, and personality is defined by action and behavioral predictability over time, then it could be said that the personality resides in the frontal lobe

81
Q

Regarding the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, which of the following is/are true?
Select one:
a. Aricept blocks the release of acetylcholine.
b. Medication slows the progression of the disease.
c. All of the other options are true.
d. Namenda promotes the release of glutamate.

A

b. Medication slows the progression of the disease.

82
Q 
Which of the following is a structure related to medial temporal cortex?
Select one:
a. Hippocampus
b. Calcarine sulcus
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Broca's area
A

a. Hippocampus

83
Q

The part of the prefrontal cortex that is just above the eyes is called:

A

Orbital prefrontal cortex

84
Q 
During magnetic resonance imaging, the magnet:
Select one:
a. Causes protons to spin
b. Causes protons spin on parallel axes
c. Causes electrons to wobble
d. Causes protons to wobble
A

b. Causes protons spin on parallel axes

85
Q

Define dementia

A

A degradation of functional and cognitive performance over time due to physical changes in the brain.

86
Q

The greatest risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease is:

A

Age

87
Q

More abstract processing takes place in the anterior part of the frontal lobes compared to more posterior parts of the frontal lobes

A

True

88
Q

During positron emission tomography (PET), positrons collide with ______ to produce a photon or gamma ray

A

electrons

89
Q

The cellular pathology of Alzheimer’s disease involves neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary _______

A

tangles

90
Q

Premotor cortex is also known as _____ motor cortex.

A

secondary

91
Q

True or False: Computerized tomography (CT or CAT) is more expensive than magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

A

False

92
Q

True or False: Primary auditory cortex is organized according to sound wave frequency (pitch)

A

True

93
Q

True or False: All individuals with Alzheimer’s disease have dementia

A

True

94
Q

The function of the parietal lobes is to integrate visual and ______ information for the control of movement

A

somatosensory

95
Q

Regarding contralateral neglect, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. It often follows damage to the occipital lobe
b. Patients usually ignore the right side space
c. It is best thought of as a vision problem
d. It is less likely following damage on the left side of the brain

A

d. It is less likely following damage on the left side of the brain

96
Q 
In functional imaging, colors usually represent:
Select one:
a. Neuron electrical current
b. Relative activity levels
c. Temperature
d. Proton density
A

b. Relative activity levels

97
Q

Describe a task that an individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex would have difficulty completing and explain why they would find it difficult

A

They may have difficulty with divergent thinking, which is coming up with answers to questions that have multiple possible answers. They might find this difficult because the prefrontal cortex is charged with abstract reasoning and planning

98
Q

Describe an arithmetic error that could result from damage to the left posterior parietal lobe

A

Difficulty with subtracting or dividing numbers as this requires both spatial and mathematical language components

99
Q 
Broca's area is a specific element of:
Select one:
a. secondary motor cortex
b. Maxillary motor cortex
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Tertiary motor cortex
A

a. secondary motor cortex

100
Q

True or False: Dyskinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

A

False

101
Q 
Transduction:
Select one:
a. is subjective
b. is performed by receptors
c. None of these is correct
d. is greater than sensation
A

b. is performed by receptors

102
Q

Tremor in Parkinson’s disease is likely related to damage to _____ feedback loops that function like a thermostat.

A

inhibitory

103
Q

The extrapyramidal system functions to modulate the size and ______ of movement.

A

force

104
Q

True or False: Motor control of the trunk via the pyramidal tract is ipsilateral

A

True

105
Q 
The extrapyramidal system involves feedback loops between the basal ganglia and the \_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. substantia nigra
b. motor cortex
c. red nucleus
d. lower motor neuron
A

b. motor cortex

106
Q 
According to lecture, one of the earliest locations of cell death in Parkinson's disease is the:
Select one:
a. red nucleus
b. caudate
c. substantia nigra
d. putamen
A

c. substantia nigra

107
Q

Explain how the cerebellum mediates learning complex motor skills.

A

Over time, it works to reduce the discrepancy between intended movement and actual movement

108
Q

Perception takes place in the _______

A

brain

109
Q

More cortex is devoted to processing information from the center of the visual field. What is the name for this phenomenon?

A

Cortical magnification

110
Q

True or False: Kinesthesis is knowledge of head orientation from the semicircular canals in the inner ear.

A

False

111
Q 
The receptive fields of neurons in primary visual cortex are shaped like:
Select one:
a. donuts
b. Sponge Bob
c. circles
d. bars
A

d. bars

112
Q

Damage to the ventral stream could lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Hemianopia
b. Difficulty reaching for objects
c. Scotoma
d. Difficulty identifying objects visually

A

d. Difficulty identifying objects visually

113
Q

Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s disease is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Etiology is unknown.
b. Pharmacotherapy with levodopa is a common treatment.
c. Symptom onset is typically in the 30’s.
d. Course is progressive.

A

c. Symptom onset is typically in the 30’s.

114
Q

Where does the pyramidal tract decussate?

A

The medulla

115
Q

True or False: Information from the left eye is only processed by the right brain.

A

False

116
Q

In visual association cortex, different elements of visual stimuli are processed in different regions. Identify two of the three elements of vision that undergo segregated processing

A

Form, color, and motion

117
Q

The optic nerve is composed of ______ cell axons.

A

ganglion

118
Q

The part of the world to which a receptor responds is called its receptive _______

A

field

119
Q

Where is the cell body of the upper motor neuron located?

A

In the motor cortex

120
Q

What are the phases of neurodevelopment? There are 5

A
  1. Induction of the neural plate
  2. Neural proliferation
  3. Migration
  4. Axon growth and synapse formation
  5. Neuron death and synapse rearrangement
121
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

What’s the name of the patch of tissue on the dorsal surface of the embryo that becomes the neural plate?

A

Ectoderm

122
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

What signals the induction of development and comes from the mesoderm?

A

Chemical signals or “the organizer”

123
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

What folds to form the neural groove?

A

The neural plate

124
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

The lips of the groove fuse to form what?

A

A tube that becomes the ventricular system

125
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

The anterior end of the tube forms 3 swellings. What do these become?

A

The hind-, mid-, and forebrain

126
Q

Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate

What does the neural crest develop into?

A

The PNS

127
Q

Phase 2: Neural Proliferation

Which cells proliferate?

A

Neural tube cells

128
Q

Phase 2: Neural Proliferation

Most cell division is adjacent to what?

A

The ventricle

129
Q

Phase 2: Neural Proliferation

What guides neural proliferation?

A

Chemicals

They are used to tell cells when to divide, move, grow - molecules detected on exterior surface of cell that function like signals. They’re like signposts that tell their neuron and other cells in nervous system what to do

130
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Define migration of cells and 2 defining features of these cells

A

Movement to the appropriate location

Migrating cells are immature and they lack axons and dendrites

131
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Define migration of cells and 2 defining features of these cells

A

Movement to the appropriate location

Migrating cells are immature and they lack axons and dendrites

132
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Do the cells migrate all at once?

A

They migrate in waves

133
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Do the cells come from different parts of the tubes?

A

They travel in waves from the same part of the tube

134
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Do the migrating cells traveling in the same wave go to different locations?

A

Cells traveling in waves go to the same location

135
Q

Phase 3: Migration

What aids the migration of cells?

A

Cell-adhesion molecules (CAMS)

CAMS are located on cell membranes and they recognize and adhere to molecules on other cells

They aid in guidance via chemicals

136
Q

Phase 3: Migration

What are the two types of migration? Briefly describe both

A

Types = Direction of migration

Radial - outward from the tube (tube is in middle)

Tangential - parallel to the tube

Most cells engage in both radial and tangential migration

137
Q

Phase 3: Migration

What are the two types of migration and briefly describe both.

A

Types = Direction

Radial - outward from the tube (tube is in middle)

Tangential - parallel to the tube

Most cells engage in both radial and tangential migration

138
Q

Phase 3: Migration

What are the two methods of migration? Briefly describe both

A

Methods = Style of migration

Somal translocation: An extension develops that leads migration

Glial-mediated migration: Cell moves along temporary network of radial glial cells in neural tube

139
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Briefly describe how the extension of somal translocation works

A

The extension looks for attractive and repulsive chemicals. It works like a sticky-hand toy

140
Q

Phase 3: Migration

Radial glial cell bodies and radially migrating neurons move from the ________ to the brain’s surface when developing

A

Ventricular zone

141
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Once migration is complete, what occurs?

A

Axons and dendrites begin to grow

142
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Describe the growth cone

A

It is a growing tip of each axon and dendrite. It extends and retracts fingerlike filopodia. They help the process move in a particular direction

143
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Describe pioneer growth cones

A

They are the first to travel a route. They interact with guidance molecules

144
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

The tendency of developing axons to grow along the paths established by preceding axons is known as _______

A

Fasciculation

145
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

From one to another, what kinds of maps do axons typically move from as they develop?

A

Topographic maps

146
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

For what reason may topographic maps have developed?

A

To minimize connections

147
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Axons are guided from one map to another because targets are arranged in the same way as cell bodies at the origin describes what hypothesis?

A

Topographic Gradient Hypothesis

148
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

What does synaptogenesis depend on?

A

Depends on the presence of astrocytes.

They process, transfer, and store information

149
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

True or false: The process of synaptogenesis stops around age 5

A

False. It continues into adulthood

150
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Is every formed axon and synapse genetically assigned to a location?

A

No. Too many (10 to the 14th power) to all be assigned.

There’s not enough DNA to code for every synapse and axon.

We make a ton and then keep the ones that are used and functional.

Like a sculpture being relieved from the marble.

151
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

Between what ages is the most rapid formation of axon growth and synapse formation?

A

Between birth and 2. The peak in macaque monkeys is 40,000/second

152
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

When does the rapid elimination of axons and synapses occur? This is called what?

A

During adolescence

Synaptic pruning or just pruning

153
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

The number of axons and synapses is stable or fluctuating through middle age?

A

Stable. The generation of new is balanced by the loss of old synapses

154
Q
  1. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation

The rate of decline in synapses increases or decreases with age late in life?

A

Increases

155
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

Approximately how many more neurons are produced than are actually needed?

A

~50%

156
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

True or false: Neurons die all at once in various brain locations

A

False. They die in waves at various locations.

157
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

What is apoptosis?

A

Active neuron death. It is safer than necrosis because necrotic rupture leads to inflammation

158
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

For what two reasons do neurons die?

A

Genetic programming

Failure to obtain chemicals provided by targets (e.g., Nerve Growth Factor (NGF))

159
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

What occurs when neurons fail to establish connections?

A

They are likely to die

160
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

What occurs in the space left after apoptosis?

A

Space is filled by sprouting axon terminals of surviving neurons

161
Q
  1. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement

The process of synapse rearrangement post apoptosis leads to an increased selectivity of ______

A

transmission.

It’s a more focused pattern of synaptic contact

162
Q

Myelination:

Which cortices receive myelination first?

A

Primary cortices

163
Q

Myelination:

Are parts receiving sensory input myelinated before or after parts producing motor output?

A

Before. Hypothesis is that it’s best to understand the surrounding environment before we start acting in it

164
Q

Postnatal Cerebral Development in Human Infants:

True or false: Brain volume triples post birth.

True or false: This is due to additional neurons.

A

False. It quadruples

False. Only the olfactory bulb and hippocampus create new neurons after birth

165
Q

Postnatal Cerebral Development in Human Infants:

Postnatal cerebral growth is due to…

A
  1. Synaptogenesis
  2. Myelination
  3. Increased dendritic branches
166
Q

Early Studies of Experience and Neurodevelopment:

Early visual deprivation leads to…

A
  1. Fewer synapses and dendritic spines in the primary visual cortex
  2. Deficits in depth and pattern vision
167
Q

Early Studies of Experience and Neurodevelopment:

Early enriched environment leads to…

A
  1. Thicker cortexes
  2. Greater dendritic development
  3. More synapses per neuron
168
Q

Development in Childhood:

True or False: Less brain volume is required to perform a cognitive task in childhood.

A

False. More brain volume is required.

Greater specialization comes with age
OR
Task is more difficult for children

169
Q

Development in Childhood:

True or False: There is no relationship between cognitive and neural development

A

False. There are brain growth spurts that coincide with the 1st four stages of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

170
Q

Development in Childhood:

Development is highly impacted by _______ interaction.

A

human

Children neglected in orphanages become intellectually disabled. Those removed and raised in mental institutions have normal IQs

171
Q

Biopsychology of Emotion:

Briefly describe the modern biopsychological view of emotion

A

Perception of fear stimulus - physiological reactions - feeling of fear - these are all interdependent and interacting with each other

172
Q

The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:

What do the nuclei and tracts surround?

A

thalamus

173
Q

The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:

Through the action of what structures are emotions expressed?

A

structures on the hypothalamus

174
Q

The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:

Through the action of what structures are emotions experienced?

A

structures on the cortex

175
Q

The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:

What does the cortex direct and inhibit?

A

aggression

176
Q

The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:

Explain sham rage in cats

A

Decorticate cats are excessively aggressive

Aggression is not typically directed at an object

177
Q

The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:

What is active during the experience of emotion and empathy?

A

Motor and sensory cortex. These are important for the experience of emotion (read: not expression)

178
Q

The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:

PFC selects behavior based on what?

A

context

179
Q

The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:

What is the context comprised of?

A

Internal and external components - “yellow light dilemma”

180
Q

The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:

What section of the PFC mediates impulse/emotional control?

A

Orbital PFC - think of Phineas Gage

Damage leads to disinhibition and explosive outbursts

181
Q

The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:

Which section of the PFC mediates emotion-cognition interaction?

A

Medial PFC - especially during cognitive suppression or reevaluation of emotion

182
Q

The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:

The Subcallosal Gyrus mediates what?

A

Sadness - it’s the target of DBS for severe depression

183
Q

The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:

Explain Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

A

Anterior temporal lobectomy leads to eating, sexual activity, placidity, and lack of fear. It occurs following damage to the amygdala alone

184
Q

The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:

When is the amygdala active?

A

During fear/negative emotions and perception of fear in others

185
Q

The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:

True or False: The amygdala receives input from all sensory systems

A

True

186
Q

The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:

True or False: The amygdala associates experiences with consequences

A

True - it adds emotional significance to stimuli

187
Q

The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:

Name two things the basolateral region does

A
  • Assesses dangerousness of stimuli
  • Mediates fear conditioning
  • Input from hippocampus for contextual fear conditioning
  • Input from PFC to inhibit fear conditioning
  • Output to hypothalamus for autonomic response (Expression of emotion)
  • Output to Orbitofrontal cortex (via thalamus) for perception of emotion
188
Q

The Role of the Dopamine in Emotion:

What two structures mediate reward and pleasure (natural rewards, ICSS, addictive drugs)?

A

Nucleus accumbens and Septal Nuclei

189
Q

The Role of the Dopamine in Emotion:

What accounts for the euphoria experienced when stimulants are taken?

A

Increased DA from the NA

Biopsychology (3 decks)

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