Final Flashcards
1
Q
List two general (non-localizing) symptoms of brain tumors
A
headache nausea vomiting mental dullness decreased arousal (somnolence) seizures
2
Q
What are the most benign neoplasms discussed in class?
A
Meningiomas
3
Q
True or False: There are several types of neurons
A
True.
Sensory neurons
Motor neurons
Interneurons
4
Q
The ion channels that are involved in depolarization during the action potential open in response to a change in ______
A
voltage
5
Q
What structure is primarily responsible for maintaining the resting potential?
A
Sodium-potassium pumps
6
Q
The axon ______ “decides” whether an action potential is created, or whether the neuron will pass along information or not
A
hillock
7
Q
Name one specific type of cell responsible for myelination
A
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells
8
Q
How is the resting potential maintained?
A
Inside neuron - negatively charged
Extracellular fluid - positively charged
Result is resting potential of ~70mV inside cell
Surplus of potassium ions inside cell
Deficit of sodium ions inside cell
Sodium ions pumped out to counter effect of diffusion across concentration gradient
Potassium ions pumped in to counter effect of diffusion across concentration gradient
Sodium-potassium pumps actively transport sodium out and potassium in at 3:2 rate
This active transport maintains the resting potential
9
Q
Which ion is responsible for repolarization during the action potential?
A
Potassium (K+)
10
Q
Dendrites transmit the signal _____ the cell body
A
toward
11
Q
Axons typically have _____ terminal button(s) / end bulb(s)
A
more than one
12
Q
True or False: The purpose of myelin is to increase the speed at which the electrical impulse travels
A
True
13
Q
Potassium (K) channels are faster to open and close than sodium (Na) channels
A
False
14
Q
List three symptoms of multiple sclerosis, one involving sensory function, one involving motor function, and one other symptom
A
Sensory function - Loss of vision
Motor function - Uncoordinated movement, weakness, leg dragging, stiffness.
Other symptom - Squeezing sensation around the torso
15
Q
What complicates chemotherapy for brain tumors?
A
The action of the blood-brain barrier does not allow for chemicals in the blood stream to enter most parts of the brain
16
Q
The element of the cytoskeleton that mediates axonal transport are called ______
A
microtubules
17
Q
List two differences between axons and dendrites in a typical neuron
A
Dendrites exhibit arborization while axons are consistent in diameter and consist of a single tube
Dendrites pass information toward the soma while axons pass impulses away from the soma
18
Q
What happens if the membrane at the “beginning” of the axon, near the soma, does NOT reach threshold?
A
The resting potential is maintained
19
Q
True or False: During repolarization the neuron cannot fire an action potential.
A
True
20
Q
The depolarization (rising) phase of the action potential is primarily caused by which of the following?
a. sodium flowing in
b. sodium flowing out
c. potassium flowing in
d. potassium flowing out
A
a. Sodium (Na) flowing in
21
Q
The unmyelinated regions of myelinated axons are called nodes of ________
A
ranvier
22
Q
What part of the neuron is involved in multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A
Axons
23
Q
Which of the following would be the best way to make a pathway in your brain faster?
A
Reduce the number of synapses
24
Q
True or False: The most common neurotransmitter in the human nervous system is an amino acid
A
True
Glutamate
25
If axodendritic synapses are like one-way streets, what type of synapse is like a two-way street?
Dendrodendritic
26
Neurotransmitter is removed from the synapse through enzymatic degradation, diffusion, and ______
reuptake
27
What ion signals vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic membrane?
Calcium (Ca+)
28
True or False: Excitatory postsynaptic potentials result in hyperpolarization.
False
29
Large molecule neurotransmitters are typically released in what type of synapse?
Non-directed
30
Which of the following is an example of an agonist?
a. Blocking a receptor
b. Preventing the breakdown of a neurotransmitter
c. Hindering synthesis of a neurotransmitter
d. Blocking the release of a neurotransmitter
b. Preventing the breakdown of a neurotransmitter
31
Stimulant drugs produce their effects by influencing which neurotransmitter?
Dopamine
32
At the synapse, communication is mediated chemically or electrically?
Chemically
33
List two differences between postsynaptic potentials and action potentials.
PSPs are decremental, graded, slower than APs, and are a passive process
APs are non-decremental, non-graded, faster than PSPs, and can be both active or passive processes
34
Why is it so easy to overdose on sedatives?
There are different receptors that will receive different sedatives, so multiple types of sedatives will not compete for receptors. The multiple types of receptors leads to a dangerous accumulation of sedative effects
35
True or False: Secondary seizures have no known etiology
False
```
Etiologies:
Tumors
Vascular lesions (strokes)
Head trauma
Infection
Congenital defects
High fever (febrile)
Electrolyte imbalance
Hypoglycemia
Drugs
```
36
According to conditioned drug tolerance, in what type of environment is an individual most likely to overdose?
A novel environment different from the one in which they normally use.
37
______ is a group of disorders involving seizures.
Epilepsy
38
List two ways in which generalized seizures differ from partial seizures.
Generalized seizures affect a greater number of regions in the brain and are less common than partial seizures
Partial seizures are more localized to specific parts of the brain and have a greater prevalence than generalized seizures
39
True or False: Neurotransmitter receptors exist on both the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes.
True
40
What is the difference between a directed and a non-directed synapse?
Directed synapses are specifically connecting one synapse to another, and are separated by a synaptic cleft on a receiving dendrite or soma
Non-directed synapses are not aimed at any particular synapse but rather release neurotransmitters into the extracellular fluid in a more diffuse, less directed manner
41
Two postsynaptic potentials impact a neuron at the same time but in different synapses. This is an example of what type of summation?
Spatial
42
According to the lecture, the brain structure involved in pleasurable experiences is called the _______
nucleus accumbens
43
Which part of the brain is most associated with balance and coordination?
Cerebellum
44
What are the two elements of the central nervous system (CNS)?
Brain and spinal cord
45
Damage to the reticular formation is most likely to create which of the following symptoms?
a. Heart attack
b. Coma
c. Poor judgment
d. Poor Coordination
b. Coma
46
For other parts of the nervous system to communicate with the cortex they usually have to go through the _______
Thalamus
47
What structure is responsible for maintaining body temperature, body weight, and other elements of a constant internal body environment?
Hypothalamus
48
If I cut off the top of your head, what plane would I be in?
Horizontal
49
The large commissure connecting the two hemispheres of the cortex is called the _________
corpus callosum
50
True or False: All cranial nerves are mixed nerves
False
51
What is the name of the secret lobe of the cortex that sits inside the Sylvian sulcus, the sulcus that is the superior margin of the temporal lobe?
Insula
52
Another name for efferent is _______
motor
53
The cerebral aqueduct divides the midbrain into the tectum and _______
tegmentum
54
Which part of the brain is most associated with thinking or cognition?
The cortex
55
What part of the cortex sends information to tertiary motor cortex?
Tertiary sensory cortex
56
True or False: The pons is superior to the medulla.
True
Superior to the medulla
Inferior to the midbrain
Anterior to the cerebellum
57
True or False: Subcortical nuclei are myelinated
False
Grey matter is, by definition, non-myelinated
58
What is a nerve?
A bundle of axons and dendrites - mostly axons
59
Identify one difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems
(Functional division of the nervous system)
Somatic - innervates striated muscles
Autonomic - innervates smooth muscles of internal organs (glands, blood vessels)
60
Identify one structure that is part of the limbic system
```
Cingulate gyrus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Amygdala
Hippocampus
```
61
Most of the human brain is subcortical white matter
False
62
Which of the following structures is most associated with basic functions like maintaining heart rate and blood pressure?
a. Cerebellum
b. Midbrain
c. Basal ganglia
d. Medulla
d. Medulla
63
What is the name of the structure that functions like a reservoir which receives blood from the heart then distributes it to the brain?
Circle of Willis
64
How many ventricles are in the human brain?
4
65
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is made by glial cells in a type of capillary bed called _______ plexus
choroid
66
A weak area in the wall of a blood vessel is called a(n):
aneurysm
67
Regarding stroke, which of the following is NOT true?
a. Motor symptoms include weakness
b. Sensory symptoms include severe headache
c. Symptoms are usually unilateral
d. Symptom onset is usually slow
d. Symptom onset is usually slow
68
The vertebral arteries join to form what artery?
Basilar
69
What are the two parts to the definition of a concussion?
Impact to the head and any alteration of consciousness
70
What are the three functions of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Mechanical support - supports the weight of the brain and spine
Metabolite/waste product removal
Protection
71
True or False: The severity of a traumatic brain injury (TBI) is often measured by the duration of memory loss (amnesia).
True
72
Little Jimmy steps on the end of a rake and it swings up and hits him in the forehead. In this case the coup is located in what lobe of the cortex?
Frontal
73
True or False: All other factors being equal, hemorrhagic strokes are more severe than ischemic strokes.
True
74
The area of dead tissue following a stroke is called a(n) _______
infarct
75
Who is most likely to experience a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A male in their 20s
76
List two ways in which traumatic brain injury (TBI) impacts brain function.
Memory impairment
Impairment of social skills
77
Regarding recovery from closed head injury, which of the following is false?
a. Chronic reduction in quality of life is common
b. The effects of even mild injuries are cumulative
c. Chronic neurological signs are common
d. Most recovery occurs within the first 6-9 months
c. Chronic neurological signs are common
Chronic effects lack neurological signs
78
The twisting and pulling of axons that produces tiny lesions is called axonal ______
shearing
79
True or False: Strokes involving the middle cerebral artery can cause motor and sensory symptoms.
True
80
Some say that personality resides in the frontal lobes. Why is this a reasonable conclusion?
The frontal lobe is charged with choosing action and behavior. Personality is a set of fairly predictable actions and behaviors over time. If the frontal lobe is charged with choosing action and behavior, and personality is defined by action and behavioral predictability over time, then it could be said that the personality resides in the frontal lobe
81
Regarding the treatment of Alzheimer's disease, which of the following is/are true?
Select one:
a. Aricept blocks the release of acetylcholine.
b. Medication slows the progression of the disease.
c. All of the other options are true.
d. Namenda promotes the release of glutamate.
b. Medication slows the progression of the disease.
82
```
Which of the following is a structure related to medial temporal cortex?
Select one:
a. Hippocampus
b. Calcarine sulcus
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Broca's area
```
a. Hippocampus
83
The part of the prefrontal cortex that is just above the eyes is called:
Orbital prefrontal cortex
84
```
During magnetic resonance imaging, the magnet:
Select one:
a. Causes protons to spin
b. Causes protons spin on parallel axes
c. Causes electrons to wobble
d. Causes protons to wobble
```
b. Causes protons spin on parallel axes
85
Define dementia
A degradation of functional and cognitive performance over time due to physical changes in the brain.
86
The greatest risk factor for Alzheimer's disease is:
Age
87
More abstract processing takes place in the anterior part of the frontal lobes compared to more posterior parts of the frontal lobes
True
88
During positron emission tomography (PET), positrons collide with ______ to produce a photon or gamma ray
electrons
89
The cellular pathology of Alzheimer's disease involves neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary _______
tangles
90
Premotor cortex is also known as _____ motor cortex.
secondary
91
True or False: Computerized tomography (CT or CAT) is more expensive than magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
False
92
True or False: Primary auditory cortex is organized according to sound wave frequency (pitch)
True
93
True or False: All individuals with Alzheimer's disease have dementia
True
94
The function of the parietal lobes is to integrate visual and ______ information for the control of movement
somatosensory
95
Regarding contralateral neglect, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. It often follows damage to the occipital lobe
b. Patients usually ignore the right side space
c. It is best thought of as a vision problem
d. It is less likely following damage on the left side of the brain
d. It is less likely following damage on the left side of the brain
96
```
In functional imaging, colors usually represent:
Select one:
a. Neuron electrical current
b. Relative activity levels
c. Temperature
d. Proton density
```
b. Relative activity levels
97
Describe a task that an individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex would have difficulty completing and explain why they would find it difficult
They may have difficulty with divergent thinking, which is coming up with answers to questions that have multiple possible answers. They might find this difficult because the prefrontal cortex is charged with abstract reasoning and planning
98
Describe an arithmetic error that could result from damage to the left posterior parietal lobe
Difficulty with subtracting or dividing numbers as this requires both spatial and mathematical language components
99
```
Broca's area is a specific element of:
Select one:
a. secondary motor cortex
b. Maxillary motor cortex
c. Primary motor cortex
d. Tertiary motor cortex
```
a. secondary motor cortex
100
True or False: Dyskinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease.
False
101
```
Transduction:
Select one:
a. is subjective
b. is performed by receptors
c. None of these is correct
d. is greater than sensation
```
b. is performed by receptors
102
Tremor in Parkinson's disease is likely related to damage to _____ feedback loops that function like a thermostat.
inhibitory
103
The extrapyramidal system functions to modulate the size and ______ of movement.
force
104
True or False: Motor control of the trunk via the pyramidal tract is ipsilateral
True
105
```
The extrapyramidal system involves feedback loops between the basal ganglia and the _____.
Select one:
a. substantia nigra
b. motor cortex
c. red nucleus
d. lower motor neuron
```
b. motor cortex
106
```
According to lecture, one of the earliest locations of cell death in Parkinson's disease is the:
Select one:
a. red nucleus
b. caudate
c. substantia nigra
d. putamen
```
c. substantia nigra
107
Explain how the cerebellum mediates learning complex motor skills.
Over time, it works to reduce the discrepancy between intended movement and actual movement
108
Perception takes place in the _______
brain
109
More cortex is devoted to processing information from the center of the visual field. What is the name for this phenomenon?
Cortical magnification
110
True or False: Kinesthesis is knowledge of head orientation from the semicircular canals in the inner ear.
False
111
```
The receptive fields of neurons in primary visual cortex are shaped like:
Select one:
a. donuts
b. Sponge Bob
c. circles
d. bars
```
d. bars
112
Damage to the ventral stream could lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Hemianopia
b. Difficulty reaching for objects
c. Scotoma
d. Difficulty identifying objects visually
d. Difficulty identifying objects visually
113
Which of the following statements about Parkinson's disease is incorrect?
Select one:
a. Etiology is unknown.
b. Pharmacotherapy with levodopa is a common treatment.
c. Symptom onset is typically in the 30's.
d. Course is progressive.
c. Symptom onset is typically in the 30's.
114
Where does the pyramidal tract decussate?
The medulla
115
True or False: Information from the left eye is only processed by the right brain.
False
116
In visual association cortex, different elements of visual stimuli are processed in different regions. Identify two of the three elements of vision that undergo segregated processing
Form, color, and motion
117
The optic nerve is composed of ______ cell axons.
ganglion
118
The part of the world to which a receptor responds is called its receptive _______
field
119
Where is the cell body of the upper motor neuron located?
In the motor cortex
120
What are the phases of neurodevelopment? There are 5
1. Induction of the neural plate
2. Neural proliferation
3. Migration
4. Axon growth and synapse formation
5. Neuron death and synapse rearrangement
121
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
What's the name of the patch of tissue on the dorsal surface of the embryo that becomes the neural plate?
Ectoderm
122
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
What signals the induction of development and comes from the mesoderm?
Chemical signals or "the organizer"
123
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
What folds to form the neural groove?
The neural plate
124
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
The lips of the groove fuse to form what?
A tube that becomes the ventricular system
125
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
The anterior end of the tube forms 3 swellings. What do these become?
The hind-, mid-, and forebrain
126
Phase 1: Induction of the Neural Plate
What does the neural crest develop into?
The PNS
127
Phase 2: Neural Proliferation
Which cells proliferate?
Neural tube cells
128
Phase 2: Neural Proliferation
Most cell division is adjacent to what?
The ventricle
129
Phase 2: Neural Proliferation
What guides neural proliferation?
Chemicals
They are used to tell cells when to divide, move, grow - molecules detected on exterior surface of cell that function like signals. They're like signposts that tell their neuron and other cells in nervous system what to do
130
Phase 3: Migration
Define migration of cells and 2 defining features of these cells
Movement to the appropriate location
Migrating cells are immature and they lack axons and dendrites
131
Phase 3: Migration
Define migration of cells and 2 defining features of these cells
Movement to the appropriate location
Migrating cells are immature and they lack axons and dendrites
132
Phase 3: Migration
Do the cells migrate all at once?
They migrate in waves
133
Phase 3: Migration
Do the cells come from different parts of the tubes?
They travel in waves from the same part of the tube
134
Phase 3: Migration
Do the migrating cells traveling in the same wave go to different locations?
Cells traveling in waves go to the same location
135
Phase 3: Migration
What aids the migration of cells?
Cell-adhesion molecules (CAMS)
CAMS are located on cell membranes and they recognize and adhere to molecules on other cells
They aid in guidance via chemicals
136
Phase 3: Migration
What are the two types of migration? Briefly describe both
Types = Direction of migration
Radial - outward from the tube (tube is in middle)
Tangential - parallel to the tube
Most cells engage in both radial and tangential migration
137
Phase 3: Migration
What are the two types of migration and briefly describe both.
Types = Direction
Radial - outward from the tube (tube is in middle)
Tangential - parallel to the tube
Most cells engage in both radial and tangential migration
138
Phase 3: Migration
What are the two methods of migration? Briefly describe both
Methods = Style of migration
Somal translocation: An extension develops that leads migration
Glial-mediated migration: Cell moves along temporary network of radial glial cells in neural tube
139
Phase 3: Migration
Briefly describe how the extension of somal translocation works
The extension looks for attractive and repulsive chemicals. It works like a sticky-hand toy
140
Phase 3: Migration
Radial glial cell bodies and radially migrating neurons move from the ________ to the brain's surface when developing
Ventricular zone
141
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Once migration is complete, what occurs?
Axons and dendrites begin to grow
142
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Describe the growth cone
It is a growing tip of each axon and dendrite. It extends and retracts fingerlike filopodia. They help the process move in a particular direction
143
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Describe pioneer growth cones
They are the first to travel a route. They interact with guidance molecules
144
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
The tendency of developing axons to grow along the paths established by preceding axons is known as _______
Fasciculation
145
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
From one to another, what kinds of maps do axons typically move from as they develop?
Topographic maps
146
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
For what reason may topographic maps have developed?
To minimize connections
147
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Axons are guided from one map to another because targets are arranged in the same way as cell bodies at the origin describes what hypothesis?
Topographic Gradient Hypothesis
148
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
What does synaptogenesis depend on?
Depends on the presence of astrocytes.
| They process, transfer, and store information
149
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
True or false: The process of synaptogenesis stops around age 5
False. It continues into adulthood
150
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Is every formed axon and synapse genetically assigned to a location?
No. Too many (10 to the 14th power) to all be assigned.
There's not enough DNA to code for every synapse and axon.
We make a ton and then keep the ones that are used and functional.
Like a sculpture being relieved from the marble.
151
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
Between what ages is the most rapid formation of axon growth and synapse formation?
Between birth and 2. The peak in macaque monkeys is 40,000/second
152
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
When does the rapid elimination of axons and synapses occur? This is called what?
During adolescence
Synaptic pruning or just pruning
153
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
The number of axons and synapses is stable or fluctuating through middle age?
Stable. The generation of new is balanced by the loss of old synapses
154
4. Axon Growth and Synapse Formation
The rate of decline in synapses increases or decreases with age late in life?
Increases
155
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
Approximately how many more neurons are produced than are actually needed?
~50%
156
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
True or false: Neurons die all at once in various brain locations
False. They die in waves at various locations.
157
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
What is apoptosis?
Active neuron death. It is safer than necrosis because necrotic rupture leads to inflammation
158
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
For what two reasons do neurons die?
Genetic programming
Failure to obtain chemicals provided by targets (e.g., Nerve Growth Factor (NGF))
159
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
What occurs when neurons fail to establish connections?
They are likely to die
160
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
What occurs in the space left after apoptosis?
Space is filled by sprouting axon terminals of surviving neurons
161
5. Neuron Death and Synapse Rearrangement
The process of synapse rearrangement post apoptosis leads to an increased selectivity of ______
transmission.
It's a more focused pattern of synaptic contact
162
Myelination:
Which cortices receive myelination first?
Primary cortices
163
Myelination:
Are parts receiving sensory input myelinated before or after parts producing motor output?
Before. Hypothesis is that it's best to understand the surrounding environment before we start acting in it
164
Postnatal Cerebral Development in Human Infants:
True or false: Brain volume triples post birth.
True or false: This is due to additional neurons.
False. It quadruples
False. Only the olfactory bulb and hippocampus create new neurons after birth
165
Postnatal Cerebral Development in Human Infants:
Postnatal cerebral growth is due to...
1. Synaptogenesis
2. Myelination
3. Increased dendritic branches
166
Early Studies of Experience and Neurodevelopment:
Early visual deprivation leads to...
1. Fewer synapses and dendritic spines in the primary visual cortex
2. Deficits in depth and pattern vision
167
Early Studies of Experience and Neurodevelopment:
Early enriched environment leads to...
1. Thicker cortexes
2. Greater dendritic development
3. More synapses per neuron
168
Development in Childhood:
True or False: Less brain volume is required to perform a cognitive task in childhood.
False. More brain volume is required.
Greater specialization comes with age
OR
Task is more difficult for children
169
Development in Childhood:
True or False: There is no relationship between cognitive and neural development
False. There are brain growth spurts that coincide with the 1st four stages of Piaget's stages of cognitive development
170
Development in Childhood:
Development is highly impacted by _______ interaction.
human
Children neglected in orphanages become intellectually disabled. Those removed and raised in mental institutions have normal IQs
171
Biopsychology of Emotion:
Briefly describe the modern biopsychological view of emotion
Perception of fear stimulus - physiological reactions - feeling of fear - these are all interdependent and interacting with each other
172
The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:
What do the nuclei and tracts surround?
thalamus
173
The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:
Through the action of what structures are emotions expressed?
structures on the hypothalamus
174
The Role of the Limbic System in Emotion:
Through the action of what structures are emotions experienced?
structures on the cortex
175
The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:
What does the cortex direct and inhibit?
aggression
176
The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:
Explain sham rage in cats
Decorticate cats are excessively aggressive
Aggression is not typically directed at an object
177
The Role of the Cortex in Emotion:
What is active during the experience of emotion and empathy?
Motor and sensory cortex. These are important for the experience of emotion (read: not expression)
178
The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:
PFC selects behavior based on what?
context
179
The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:
What is the context comprised of?
Internal and external components - "yellow light dilemma"
180
The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:
What section of the PFC mediates impulse/emotional control?
Orbital PFC - think of Phineas Gage
Damage leads to disinhibition and explosive outbursts
181
The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:
Which section of the PFC mediates emotion-cognition interaction?
Medial PFC - especially during cognitive suppression or reevaluation of emotion
182
The Role of the Prefrontal Cortex in Emotion:
The Subcallosal Gyrus mediates what?
Sadness - it's the target of DBS for severe depression
183
The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:
Explain Kluver-Bucy Syndrome
Anterior temporal lobectomy leads to eating, sexual activity, placidity, and lack of fear. It occurs following damage to the amygdala alone
184
The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:
When is the amygdala active?
During fear/negative emotions and perception of fear in others
185
The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:
True or False: The amygdala receives input from all sensory systems
True
186
The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:
True or False: The amygdala associates experiences with consequences
True - it adds emotional significance to stimuli
187
The Role of the Amygdala in Emotion:
Name two things the basolateral region does
- Assesses dangerousness of stimuli
- Mediates fear conditioning
- Input from hippocampus for contextual fear conditioning
- Input from PFC to inhibit fear conditioning
- Output to hypothalamus for autonomic response (Expression of emotion)
- Output to Orbitofrontal cortex (via thalamus) for perception of emotion
188
The Role of the Dopamine in Emotion:
What two structures mediate reward and pleasure (natural rewards, ICSS, addictive drugs)?
Nucleus accumbens and Septal Nuclei
189
The Role of the Dopamine in Emotion:
What accounts for the euphoria experienced when stimulants are taken?
Increased DA from the NA
