Final Flashcards
1
Q
The plantar fascia is a strap of connective tissue that connects the ______to the _____
A
calcaneus, toes
2
Q
The plantar fascia and calcaneal tendon both have attachments on the ______
A
calcaneus
3
Q
The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus blend into the calcaneal tendon, a grouping of muscles referred to as the:
A
triceps surae
4
Q
The worst of the pain is often felt in the________, when passive extension of the toes increases tensile stress in the plantar fascia.
A
push-off phase of gait
5
Q
Pain is often most intense near the _______ of the plantar fascia.
A
calcaneal attachment
6
Q
Symptoms are felt most frequently:
A
with the first steps after rest
7
Q
Pain may also be felt while standing, when bearing weight increases ______ in the plantar fascia.
A
tensile stress
8
Q
Standing on the toes involves ________ of the ankle, which shortens the calcaneal tendon, and ________ of the toes, which stresses the plantar fascia.
A
plantar flexion, passive extension
9
Q
Tension in the plantar fascia increases stress on the periosteum of its small bony attachment on the calcaneus which may result in the development of _________.
A
bone spurs
10
Q
Injured plantar fascia repairs itself by producing:
A
scars
11
Q
Plantar fascia has an ample blood supply
A
False
12
Q
_______of the toes may cause pain when this action stretches the plantar fascia.
A
active and passive extension
13
Q
When plantar flexors are tight and contribute to plantar fasciitis, __________ may be restricted, cause pain, and/or reveal weakness.
A
active, passive,and resisted dorsiflexion
14
Q
When treating plantar fasciitis in the prone position, it is best avoid using a bolster under the ankles in order to encourage passive plantar flexion.
A
False
15
Q
______ describes the function of plantar fascia when extending the toes puts tension on the fascia, which shortens the arch and creates a spring.
A
windless mechanism
16
Q
A sprain is a(n) ________ injury to a ligament.
A
overstretch
17
Q
Ligaments function to do all but which of the following:
A
produce ROM
18
Q
A ligament is only functional
A
under tensile stress
19
Q
The collagen fibers in ligaments are _______ to allow lengthening without causing damage.
A
crimped
20
Q
As tension increases more ligament fibers lengthen, the ligament stiffens to resist the stretch, and energy is absorbed. This is referred to as ______
A
creep
21
Q
If the position of a joint is repeatedly altered due to poor body mechanics or is constantly altered when tight muscles prevent the joint from maintaining an ideal posture, the ligament may _______ to adapt to the postural deviation.
A
deform
22
Q
Injury to a ligament often initiates an inflammatory response which, in the acute stage, ______ the healing process.
A
aids
23
Q
_________ develops during the healing process of a sprain.
A
scar tissue
24
Q
When a ligament is injured, neurological signals activate _______ to stabilize the joint.
A
reflexive muscle activity
25
Damage to a ligament also affects its _____________, affecting proprioception.
nerve endings
26
The most common cause of sprain is a __________ that stretches the ligament beyond its capacity.
swift, high-impact movement
27
Which of the following does not increase the risk of a sprain:
a gradual reconditioning
28
To aid collagen regeneration and increase stability:
perform sensible activity followed by rest
29
During pregnancy, women also produce higher levels of the hormone relaxin, which _______ collagen and ______ the ligaments, increasing the risk of sprain.
softens, loosens
30
On palpation, the site of injury may be tender in:
the subacute, the acute and the chronic stage
31
What is the best description of a fissure?
crack
32
What is the best description of an ulcer?
sore with dead tissue that doesn't heal normally
33
What is the best description of the skin?
a three layered membrane separating the interior from the exterior of the body
34
Which is the list of animal parasites?
crabs, head lice, mites
35
What is the best description of scabies mites?
tiny animals that build tunnel in the epidermis
36
What is a synonym for fungal infection of the skin?
ringworm
37
The symptoms caused by head lice are from
the lice's saliva, which creates an inflammatory reaction
38
Tinea corporis usually looks like -
scaly red rings that are pale in the middle, on the trunk or extremities
39
Your client has active athlete's foot that is itchy and dry, and he wants a foot massage.What is your best choice?
Work on his feet wearing gloves or throught the sheet to prevent the risk of infection
40
Which is the best definition of a staph infection of the skin?
a cutaneous infection with coccal bacteria that usually causes pu-filled vesicles
41
When we swallow, food moves from the mouth to the
esophagus
42
What is the best description of celiac disease?
a condition in which intestinal villi are flattened in response to exposure to gliadin
43
What is a typical early symptom of esophageal cancer?
nothing: this disease is usually silent until later stages
44
What is the best description of gastroenteritis?
inflammation of the stomach and small intestine brought about by infection
45
What is the best description of diverticular disease?
the gatrointestinal tract, usually in the colon, develops pouches that may become infected
46
What is the best description of liver cancer?
cancer that originates in the liver
47
What is the best description of pancreatitis?
any inflammation of the pancreas
48
What are the signs and symptoms of thrush?
painless white lesions in the mouth
49
Your client ate at a restaurant where an outbreak of hepatitis A was traced. She has no symptoms and she is nervous as she anticipates going for a gamma globulin shot, as recommended by the health department. She would like to receive her regularly scheduled massage before her doctor's appointment. What is your best option?
work with her, but her abdominal massage should be only light touch
50
Your 38 year old client reports sharp stabbing pain at the midline of the right costal angle. She also has a sharp pain between her scapulae, which is a new pattern for her. She would like to receive a massage for her back pain, but she isn't sure she can make it through an hour without flinching from her abdominal pain. What is your best option?
recommend that she reschedule her massage and tell her that she needs to pursue these symptoms with her doctor as soon as possible
51
Muscles innervated by the sciatic nerve include all but which of the following:
rectus femoris
52
The symptoms of piriformis syndrome include all but which of the following:
lateral rotation of the hip
symptoms include: low back pain, pain in the gluteal area, hip pain
53
When the sciatic nerve is compressed by the piriformis muscle, radiating pain, numbness and tingling may be felt
along the posterior thigh, calf and foot
54
________ lateral rotation of the hip , which contracts piriformis, may intensify symptoms
active
55
________ piriformis syndrome refers to an absence of symptoms of numbness and tingling
non-neurogenic
56
Sitting, walking and climbing stairs
often worsen symptoms
57
Activities of daily living that stretch piriformis often
increase symptoms
58
The further piriformis syndrome progresses, the greater is the chance that the nerves will become
damaged
59
Impaired proprioception and weakness may case difficulty dorsiflexing the ankle, also called
drop foot
60
Chronic piriformis syndrome may lead to edema in the lower leg and pale, cool, or dry skin of the buttocks and leg.
true
61
The piriformis muscle is the ______ lateral rotator of the hip.
biggest
62
The piriformis attaches to the
anterior surface of the sacrum and superior aspect of the greater trochanter
63
Which of the following is not a common contributing factor for piriformis syndrome
wearing a tight belt around the waist
64
Trigger points in piriformis refer ____________
into the gluteal area and down the posterior thigh
65
Self-care for piriformis syndrome includes__________
stretching the piriformis
66
Patellofemoral syndrome refers generally to anterior knee pain primarily due to Improper tracking of the _____ over the _____.
patella, femur
67
The knee joint contains _____ articulations.
2
68
Muscles that move the knee include all but which of the following:
soleus
69
Muscles that move the knee include all but which of the following:
femur, tibia
70
The patella is rooted in the ____________ and stabilized inferiorly by the ________?
You Answered
quadriceps tendon/patellar tendon
71
The distal fibers of ________ run obliquely, offering ideal resistance to a lateral pull on the patella.
vastus medialis
72
The most common symptom of patellofemoral syndrome is
pain at the interior knee
73
Patellofemoral pain is usually most intense with
weight-bearing extension of the knee
74
Tight _______which have distal tissues that blend into the lateral patellar retinaculum, also increase lateral pull on the patella.
vastus lateralis or iliotibial band
75
When treating myofascial tissues, do not ______those that are already _______.
lengthen, stretched
76
Which of the following muscles does not attach at the pes anserine:
biceps femoris
77
Active extension of the knee may be restricted when the quadriceps are _____ and the hamstrings are ________.
weak, tight
78
When palpating, you may find all but which of the following with patellofemoral syndrome
lack of hair growth
79
When flexion of the knee is involved in patellofemoral syndrome, the gastrocnemius will likely be
short and tight
80
When initiating treatment, if you find swelling at the knee,
apply draining strokes toward the nearest lymph nodes
81
What structure controls most of endocrine system function?
the hypothalamus
82
The fluctuation of glucagon, that adds sugar to the bloodstream when we are hungry, and insulin, that lowers sugar in the bloodstream when we've eaten is an example of a
negative feedback
83
What is the best description of diabetes mellitus?
a group of conditions that lead to hyperglycemia
84
What is the best description of hyperthyroidism?
the thyroid gland produces too much metabolism-stimulating hormones
85
What is the best description of metabolic syndrome?
a group of problems that together raise the risk for some serious but preventable diseases
86
What is the best description of thyroid cancer?
any type of cancer that originates in the thyroid gland
87
Signs and symptoms of thyroid cancer include
problems breathing, hoarseness, dysphagia
88
the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include
weight gain, fatigue, sluggish digestion
89
The adrenal glands secrete several hormones. Two of them are involved in responses to the perception of threat. They are
cortisol and norepinephrine
90
What is the most common cancer diagnosis in the United States?
skin cancer
91
Which viruses are associated with cancer risk?
Human papilloma virus (HPV), HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, hepatitis B, hepatitis C
92
This cancer treatment option uses drugs that kill fast-growing cells. What is this called?
chemotherapy
93
When a cancer patient undergoes exposure to high energy rays to kill or slow tumor growth, this is called
radiation therapy
94
Some cancer strategies involve using immune system agents that have been trained or manipulated to be especially aggressive against cancer cells. These strategies are collectively know as
biologic therapy
95
When a person treats her cancer with chemotherapy, what are some treatment-related cautions for massage therapy?
Bone marrow suppression; hand foot syndrome, neuropathy, toxic expression through the skin
96
What are appropriate modifications for a client who has an undiagnosed lump?
bring it to your client's attention, avoid the area and encourage your client to discuss it with his doctor before you work together again
97
What are appropriate modifications for a client who has a subclavian port?
locally avoid the devise; be sure the client is positioned comfortably and the equipment is not impeded
98
Massage therapy appears to have many benefits to offer cancer patients. Research suggests that massage therapy can
improve mood, reduce anxiety and depression, alleviate pain
99
What is the technical term for a substance that is known to contribute to cancer risk?
carcinogen
100
the major signs of diabetes include
hunger, thirst, frequent urination
101
What is the best description of hyperthyroidism?
the thyroid gland produces too much metabolism-stimulating hormones
102
What is the best description of metabolic syndrome?
a group of problems that together raise the risk for some serious but preventable diseases
103
What is the best description of thyroid cancer?
any type of cancer that originates in the thyroid gland
104
Compression of the nerves of the brachial plexus
slow transmission of impulses
105
The thoracic outlet is the space between
the posterior neck and axilla
106
Compression of the arteries or veins of the brachial plexus
causes swelling of the arm
107
Double crush refers to
compression at more than one site along a peripheral nerve
108
The two kyphotic curves of the spine, ________, arc posteriorly.
thoracic and pelvic
109
The two lordotic curves of the spine, _________, arc anteriorly.
cervical and lumbar
110
The most common symptom of developing lumbar hyper lordosis is
low back pain
111
Muscles that are commonly short and tight in hyperlordosis include
iliopsoas, quadratus lumborum, rectus abdominis
112
The primary contributing factor to functional lumbar hyperlordosis is __________.
poor posture
113
With thoracic outlet syndrome, hypertonicity and trigger points are commonly found in the:
scalenes, subclavius, pectoralis minor
114
Referral patterns for trigger points in all but which of the following muscles can be confused with symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome:
serratus posterior inferior
115
Increased fluid and postural changes during ___________ may contribute to signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome.
pregnancy
116
If you suspect an undiagnosed systemic condition is contributing to the signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome:
refer the client to a healthcare provider
117
Untreated _________ may lead to loss of muscle tone in the affected hand and arm
reduced innervation
118
Signs and symptoms of neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome may include all but which of the following:
pale or bluish skin of the hand
119
The referral pattern for trigger points in which muscle produces low back pain:
iliopsoas
120
Muscles that are commonly overstretched in hyperlordosis include all but which of the following:
quadratus lumborum
121
_________ assesses shortened hip flexors.
Thomas test
122
Resisted ___________ of the thorax may be reduced when the abdominals are weak.
flexion
123
Active ___________ of the hip may be reduced when iliopsoas and rectus femoris are short, adhered and contain trigger points.
extension
124
A client who frequently stands with their weight on the same leg is likely to present with all but which of the following:
posterior pelvic tilt
125
Signs and symptoms of vascular thoracic outlet syndrome may include all but which of the following:
hypertonic thenar muscles
126
___________ often intensifies symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome.
raising the arm above the head
127
A small percentage of people have a cervical rib, a bony prominence that emerges from
the transverse process of C7
128
The main difference between hyperkyphosis and thoracic outlet syndrome is:
thoracic outlet syndrome involves symptoms related to the compression of nerves and vessels
129
When the abdominal muscles are weak, the erector spinae may fatigue from long term, _____________ in an attempt to keep the posture erect.
involuntary contraction
130
Which of the following is an endangerment site when treating hyperlordosis:
femoral artery
131
Which of the following is not a caution or contraindication for treating hyperlordosis?
scar tissue
132
Scoliosis may contribute to thoracic outlet syndrome
true
133
Manual therapy may reverse the dysfunction caused by a structural postural imbalance.
true
134
What structure lies between the nose and the pharynx?
sinuses
135
What is the best description of the act of inhalation?
air rushes in to fill a vacuum created by thoracic muscles
136
Acute bronchitis is usually
a complication of cold or flu
137
What is the best description of pneumonia?
an infection that causes inflammation of the lungs
138
What is true about chronic bronchitis?
it is progressive, irreversible disorder
139
Signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis are -
subtle with a slow onset, easy to ignore in early stages
140
What is the best description of bladder cancer?
growth of malignant cells in the urinary bladder
141
What is the list of symptoms of renal failure?
reduced urine output, pruritis, headache
142
What is true about acute pyelonephritis?
it is usually a complication of a urinary tract infection
143
A person with polycystic kidney disease has an increased risk of developing -
cardiovascular disease
144
What is the best description of renal failure?
the kidneys cannot keep up with the body's demands
145
What does "emphysema" mean?
inflated
146
What is the best description of asthma?
an airway disorder triggered by environmental irritants and emotional stress
147
What organisms can cause an infection in the sinuses?
bacteria, viruses, fungi
148
This is the most common form of tuberculosis and it also has the best prognosis if medication is taken as prescribed. What is it?
drug-susceptible TB
149
The cause of most urinary tract infections is -
E. coli infection
150
What connects the kidneys to the bladder?
Ureters
151
What is the component found in the most common type of kidney stone?
Calcium
152
What is the best description of polycystic kidney disease?
A genetic anomaly that causes hollow pockets in the kidneys
153
What structures connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder?
ureters
154
Another word for "shaft" of a long bone is...
diaphysis
155
What is the best description of Wolff's law?
Bone is living tissue and responds to forces put upon it
156
What is the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
They help to shape bones by adding to or taking away calcium deposits
157
The layer of connective tissue that wraps around a single myofiber is called
Endomysium
158
A bundle of muscle fibers is called...
fascicle
159
The outermost layer of connective tissue around a muscle is called...
Epimysium
160
What is the best definition of a spasm or cramp?
An involuntary contraction of a voluntary muscle
161
Cramping in athletes during or after an event can often be related to...
Dyhydration , electrolyte imbalance, and neurologic overstimulation
162
What is the best definition of a strain?
An injury to a muscle
163
What is the best description of osteoporosis?
The balance between calcium absorption, calcium loss, and bone density maintenance is upset
164
An over exaggerated thoracic curve is also called?
Hyperkyphosis
165
Who is most likely to have frozen shoulder?
Middle-aged women
166
What is the best description of a baker cyst?
A bulge in the joint capsule at the posterior aspect of the knee
167
This type of inflammatory arthritis is related to the formation of microscopic crystals that irritate joint capsules from the outside. What is it?
Gout
168
Which is the best description of gout?
Hyperuricemia leads to the production of damaging crystals in and around joint capsules
169
How is the pain associated with gout frequently described?
Hot, swollen, exquisite pain
170
Which joints are most frequently surgically replaced?
Hips, shoulders, knees
171
What is another term for ALS?
Lou Gehrig disease
172
Why is ALS often a painful condition?
Muscle spasms, constipation, and the collapse of the body can be painful
173
What is the best description of Parkinson disease?
A movement disorder involving the progressive degeneration of nerve tissue and a reduction i dopamine production in the CNS
174
Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the __________ is compressed.
median nerve
175
The carpal tunnel is a small space in the wrist between
the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum
176
Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the median nerve
flexor carpi ulnaris
177
Carpal tunnel symptoms include numbness and tingling in the
thumb, index finger, middle finger and half of the ring finger
178
In the early stages, symptoms typically occur
with movement
179
Sleeping with the wrists _______ can intensify symptoms and wake the person.
flexed
180
With ________________, muscles may become weak, reducing strength and fine motor skills.
reduced innervation
181
A client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome often wears a ________ to keep the wrist immobilized
splint
182
Untreated, carpal tunnel syndrome may result in atrophy of the
thenar muscles
183
The client will likely be resistant to ________ if this produces symptoms during activities of daily living.
full, active flexion of the wrist
184
Resisted extension of the wrist may reveal:
weak wrist extensors
185
To test for compression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel using Phalen’s maneuver, apply
full passive flexion of the wrist
186
The median nerve may also be compressed beneath _______, producing symptoms similar to carpal tunnel syndrome.
pronator teres
187
At the forearm, you may find the:
wrist flexors short and hypertonic and the extensors weak and taut
188
People whose work or activities of daily living involve vibration are prone to carpal tunnel syndrome.
True
189
Increased _______ is the primary cause of muscle strains.
tensile stress
190
______ of a compromised muscle is a common cause of strains.
eccentric contraction
191
The most common site of strain is at or near the
musculotendinous junction
192
As a muscle approaches its maximum length, muscle spindles initiate a _______ to resist further stretching by activating or tensing the stretched fibers.
reflex response
193
Following injury, when _______ develops, the shape of the muscle is altered and the function of the affected fibers is impeded.
scar tissue
194
When a muscle is hypertonic, in spasm, or contains trigger points, it may be less capable of ______ to accommodate a(n) _______ contraction.
lengthening, eccentric
195
In the acute stage of sprain, use only ________
active ROM
196
The basic goals for treating muscle strains include all but which of the following:
stretching weak muscles
197
Significant swelling that occurred within 20 minutes of injury may indicate a greater risk of _____ and requires _______.
hematoma, medical attention
198
Passive ROM of the affected joint will likely cause pain when the muscle is _________
lengthened
199
It is important to reduce reflexive muscle spasm and splinting in the earliest stages of injury.
False
200
With a mild strain, the client cannot continue with activity.
False
201
In the acute stage of a moderate strain, you may feel a gap at the site of injury.
True
202
In the chronic stage of a severe strain, bruising is still visible.
False
203
As time passes, scar tissue
becomes denser
