Final Flashcards

1
Q

The plantar fascia is a strap of connective tissue that connects the ______to the _____

A

calcaneus, toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The plantar fascia and calcaneal tendon both have attachments on the ______

A

calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus blend into the calcaneal tendon, a grouping of muscles referred to as the:

A

triceps surae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The worst of the pain is often felt in the________, when passive extension of the toes increases tensile stress in the plantar fascia.

A

push-off phase of gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pain is often most intense near the _______ of the plantar fascia.

A

calcaneal attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms are felt most frequently:

A

with the first steps after rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pain may also be felt while standing, when bearing weight increases ______ in the plantar fascia.

A

tensile stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Standing on the toes involves ________ of the ankle, which shortens the calcaneal tendon, and ________ of the toes, which stresses the plantar fascia.

A

plantar flexion, passive extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tension in the plantar fascia increases stress on the periosteum of its small bony attachment on the calcaneus which may result in the development of _________.

A

bone spurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Injured plantar fascia repairs itself by producing:

A

scars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Plantar fascia has an ample blood supply

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_______of the toes may cause pain when this action stretches the plantar fascia.

A

active and passive extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When plantar flexors are tight and contribute to plantar fasciitis, __________ may be restricted, cause pain, and/or reveal weakness.

A

active, passive,and resisted dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When treating plantar fasciitis in the prone position, it is best avoid using a bolster under the ankles in order to encourage passive plantar flexion.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

______ describes the function of plantar fascia when extending the toes puts tension on the fascia, which shortens the arch and creates a spring.

A

windless mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A sprain is a(n) ________ injury to a ligament.

A

overstretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ligaments function to do all but which of the following:

A

produce ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A ligament is only functional

A

under tensile stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The collagen fibers in ligaments are _______ to allow lengthening without causing damage.

A

crimped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

As tension increases more ligament fibers lengthen, the ligament stiffens to resist the stretch, and energy is absorbed. This is referred to as ______

A

creep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the position of a joint is repeatedly altered due to poor body mechanics or is constantly altered when tight muscles prevent the joint from maintaining an ideal posture, the ligament may _______ to adapt to the postural deviation.

A

deform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Injury to a ligament often initiates an inflammatory response which, in the acute stage, ______ the healing process.

A

aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_________ develops during the healing process of a sprain.

A

scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When a ligament is injured, neurological signals activate _______ to stabilize the joint.

A

reflexive muscle activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Damage to a ligament also affects its _____________, affecting proprioception.

A

nerve endings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The most common cause of sprain is a __________ that stretches the ligament beyond its capacity.

A

swift, high-impact movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following does not increase the risk of a sprain:

A

a gradual reconditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

To aid collagen regeneration and increase stability:

A

perform sensible activity followed by rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During pregnancy, women also produce higher levels of the hormone relaxin, which _______ collagen and ______ the ligaments, increasing the risk of sprain.

A

softens, loosens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

On palpation, the site of injury may be tender in:

A

the subacute, the acute and the chronic stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the best description of a fissure?

A

crack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the best description of an ulcer?

A

sore with dead tissue that doesn’t heal normally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the best description of the skin?

A

a three layered membrane separating the interior from the exterior of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which is the list of animal parasites?

A

crabs, head lice, mites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the best description of scabies mites?

A

tiny animals that build tunnel in the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a synonym for fungal infection of the skin?

A

ringworm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The symptoms caused by head lice are from

A

the lice’s saliva, which creates an inflammatory reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tinea corporis usually looks like -

A

scaly red rings that are pale in the middle, on the trunk or extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Your client has active athlete’s foot that is itchy and dry, and he wants a foot massage.What is your best choice?

A

Work on his feet wearing gloves or throught the sheet to prevent the risk of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which is the best definition of a staph infection of the skin?

A

a cutaneous infection with coccal bacteria that usually causes pu-filled vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When we swallow, food moves from the mouth to the

A

esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the best description of celiac disease?

A

a condition in which intestinal villi are flattened in response to exposure to gliadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a typical early symptom of esophageal cancer?

A

nothing: this disease is usually silent until later stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the best description of gastroenteritis?

A

inflammation of the stomach and small intestine brought about by infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the best description of diverticular disease?

A

the gatrointestinal tract, usually in the colon, develops pouches that may become infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the best description of liver cancer?

A

cancer that originates in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the best description of pancreatitis?

A

any inflammation of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of thrush?

A

painless white lesions in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Your client ate at a restaurant where an outbreak of hepatitis A was traced. She has no symptoms and she is nervous as she anticipates going for a gamma globulin shot, as recommended by the health department. She would like to receive her regularly scheduled massage before her doctor’s appointment. What is your best option?

A

work with her, but her abdominal massage should be only light touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Your 38 year old client reports sharp stabbing pain at the midline of the right costal angle. She also has a sharp pain between her scapulae, which is a new pattern for her. She would like to receive a massage for her back pain, but she isn’t sure she can make it through an hour without flinching from her abdominal pain. What is your best option?

A

recommend that she reschedule her massage and tell her that she needs to pursue these symptoms with her doctor as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Muscles innervated by the sciatic nerve include all but which of the following:

A

rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The symptoms of piriformis syndrome include all but which of the following:

A

lateral rotation of the hip

symptoms include: low back pain, pain in the gluteal area, hip pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When the sciatic nerve is compressed by the piriformis muscle, radiating pain, numbness and tingling may be felt

A

along the posterior thigh, calf and foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

________ lateral rotation of the hip , which contracts piriformis, may intensify symptoms

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

________ piriformis syndrome refers to an absence of symptoms of numbness and tingling

A

non-neurogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Sitting, walking and climbing stairs

A

often worsen symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Activities of daily living that stretch piriformis often

A

increase symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The further piriformis syndrome progresses, the greater is the chance that the nerves will become

A

damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Impaired proprioception and weakness may case difficulty dorsiflexing the ankle, also called

A

drop foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chronic piriformis syndrome may lead to edema in the lower leg and pale, cool, or dry skin of the buttocks and leg.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The piriformis muscle is the ______ lateral rotator of the hip.

A

biggest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The piriformis attaches to the

A

anterior surface of the sacrum and superior aspect of the greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which of the following is not a common contributing factor for piriformis syndrome

A

wearing a tight belt around the waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Trigger points in piriformis refer ____________

A

into the gluteal area and down the posterior thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Self-care for piriformis syndrome includes__________

A

stretching the piriformis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome refers generally to anterior knee pain primarily due to Improper tracking of the _____ over the _____.

A

patella, femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The knee joint contains _____ articulations.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Muscles that move the knee include all but which of the following:

A

soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Muscles that move the knee include all but which of the following:

A

femur, tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The patella is rooted in the ____________ and stabilized inferiorly by the ________?
You Answered

A

quadriceps tendon/patellar tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The distal fibers of ________ run obliquely, offering ideal resistance to a lateral pull on the patella.

A

vastus medialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The most common symptom of patellofemoral syndrome is

A

pain at the interior knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Patellofemoral pain is usually most intense with

A

weight-bearing extension of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Tight _______which have distal tissues that blend into the lateral patellar retinaculum, also increase lateral pull on the patella.

A

vastus lateralis or iliotibial band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

When treating myofascial tissues, do not ______those that are already _______.

A

lengthen, stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following muscles does not attach at the pes anserine:

A

biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Active extension of the knee may be restricted when the quadriceps are _____ and the hamstrings are ________.

A

weak, tight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When palpating, you may find all but which of the following with patellofemoral syndrome

A

lack of hair growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When flexion of the knee is involved in patellofemoral syndrome, the gastrocnemius will likely be

A

short and tight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When initiating treatment, if you find swelling at the knee,

A

apply draining strokes toward the nearest lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What structure controls most of endocrine system function?

A

the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The fluctuation of glucagon, that adds sugar to the bloodstream when we are hungry, and insulin, that lowers sugar in the bloodstream when we’ve eaten is an example of a

A

negative feedback

83
Q

What is the best description of diabetes mellitus?

A

a group of conditions that lead to hyperglycemia

84
Q

What is the best description of hyperthyroidism?

A

the thyroid gland produces too much metabolism-stimulating hormones

85
Q

What is the best description of metabolic syndrome?

A

a group of problems that together raise the risk for some serious but preventable diseases

86
Q

What is the best description of thyroid cancer?

A

any type of cancer that originates in the thyroid gland

87
Q

Signs and symptoms of thyroid cancer include

A

problems breathing, hoarseness, dysphagia

88
Q

the signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include

A

weight gain, fatigue, sluggish digestion

89
Q

The adrenal glands secrete several hormones. Two of them are involved in responses to the perception of threat. They are

A

cortisol and norepinephrine

90
Q

What is the most common cancer diagnosis in the United States?

A

skin cancer

91
Q

Which viruses are associated with cancer risk?

A

Human papilloma virus (HPV), HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, hepatitis B, hepatitis C

92
Q

This cancer treatment option uses drugs that kill fast-growing cells. What is this called?

A

chemotherapy

93
Q

When a cancer patient undergoes exposure to high energy rays to kill or slow tumor growth, this is called

A

radiation therapy

94
Q

Some cancer strategies involve using immune system agents that have been trained or manipulated to be especially aggressive against cancer cells. These strategies are collectively know as

A

biologic therapy

95
Q

When a person treats her cancer with chemotherapy, what are some treatment-related cautions for massage therapy?

A

Bone marrow suppression; hand foot syndrome, neuropathy, toxic expression through the skin

96
Q

What are appropriate modifications for a client who has an undiagnosed lump?

A

bring it to your client’s attention, avoid the area and encourage your client to discuss it with his doctor before you work together again

97
Q

What are appropriate modifications for a client who has a subclavian port?

A

locally avoid the devise; be sure the client is positioned comfortably and the equipment is not impeded

98
Q

Massage therapy appears to have many benefits to offer cancer patients. Research suggests that massage therapy can

A

improve mood, reduce anxiety and depression, alleviate pain

99
Q

What is the technical term for a substance that is known to contribute to cancer risk?

A

carcinogen

100
Q

the major signs of diabetes include

A

hunger, thirst, frequent urination

101
Q

What is the best description of hyperthyroidism?

A

the thyroid gland produces too much metabolism-stimulating hormones

102
Q

What is the best description of metabolic syndrome?

A

a group of problems that together raise the risk for some serious but preventable diseases

103
Q

What is the best description of thyroid cancer?

A

any type of cancer that originates in the thyroid gland

104
Q

Compression of the nerves of the brachial plexus

A

slow transmission of impulses

105
Q

The thoracic outlet is the space between

A

the posterior neck and axilla

106
Q

Compression of the arteries or veins of the brachial plexus

A

causes swelling of the arm

107
Q

Double crush refers to

A

compression at more than one site along a peripheral nerve

108
Q

The two kyphotic curves of the spine, ________, arc posteriorly.

A

thoracic and pelvic

109
Q

The two lordotic curves of the spine, _________, arc anteriorly.

A

cervical and lumbar

110
Q

The most common symptom of developing lumbar hyper lordosis is

A

low back pain

111
Q

Muscles that are commonly short and tight in hyperlordosis include

A

iliopsoas, quadratus lumborum, rectus abdominis

112
Q

The primary contributing factor to functional lumbar hyperlordosis is __________.

A

poor posture

113
Q

With thoracic outlet syndrome, hypertonicity and trigger points are commonly found in the:

A

scalenes, subclavius, pectoralis minor

114
Q

Referral patterns for trigger points in all but which of the following muscles can be confused with symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome:

A

serratus posterior inferior

115
Q

Increased fluid and postural changes during ___________ may contribute to signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome.

116
Q

If you suspect an undiagnosed systemic condition is contributing to the signs and symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome:

A

refer the client to a healthcare provider

117
Q

Untreated _________ may lead to loss of muscle tone in the affected hand and arm

A

reduced innervation

118
Q

Signs and symptoms of neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome may include all but which of the following:

A

pale or bluish skin of the hand

119
Q

The referral pattern for trigger points in which muscle produces low back pain:

120
Q

Muscles that are commonly overstretched in hyperlordosis include all but which of the following:

A

quadratus lumborum

121
Q

_________ assesses shortened hip flexors.

A

Thomas test

122
Q

Resisted ___________ of the thorax may be reduced when the abdominals are weak.

123
Q

Active ___________ of the hip may be reduced when iliopsoas and rectus femoris are short, adhered and contain trigger points.

124
Q

A client who frequently stands with their weight on the same leg is likely to present with all but which of the following:

A

posterior pelvic tilt

125
Q

Signs and symptoms of vascular thoracic outlet syndrome may include all but which of the following:

A

hypertonic thenar muscles

126
Q

___________ often intensifies symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome.

A

raising the arm above the head

127
Q

A small percentage of people have a cervical rib, a bony prominence that emerges from

A

the transverse process of C7

128
Q

The main difference between hyperkyphosis and thoracic outlet syndrome is:

A

thoracic outlet syndrome involves symptoms related to the compression of nerves and vessels

129
Q

When the abdominal muscles are weak, the erector spinae may fatigue from long term, _____________ in an attempt to keep the posture erect.

A

involuntary contraction

130
Q

Which of the following is an endangerment site when treating hyperlordosis:

A

femoral artery

131
Q

Which of the following is not a caution or contraindication for treating hyperlordosis?

A

scar tissue

132
Q

Scoliosis may contribute to thoracic outlet syndrome

133
Q

Manual therapy may reverse the dysfunction caused by a structural postural imbalance.

134
Q

What structure lies between the nose and the pharynx?

135
Q

What is the best description of the act of inhalation?

A

air rushes in to fill a vacuum created by thoracic muscles

136
Q

Acute bronchitis is usually

A

a complication of cold or flu

137
Q

What is the best description of pneumonia?

A

an infection that causes inflammation of the lungs

138
Q

What is true about chronic bronchitis?

A

it is progressive, irreversible disorder

139
Q

Signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis are -

A

subtle with a slow onset, easy to ignore in early stages

140
Q

What is the best description of bladder cancer?

A

growth of malignant cells in the urinary bladder

141
Q

What is the list of symptoms of renal failure?

A

reduced urine output, pruritis, headache

142
Q

What is true about acute pyelonephritis?

A

it is usually a complication of a urinary tract infection

143
Q

A person with polycystic kidney disease has an increased risk of developing -

A

cardiovascular disease

144
Q

What is the best description of renal failure?

A

the kidneys cannot keep up with the body’s demands

145
Q

What does “emphysema” mean?

146
Q

What is the best description of asthma?

A

an airway disorder triggered by environmental irritants and emotional stress

147
Q

What organisms can cause an infection in the sinuses?

A

bacteria, viruses, fungi

148
Q

This is the most common form of tuberculosis and it also has the best prognosis if medication is taken as prescribed. What is it?

A

drug-susceptible TB

149
Q

The cause of most urinary tract infections is -

A

E. coli infection

150
Q

What connects the kidneys to the bladder?

151
Q

What is the component found in the most common type of kidney stone?

152
Q

What is the best description of polycystic kidney disease?

A

A genetic anomaly that causes hollow pockets in the kidneys

153
Q

What structures connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder?

154
Q

Another word for “shaft” of a long bone is…

155
Q

What is the best description of Wolff’s law?

A

Bone is living tissue and responds to forces put upon it

156
Q

What is the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

A

They help to shape bones by adding to or taking away calcium deposits

157
Q

The layer of connective tissue that wraps around a single myofiber is called

A

Endomysium

158
Q

A bundle of muscle fibers is called…

159
Q

The outermost layer of connective tissue around a muscle is called…

160
Q

What is the best definition of a spasm or cramp?

A

An involuntary contraction of a voluntary muscle

161
Q

Cramping in athletes during or after an event can often be related to…

A

Dyhydration , electrolyte imbalance, and neurologic overstimulation

162
Q

What is the best definition of a strain?

A

An injury to a muscle

163
Q

What is the best description of osteoporosis?

A

The balance between calcium absorption, calcium loss, and bone density maintenance is upset

164
Q

An over exaggerated thoracic curve is also called?

A

Hyperkyphosis

165
Q

Who is most likely to have frozen shoulder?

A

Middle-aged women

166
Q

What is the best description of a baker cyst?

A

A bulge in the joint capsule at the posterior aspect of the knee

167
Q

This type of inflammatory arthritis is related to the formation of microscopic crystals that irritate joint capsules from the outside. What is it?

168
Q

Which is the best description of gout?

A

Hyperuricemia leads to the production of damaging crystals in and around joint capsules

169
Q

How is the pain associated with gout frequently described?

A

Hot, swollen, exquisite pain

170
Q

Which joints are most frequently surgically replaced?

A

Hips, shoulders, knees

171
Q

What is another term for ALS?

A

Lou Gehrig disease

172
Q

Why is ALS often a painful condition?

A

Muscle spasms, constipation, and the collapse of the body can be painful

173
Q

What is the best description of Parkinson disease?

A

A movement disorder involving the progressive degeneration of nerve tissue and a reduction i dopamine production in the CNS

174
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the __________ is compressed.

A

median nerve

175
Q

The carpal tunnel is a small space in the wrist between

A

the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum

176
Q

Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the median nerve

A

flexor carpi ulnaris

177
Q

Carpal tunnel symptoms include numbness and tingling in the

A

thumb, index finger, middle finger and half of the ring finger

178
Q

In the early stages, symptoms typically occur

A

with movement

179
Q

Sleeping with the wrists _______ can intensify symptoms and wake the person.

180
Q

With ________________, muscles may become weak, reducing strength and fine motor skills.

A

reduced innervation

181
Q

A client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome often wears a ________ to keep the wrist immobilized

182
Q

Untreated, carpal tunnel syndrome may result in atrophy of the

A

thenar muscles

183
Q

The client will likely be resistant to ________ if this produces symptoms during activities of daily living.

A

full, active flexion of the wrist

184
Q

Resisted extension of the wrist may reveal:

A

weak wrist extensors

185
Q

To test for compression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel using Phalen’s maneuver, apply

A

full passive flexion of the wrist

186
Q

The median nerve may also be compressed beneath _______, producing symptoms similar to carpal tunnel syndrome.

A

pronator teres

187
Q

At the forearm, you may find the:

A

wrist flexors short and hypertonic and the extensors weak and taut

188
Q

People whose work or activities of daily living involve vibration are prone to carpal tunnel syndrome.

189
Q

Increased _______ is the primary cause of muscle strains.

A

tensile stress

190
Q

______ of a compromised muscle is a common cause of strains.

A

eccentric contraction

191
Q

The most common site of strain is at or near the

A

musculotendinous junction

192
Q

As a muscle approaches its maximum length, muscle spindles initiate a _______ to resist further stretching by activating or tensing the stretched fibers.

A

reflex response

193
Q

Following injury, when _______ develops, the shape of the muscle is altered and the function of the affected fibers is impeded.

A

scar tissue

194
Q

When a muscle is hypertonic, in spasm, or contains trigger points, it may be less capable of ______ to accommodate a(n) _______ contraction.

A

lengthening, eccentric

195
Q

In the acute stage of sprain, use only ________

A

active ROM

196
Q

The basic goals for treating muscle strains include all but which of the following:

A

stretching weak muscles

197
Q

Significant swelling that occurred within 20 minutes of injury may indicate a greater risk of _____ and requires _______.

A

hematoma, medical attention

198
Q

Passive ROM of the affected joint will likely cause pain when the muscle is _________

A

lengthened

199
Q

It is important to reduce reflexive muscle spasm and splinting in the earliest stages of injury.

200
Q

With a mild strain, the client cannot continue with activity.

201
Q

In the acute stage of a moderate strain, you may feel a gap at the site of injury.

202
Q

In the chronic stage of a severe strain, bruising is still visible.

203
Q

As time passes, scar tissue

A

becomes denser