Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A Lam SX > Fianl COPY > Flashcards

Fianl COPY Flashcards

1
Q

The mare ovaries are more fixed in location than the cow. What anatomical structure is responsible

A

Broad ligament fixes the ovaries to the dorsum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In what anatomical structure of the mare is Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) harbored

A

Clitoral sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why swab the mare’s clitoral sinus

A

To test for Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What structure in the mare provides a barrier from the environment of the vaginal vault to the vagina

A

Vestibule vaginal seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What organ of the mare is most sensitive to hormonal stimulation

A

cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what tissue is the ovary embedded

A

mesovarium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many folds do the cervix and uterus have

A

12-14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which cervix is from a mare in estrus? Top or bottom

A

Top is estrus

Bottom is diestrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where in the mare is sperm stored

A

Oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where does fertilization take place in the mare

A

Oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are unfertilised ova retained in the mare

A

oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At how many days is the embryo transported to the uterus in the mare

A

5.5 days after fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What hormone causes the uterotubular junction to open, allowing the embryo into the uterus

A

Progesterone E (PGE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fertilization happens in the mare oviduct. Where specifically

A

ampulla of the oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sperm is stored in the mare oviduct, where specifically

A

Isthmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What hormone is responsible for maternal recognition of pregnancy in the horse

A

Progesterone E2 from live embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How long after fertilization should a mare be flushed for embryo transfer

A

7-8 days to give time for the embryo to enter the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

between which vertebrae are the ovaries in a mare located

A

between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the horse what is the site of ovulation in the ovary called

A

ovulation fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how big is a mature follicle

A

40+ mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where are most condular fractures in young horses

A

Lateral condylar fracture 85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cast can be used to stabilize a MCIII fracture for transport

A

Kimzey splint cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the condylar fracture treatment in the horse

A

Internal fixation with transcortical screws in lag fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When repairing a condylar fracture in a horse, where must the first screw go

A

closest to the joint in the epicondylar fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RTR prognosis for nondisplaced condylar fracture in horse?

Displaced?

A

Nondisplaced 70-80%

Displaced 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most common long bone fracture in horse

A

diaphyseal fractures of MCIII and MTIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the optimal treatment for cannon bone fracture repair

A

Double Plate Fixation- on the tension side of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What GI disorder is associated with bone pain

A

cecal impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the maximum compression that can be achieved using a fraction compression plate

A

4mm- 1 mm per screw (2 each side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the benefits of a limited contact dynamic compression plate over a dynamic compression plate

A

Bends uniformly

improved blood supply under the plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What screw size is used in the equine specific locking compression plate

A

5.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the max number of screws that can be under compression with plate fracture repair

A

2 screws per side- each gains 1 mm (total of 4 mm compression possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the maximum screw angle that can be used with a DCP (Dynamic Compression Plate)

A

25 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the max screw angle that can be achieved with a LC-DCP (Limited Contact Dynamic COmpression Plate)

A

40 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For what species is a 5.5 mm LCP (Locking Compression Plate) designed

A

Equine specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The 5.5 mm LCP is specifically designed for horses. Which screws are 5.5 mm

A

cortical screws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the strongest plate for use in horse cannon bone fractures

A

5.5 LCP (Locking Compression Plate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of Ulnar fracture

A

1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
A

A. Olecranon

B. Anconeal process

C. Trochlear notch

D. Head of the radius

E. Styloid process of ulna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
A

A. Olecranon

B. Anconeal process

C. Trochlear notch

D. Head of the radius

E. Interosseous space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where does the triceps insert in young horses

A

Apophysis of the olecranon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where does the triceps insert

A

olecranon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What movement in a horse is associated with ulnar fracture

A

rearing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the presentation of a horse with a ulnar fracture

A

Dropped elbow with carpus in flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is likely wrong with this horse

A

Ulnar fracture after rearing up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What’s likely wrong with this horse

A

Ulnar fracture- probably olecranon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What splint is used

A

Modified Robert Jones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What tape is used to secure this Modified Robert Jones Splint

A

2 inch white tape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of fracture is this

A

Salter Harris Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If this horse weights less than 250 kg, what repair can be used? If over 250?

A

Under 250 tension band

Over 250 use plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

This is a Salter Harris 1b fracture. What structure is indicated by the black arrow

A

The anconeal process is fractured and displaced (comminuted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is this plate called

A

Hook Plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

At what age can screws used to repair fractured olecranon engage the radius

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is an ORIF fracture repair

A

Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the name for this pathology, and what type of fracture

A

Common: Slipped Capital physical fracture

Salter Harris I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When can a femoral head osteotomy be used in large animals

A

Never

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the name for this apparatus

A

Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe the fracture

A

Laterally displaced proximal tibial physeal fracture with large metaphyseal fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the device

A

External coaptation - Thomas Schroeder Splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe this fracture

A

Salter Harris II, medially displaced proximal tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What nerve can be injured during an ORIF repair of a fractured humerus

A

Radial Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe fracture

A

Short oblique mid diaphysis fracture of humerus with over-riding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the minimum pins needed for a transfixing pin and casting (TPC) application

A

2 pins per fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What type of device is indicated by red line

A

Positive profile centrally threaded Steinman pin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are type 2 external fixators used for fracture rfepair

A

Pins placed mediolaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are type 3 external fixators used for fracture repair

A

craniocaudal half-pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How many type 2 and how many type 3 fixators are used

A

4 type 2 that go medial to lateral

2 type 3 that are half-pins and go cranial to caudal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is Lute

A

a substance like cement for packing a joint or coating a porous surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is plate luting

A

Packing cement under a plate to increase bone contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How old should ruminates be before bones are strong enough for fixators

A

at least 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is stack pinning

A

using more than one pin in the medullary canal to fix a fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is success rate for femoral fracture repair in foal

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the distractive tension sides of the femur for placing plates

A

cranial and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What artery runs in the mandible that should be avoided when placing screws

A

Palatine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Why are compression bands needed when doing mandibular plating

A

Can only plate on the compression tension side of bone. Wire needed to oppose forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What type of pasture predisposes a foal to flexor deformities

A

Sudan Grass pasture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How long does it take for foal to recover from immobilization induce tendon laxity

A

The same length of time it was immobilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the approach for a superior check ligament desmotomy

A

Just lateral to the chestnut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Inferior check ligament desmotomy is a surgical option for what angular limb deformity

A

flexor deformity of coffin joint- Club foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
A

A. Reticulum

B. Rumen

C. Omasum

D. Abomasum

E. SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

T/F

It’s normal to find the abomasum caudal to the last rib

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the most common treatment for LDA

A

Right Flank omentopexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A simple abomasal displacement is also called what?

A

RDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Abomasal volvulus twists in what direction

A

Counterclockwise from behind and from the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

How much weight is lost in a cow per day off feed

A

10 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the preferred surgical option for RDA

A

Right Flank omentopexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

During a R. Flank approach to the abomasum, what would be seen in a normal cow

A

the descending duodenum and omentum. But they are displaced so only see the serosa of the abomasum in RDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Through what tissue should a purse string in the abomasum to hold a decompression tube be tied

A

seromuscular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How should the abomasum be pulled to resolve a RDA

A

lateroventral and caudally in clockwise fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How do you know you’ve resolved a RDA using the R. flank approach

A

You can see the pylorus from your right flank incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which approaches are used for LDA, but not RDA

A

L flank abomasopexy

Closed suture or bar technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the clinical sign for a cecal problem in a cow

A

A ping that is only heard in the right paralumbar fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

T/F

Dont use ketamine in head trauma cases

A

T- contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What muscle is dissected through for trachea approach during tracheostomy procedure

A

sternothyroid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What activity is associated with calvarial fractures in horse

A

flipping over backward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is blood inside the eye called

A

Hyphaema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What fracture is this

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What fracture

A

Basilar fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the procedure that uses radiographic contrast to evaluate the nasolacrimal duct called

A

Dacryocysto-rhinography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Dacryocysto-rhinography

A

radiographic contrast evaluation of the nasolacrimal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

chemosis

A

swelling of eye conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

swelling of eye conjunctiva

A

chemosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How much distraction is appropriate for bone lengthening

A

1 mm per day (0.5 mm BID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is fractured

A

Dens of the axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What anatomical feature of a horse is indicated by the blue arrow

A

Curve of Spee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How deep are incisor cups?

How fast do cups wear?

A

6 mm deep

Wear 2 mm/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which sides of a horse tooth are long? Buccal and lingual

A

maxillary: buccal side is long

Mandible: lingual side is long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In the horse where are points found

A

points are found on the buccal side of the maxillary teeth and lingual side of the mandibular teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
A

swale’s mouth gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
A

Hausmann mouth gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Which tooth has a hook

A

PM2 of maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

At what age does a horse have a full mouth

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What tooth has a ramp

A

M3 of mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is a wolf tooth in a horse

A

rudimentary P1 of the maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
A

Molar forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are features of dentigerous cyst of horse

A

congenital abnormality of dental elements in a cyst. may see lesion draining at the base of the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
A

Epidermal Inclusion Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What respiratory noise is made with redundant alar folds

A

Expiratory noise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
A

wry nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

From what tissue does ethmoid hematoma arise

A

the mucosa of the ethmoid turbinates

124
Q

T/F

Ethmoid turbinates can be scoped with a nasal endoscope

A

F

need trephine hold and use 4 mm arthroscope

125
Q
A

A. Arytenoids

B. Cricoid

C. Epiglottis

D. Thyroid

126
Q
A
127
Q
A
128
Q
A
129
Q
A

A. Thyroarytenoideus

B. Arytenoideus

C. Cricoarytenoid dorsalis

D. Cricoarytenoideus

E. Cricothyroideus

130
Q

What grade is normal for a horse’s arytenoid

A

grade 1 is normal

131
Q

Grade 1 equine arytenoids

A

normal

132
Q

grade 2 equine arytenoids

A

asynchronous, but can be abduct

133
Q

Grade 3 equine arytenoids

A

asymmetry at rest, full abduction not achieved

134
Q

grade 4 equine arytenoid

A

no movement

135
Q

What is another name for laryngoplasty in a horse

A

Tieback

136
Q

What is the goal and procedure of laryngoplasty surgery in the horse

A

To tie the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage back toward the dorsal cricoid cartilage. The suture2 (2) lie under the cricopharyngeus muscle.

137
Q

What is the procedure that removes the horse’s laryngeal ventricles called

A

Ventriculectomy (Sacculoectomy)

138
Q

What instrument is used to remove the horses ventricles

A

Roaring bur

139
Q

What is the procedure for reinnervating the cricoarytenoid muscle

A

Neuromuscular pedicle graft

140
Q

What is the term for inflammation and thickening of the arytenoid cartilage

A

Arytenoid chondritis

141
Q

What is left in a partial arytenoidectomy surgery

A

articular process (muscular process)

142
Q

What is the preferred treatment for arytenoid chondritis

A

Partial arytenoidectomy - 50% return to race

143
Q

What is the common name for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

choking up

144
Q

What muscle pulls the larynx caudally, and used to be cut for treatment of DDSP

A

Sternothyroidhyoideus “strap muscle”

145
Q

What is the preferred treatment for DDSP

A

Laryngeal Tie-forward

146
Q

What is a cause of DDSP that the recommended treatment overcomes

A

Thyrohyoideus muscle innervation is disturbed and it cont contract to pull the larynx rostrally

147
Q

What structures are engaged in a Laryngeal tie-forward procedure

A

Thyroid cartilage caudally and basihyoid bone rostrally

148
Q

What is the importance of loose mucosa below the epiglottis

A

It allows the epiglottis to flip back (resisting entrapped epiglottis)

149
Q
A

Bistoury- used for epiglottic entrapment

150
Q

what is a common cause for illium impaction in horse

A

sand

151
Q

where do sand impactions tend to occur in horse

A

illium

Right Dorsal Colon

152
Q

How much water does a horse drink in a day

A

5 gallons (19 L)

153
Q

How much does a horse defecate in a day

A

8-11 piles

154
Q

What eggs are these

A

strongyle egg

155
Q

What is another name for hepatosplenic entrapment of hosre colon

A

Left Dorsal Displacemnt

156
Q

A Left Dorsal Displacement can also be called Nephrosplenic entrapment

A
157
Q

What structure is involved in a Right Dorsal Displacement of horse colon

A

Pelvic flexure?

158
Q

What aspect of the horse bowel is associated with impaction related to salmonella

A

Descending colon

159
Q

What pathology is the descending colon of the horse know for

A

Salmonella

160
Q

What structure joins the L. ventral colon and the L. dorsal colon

A

Pelvic flexor

161
Q

What equine parasite is this

A

Strongylus vulgaris

162
Q

What is the most common tape worm of horses

A

Anoplocephala perfoliata

163
Q

What is a common etiology of equine ileocecal intussusception

A

Tape worm - Anoplocephala perfoliata

164
Q

Where do Bezoars/Enteroliths tend to cause problems in horses

A

Transverse colon

165
Q

What are the boundaries of the epiploic Foramen of the horse

A

Caudate process of liver

Portal vein

Gastropancreatic fold

166
Q

What can predispose a horse to Epiploic Foramen Entrapment (EFE)

A

Cribbing

167
Q

In which direction do EFE (epiploic foramen entrapments) tend to occur

A

Left to Right

168
Q

What is a specific complication of EFE (epiploic foramen entrapment) surgery

A

Portal vein rupture

169
Q

What are the risk factors for large colon torsion in the horse

A

post parturient mare

new green pasture

170
Q
A
171
Q

What is the order of the flow for digesta in the horse

A

SI

Cecum

Right Ventral

Sternal flexor

L Ventral

Pelvic flexor

Left Dorsal

Diaphragmatic flexor

Right Dorsal

Transverse Colon

Descending Colon

Rectum

172
Q

In the horse, Ultrasound is confirmatory diagnostic test for what 4 pathologies

A

LDD (Left Dorsal Displacement)

SI distention

Bowel thickening

Free Fluid

173
Q

What are the FLASH abdominal windows depicted

A
  1. Ventral abdomen
  2. Gastric window
  3. Splenorenal window
  4. Left middle 1/3 (of abdomen)
  5. Duodenal Window
  6. Right middle 1/3 (abdomen)

7 (T). Cranial Ventral Thorax

174
Q

Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the duodenum viewed

A

Right side- mid thorax

175
Q

Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the stomach viewed

A

Left via the Gastric Window

176
Q

Using FLASH ultrasound technique, which side of the horse is the Spleenorenal window

A
177
Q

If correctly placed, which side of the neck will a nasogastric tube be palpated

A

Left- in the esophagus

178
Q

When tubing a horse, when is spontaneous reflux normal

A

NEVER

179
Q

T/F

The minimum database for colic includes lactate

A

T

ALso: PCV, CBC/Chem

180
Q

What is the location for abdominocentesis in a horse

A

4 fingers caudal to xiphoid (most ventral)

Right of midline

181
Q

Equine peritoneal fluid should normal values

WBC: (adult and foal values)

TP:

Lactate:

A

WBC: adult less than 5000, foal 1500 /ul

TP: less than 2

Lactate: less than 2

182
Q

What percent of horses with a lactate less than 6 survive colic?

Greater than 7?

A

less than 6, 90% survive

greater than 7, 30%

183
Q

What is Rompun

A

Xylazine

184
Q
A
185
Q

What is Sedivet

A

Romifidine

186
Q

What opioid do most vets use for colic pain

A

Butorphanol

187
Q

What is the normal IgG in a foal

A

800

188
Q

What is the partial failure of passive transfer IgG in foal

A

600

189
Q

What parasite is an impaction problem in foals

A

Ascarid

190
Q

What are the dimensions of the foal umbilicus by ultrasound?

A

Umbilical vein= 1 cm

Umbilical artery = 1.3 cm

urachus and arteries= 2.5 cm

191
Q

Where can the urachus be ultrasounded in the foal

A

just cranial to the bladder

should be less than 2.5 cm

192
Q

G- organisms are a common umbilical problem in foals. What G+ organism is a common etiology of umbilical infection in foal

A

B. haemolytic streptococcus

193
Q

What is top differential for colic in 3 hour old foal

A

Meconium impaction

194
Q

Top 3 differentials for 2-5 day old foal colic

A

Ruptured bladder

GI ulcer

Enteritis

195
Q

Where do fillies tend to rupture their bladders

A

at the urachus

196
Q

What is the maximum horizontal diameter in the Foal

A

2.5 cm across

197
Q

What is the youngest age to use Xylazine in foal

A

2 weeks old is the soonest to use xylazine

198
Q

xylazine is not used in foals less than 2 weeks of age, what sedative is used instead

A

Benzodiazepine- Diazepam (valium)

199
Q

Why should Alpha 2s (xylazine) not be used in foal less than 2 weeks old

A

the young foal cant adjust stroke volume to adjust for hypotension associated with Alpha 2

200
Q

Ranitidine is the gastric protectant for use in foals, what is the youngest Omeprazole can be used

A

30 days is the youngest

201
Q

What is the appropriate gastroprotection to use in foals

A

Ranitidine

202
Q

Where do male foals tend to rupture bladder?

fillie?

A

male- dorsal aspect of bladder

female- urachal

203
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities are seen in ruptured bladder

A

Hyperkalemia

Hyponatremia

Hypocalcemia

204
Q

Why do fillies rupture their bladders

A

secondary to urachal infection

205
Q

a creatinine level of peritoneal fluid higher than serum creatinine suggests what abnormality

A

Rupture bladder

206
Q

What chemistry abnormality can be found when comparing Serum and abdominocentesis fluids

A

1:2 Serum:Peritoneal creatinine ratio

207
Q

tremors and arrhythmias are pathognomonic for what chemistry abnormality in foals

A

Hyperkalemia- greater than 5.5 mEq

208
Q

How can a foal with hyperkalemia be medically stabilized?

A

Ca++ to protect the heart

Insulin and glucose to drive K+ into cells

209
Q

How many umbilical arteries does the foal have

A

2

210
Q

What suture is associated with Urolith formation in foals

A

Dexon

211
Q

What Ascaris is associated with foal impaction

A

Parascaris equorum

212
Q
A

A. Intussuscipien

B. Intussusceptum

213
Q

What is a risk factor to illiocecocolic intussusception in the horse

A

Tape worms

214
Q

Why is Ca++ given to horses with hyperkalemia

A

Cardioprotective

215
Q

What 7 aspects of the GI can not be exteriorized

A

Stomach

Duodenum

Distal Ileum

Base of cecum

Distal RDC

Transverse colon

Terminal small colon

216
Q

What aspect of the intestinal tract is seen first during cystocentesis

A

Sparky (the cecum)

217
Q

Why can’t the duodenum be exteriorized during abdominal cystocentesis

A

It is fixed to the dorsal abdominal wall by the duodenocolic ligament

218
Q

How many L isotonic saline must follow 1 L hypertonic saline

A

10 L iso for each 1 hyper

219
Q

Gross visual assessment of tisue is 54% accurate. What is the gold standard

A

Histopathology

220
Q

What are the maintenance requirements for fluids in the equine

A

50 ml/kg/hr (1L/hr)

221
Q

How many L/hr of fluids does a horse need for maintenance

A

1 L/hr

222
Q

What is a common electrolyte abnormality in the horse post colic surgery

A

hypomagnesemia - leads to hypocalcemia

223
Q

What is the maximum K+ that can be given

A

0.5 mEq/kg/hr

224
Q

Reasonable indicators that fluid therapy post colic surgery is “good enough”

HR

PCV

TP

A

HR <80

PCV <50%

TP>4.1

225
Q

What is the most common treatment for POI (post-op ileus)

A

Lidocaine

226
Q

What fluid type is commonly used after colic surgery, and why

A

colloids commonly used due to endotoxemia associated protein loss

227
Q

What is the endotoxemia management dose of flunixin meglumine

A

1/4 dose is endotoxemia dose

228
Q

What is Biosponge (DTO) used for

A

Biosponge (Dr-tri-octhahedral) is pumped into colon to bind endo and entero toxins

229
Q

What antibiotic also binds lipid A

A

Polymyxin B binds endotoxin

230
Q

What is the prognostic indicator for POI after colic surgery

A

Hyperglycemia

231
Q

What is the most common lesion leading to POI

A

strangulating SI

232
Q

3 prokinetic agents for use in the post-op colic horse

A

Lidocaine

Metoclopramide

Erythromycin

233
Q

What direct action does Lidocaine have as a pro-kinetic

A

Directly stimulates smooth muscle

234
Q

What clinical signs are seen with lidocaine toxicity in the horse

A

muscle fasciculations, ataxia, seizure

235
Q

If POI (post-op illius) is refractory to lidocaine, what is the next therapy to use in the horse

A

metoclopramide

236
Q

Two treatments for POI in the horse are Lidocaine and Metoclopramide. Both cause seizures, but there is a difference. What is the difference

A

Metoclopramide can cause seizures at normal dose

237
Q

What are the extrapyramidal effects of metoclopramide

A

Excitement, restlessness, sweating, SEIZURE

238
Q

Post colic surgery the incisional infection complication rate is up to 37%. What is the most common negative sequelae to incisional infection

A

Incisional hernia

239
Q

How long after a colic surgery related incisional hernia should the defect be fixed

A

3 months minimum

240
Q

1 and #2 reason for repeat colic surgery in horse

A

1- POI

241
Q

What is Carboxy Methly Cellulose (Belly Jelly) used for

A

Adhesion prevention post colic surgery

242
Q

What is the post colic surgery mortality rate for horses that get septic peritonitis

A

56%

243
Q

What Serum-peritoneal glucose difference is diagnostic for peritonitis

A

Serum lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL

244
Q

Serum glucose lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL is diagnostic of peritonitis in the horse. What other abnormality would be seen in a horse with peritonitis and glucose difference of 30 mg/dL

A

peritoneal pH less than 7.2 and glucose difference of 30 = peritonitis

245
Q

What pH and serum-peritoneal glucose difference are diagnostic for peritonitis

A

glucose difference of 30 mg/dL

with

pH > 7.2

246
Q

How much is the risk of laminitis increased in a horse with endotoxemia

A

5X

247
Q

What is the most common hernia in the horse

A

Indirect (True) inguinal hernia is most common in horses

248
Q

How should Standardbreds be castrated

A

Closed castration due to increase breed disposition for inguinal hernia and intestinal eventration

249
Q

What is the usual type of hernia seen with the equine inguinal hernia

A

true indirect (without a tear)

250
Q

Which structures are most commonly herniated in a horse

A

ileum and distal jejunum

251
Q

What structure attaches the vaginal sac to the scrotum

A

scrotal ligament

252
Q

A non-reducible, firm hernia in a foal is suggestive of what pathology

A

Richter hernia (antimesenteric ileum incarceration)

253
Q

With out treatment what is a bad sequelae to a Richter hernia

A

Enterocutaneous fistula of the ileum

254
Q

Another name for a parietal umbilical hernia in a foal

A

Richter hernia

255
Q

What are the features of an umbilical hernia that can be managed conservatively

A

less than 5 cm

reducible

foal younger than 4 months

256
Q

What is the preferred surgical treatment of foal umbilical hernia

A

Open herniorrhaphy

257
Q

What is an umbilical infection called

A

omphalitis

258
Q

What is the most common birth defect in cattle

A

Uncomplicated umbilical hernia- tend to contain abomasum

259
Q

T/F

Uncomplicated umbilical hernias in calves often contain abomasum

A

T

260
Q

What structure is most commonly involved in umbilical infection of calves

A

Urachus

261
Q

What is an infection of a calves umbilical vein called

A

Omphalophlebitis

262
Q

An epiglottis in a horse is graded as 1, what does this mean

A

normal

263
Q

What are the 4 guttural pouch approaches

A

Hyovertebrotomy

Viborg’s triangle

Whitehouse

Modified White House

264
Q

Guttural Pouch Approaches

A

A. Hyovertebrotomy

B. Viborg

C. Modified Whitehouse

D. Whitehouse

265
Q

What are the margins of Viborg’s triangle approach to guttural pouch

A

Sternomandibular muscle

linguofacial vein

Caudal border of the verticle ramus of mandible

266
Q

Which guttural pouch approach is ventral to linguofacial vein

A

Modified Whitehouse

267
Q

What is pus in the guttural pouch called

A

Empyema

268
Q

What nerves are located around the guttural pouch

A

9, 10, 11, 12

269
Q

What is the importance of performing an angiogram prior to occluding vessels before gutteral pouch mycosis therapy

A

need to determine where the occipital artery diverges- anatomical differences

270
Q

What is the common term for vulvoplasty

A

Caslick’s operation

271
Q

What suture pattern is used for a Caslick’s procedure

A

Vertical mattress

272
Q

What is the procedure of opening a Caslick’s called

A

Episiotomy

273
Q

Which reproductive surgery of the mare does not result in a decrease in vulvar or vestibular opening size

A

Perineal body transection

274
Q

What is another name for urine pooling in the mare

A

Vesicovaginal reflux (VVR)

275
Q

The surgery that provides caudal relocation of the transverse fold is called what?

A

vaginoplasty

276
Q

What are the 4 techniques for urethroplasty (Caudal urethral extension)

A

Brown

McKinnon- Austraila

Shire- former Dean

Monin

277
Q

Which urethroplasty uses mucosa to mucosa contact

A

Shire’s technique

278
Q

T/F

Asymptomatic carriers of salmonella are common in swine

A

T

279
Q

What are the 2 most common etiologies of salmonellosis in swine

A
  • S.* choerasuis
  • S.* typhimurium
280
Q

What are the 2 host adapted Salmonella strains

A
  • S.* cholerasuis
  • S.* typhisuis
281
Q

Salmonella disease is not common in pigs, but when it does occur, what age groups are effected.

A

Weaned/growing

282
Q

Where do asymptomatic swine harbor Salmonella

A

tonsils,

intestine,

lymph nodes,

gal bladder

283
Q

Rodents and Birds are important disseminators of what cause of diarrhea in swine

A

Salmonella

284
Q

What Salmonella is not host adapted to swine

A

S. typhimurium

285
Q

What is the morbidity and mortality of Salmonella cholerasuis in swine

A

morbidity low

mortality high (in sick)

286
Q

T/F hyperthermia is associated with Salmonella of swine

A

T- up to 107 F

287
Q

What causes septicemic salmonellosis

A

S. cholerasuis

288
Q

What causes enterocolitic salmonellosis

A

S. typhimurium

289
Q

What is the etiology of blood, fibrin and mucus in diarrhea of pigs

A

Salmonella typhimurium

290
Q

How is Salmonellosis diagnosed in swine

A

culture

291
Q

Which form and etiology of salmonellosis in swine require parenteral treatment

A

Septicemic (S. cholerasuis)

292
Q

T/F

Salmonella can cause cyanotic ears in swine

A

T

293
Q

What is the etiology of Porcine Proliferative Enteritis in swine

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

294
Q

3 names of the disease caused by Lawsonia intracellularis

A

Ileitis

Intesrinal adenomatosis

Porcine proliferative enteritis

295
Q

PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) is an enteric disease characterized by hyperplasia of what tissue

A

crypt enterocytes

296
Q

What stage life is PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) seen in swine

A

usually during grower stage

297
Q

T/F

The carrier phase of PPE (Lawsonia intracellularis) is long

A

T

As is the incubation and recovery

298
Q

T/F

Carrier sows can infect their litter with Lawsonia intracellularis as early as 6 days

A

T

299
Q

T/F

Infection with Lawsonia intracellyularis is often subclinical

A

T

300
Q
A
301
Q
A
302
Q

What percentage of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar Joint and the MFT

A

60-65%

303
Q

What % of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar joint and the LFT

A

1-25%

304
Q

What toxin and associated disease causes gangrenous soughing of tails ears and hooves in swine

A

Claviceps purpurea fungus

Ergotism

305
Q

What disease related to a toxin inhibits mammary development

A

Ergotism

A Lam SX (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions