Fianl COPY Flashcards
The mare ovaries are more fixed in location than the cow. What anatomical structure is responsible
Broad ligament fixes the ovaries to the dorsum
In what anatomical structure of the mare is Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM) harbored
Clitoral sinus
Why swab the mare’s clitoral sinus
To test for Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)
What structure in the mare provides a barrier from the environment of the vaginal vault to the vagina
Vestibule vaginal seal
What organ of the mare is most sensitive to hormonal stimulation
cervix
In what tissue is the ovary embedded
mesovarium
How many folds do the cervix and uterus have
12-14
Which cervix is from a mare in estrus? Top or bottom
Top is estrus
Bottom is diestrus
Where in the mare is sperm stored
Oviduct
Where does fertilization take place in the mare
Oviduct
Where are unfertilised ova retained in the mare
oviduct
At how many days is the embryo transported to the uterus in the mare
5.5 days after fertilization
What hormone causes the uterotubular junction to open, allowing the embryo into the uterus
Progesterone E (PGE)
Fertilization happens in the mare oviduct. Where specifically
ampulla of the oviduct
Sperm is stored in the mare oviduct, where specifically
Isthmus
What hormone is responsible for maternal recognition of pregnancy in the horse
Progesterone E2 from live embryo
How long after fertilization should a mare be flushed for embryo transfer
7-8 days to give time for the embryo to enter the uterus
between which vertebrae are the ovaries in a mare located
between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae
In the horse what is the site of ovulation in the ovary called
ovulation fossa
how big is a mature follicle
40+ mm
Where are most condular fractures in young horses
Lateral condylar fracture 85%
What cast can be used to stabilize a MCIII fracture for transport
Kimzey splint cast
What is the condylar fracture treatment in the horse
Internal fixation with transcortical screws in lag fashion
When repairing a condylar fracture in a horse, where must the first screw go
closest to the joint in the epicondylar fossa
RTR prognosis for nondisplaced condylar fracture in horse?
Displaced?
Nondisplaced 70-80%
Displaced 50%
Most common long bone fracture in horse
diaphyseal fractures of MCIII and MTIII
What is the optimal treatment for cannon bone fracture repair
Double Plate Fixation- on the tension side of bone
What GI disorder is associated with bone pain
cecal impaction
What is the maximum compression that can be achieved using a fraction compression plate
4mm- 1 mm per screw (2 each side)
What are the benefits of a limited contact dynamic compression plate over a dynamic compression plate
Bends uniformly
improved blood supply under the plate
What screw size is used in the equine specific locking compression plate
5.5 mm
What is the max number of screws that can be under compression with plate fracture repair
2 screws per side- each gains 1 mm (total of 4 mm compression possible)
What is the maximum screw angle that can be used with a DCP (Dynamic Compression Plate)
25 degrees
What is the max screw angle that can be achieved with a LC-DCP (Limited Contact Dynamic COmpression Plate)
40 degrees
For what species is a 5.5 mm LCP (Locking Compression Plate) designed
Equine specific
The 5.5 mm LCP is specifically designed for horses. Which screws are 5.5 mm
cortical screws
What is the strongest plate for use in horse cannon bone fractures
5.5 LCP (Locking Compression Plate)
What type of Ulnar fracture
1A
A. Olecranon
B. Anconeal process
C. Trochlear notch
D. Head of the radius
E. Styloid process of ulna
A. Olecranon
B. Anconeal process
C. Trochlear notch
D. Head of the radius
E. Interosseous space
Where does the triceps insert in young horses
Apophysis of the olecranon
Where does the triceps insert
olecranon
What movement in a horse is associated with ulnar fracture
rearing up
What is the presentation of a horse with a ulnar fracture
Dropped elbow with carpus in flexion
What is likely wrong with this horse
Ulnar fracture after rearing up
What’s likely wrong with this horse
Ulnar fracture- probably olecranon
What splint is used
Modified Robert Jones
What tape is used to secure this Modified Robert Jones Splint
2 inch white tape
What type of fracture is this
Salter Harris Type I
If this horse weights less than 250 kg, what repair can be used? If over 250?
Under 250 tension band
Over 250 use plate
This is a Salter Harris 1b fracture. What structure is indicated by the black arrow
The anconeal process is fractured and displaced (comminuted)
What is this plate called
Hook Plate
At what age can screws used to repair fractured olecranon engage the radius
1 year
What is an ORIF fracture repair
Open Reduction Internal Fixation (ORIF)
What is the name for this pathology, and what type of fracture
Common: Slipped Capital physical fracture
Salter Harris I
When can a femoral head osteotomy be used in large animals
Never
What is the name for this apparatus
Dynamic Hip Screw (DHS)
Describe the fracture
Laterally displaced proximal tibial physeal fracture with large metaphyseal fragment
What is the device
External coaptation - Thomas Schroeder Splint
Describe this fracture
Salter Harris II, medially displaced proximal tibia
What nerve can be injured during an ORIF repair of a fractured humerus
Radial Nerve
Describe fracture
Short oblique mid diaphysis fracture of humerus with over-riding
What are the minimum pins needed for a transfixing pin and casting (TPC) application
2 pins per fragment
What type of device is indicated by red line
Positive profile centrally threaded Steinman pin
What are type 2 external fixators used for fracture rfepair
Pins placed mediolaterally
What are type 3 external fixators used for fracture repair
craniocaudal half-pins
How many type 2 and how many type 3 fixators are used
4 type 2 that go medial to lateral
2 type 3 that are half-pins and go cranial to caudal
What is Lute
a substance like cement for packing a joint or coating a porous surface
What is plate luting
Packing cement under a plate to increase bone contact
How old should ruminates be before bones are strong enough for fixators
at least 4 months
What is stack pinning
using more than one pin in the medullary canal to fix a fracture
What is success rate for femoral fracture repair in foal
50%
What are the distractive tension sides of the femur for placing plates
cranial and lateral
What artery runs in the mandible that should be avoided when placing screws
Palatine artery
Why are compression bands needed when doing mandibular plating
Can only plate on the compression tension side of bone. Wire needed to oppose forces
What type of pasture predisposes a foal to flexor deformities
Sudan Grass pasture
How long does it take for foal to recover from immobilization induce tendon laxity
The same length of time it was immobilized
What is the approach for a superior check ligament desmotomy
Just lateral to the chestnut
Inferior check ligament desmotomy is a surgical option for what angular limb deformity
flexor deformity of coffin joint- Club foot
A. Reticulum
B. Rumen
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum
E. SI
T/F
It’s normal to find the abomasum caudal to the last rib
True
What is the most common treatment for LDA
Right Flank omentopexy
A simple abomasal displacement is also called what?
RDA
Abomasal volvulus twists in what direction
Counterclockwise from behind and from the right side
How much weight is lost in a cow per day off feed
10 kg
What is the preferred surgical option for RDA
Right Flank omentopexy
During a R. Flank approach to the abomasum, what would be seen in a normal cow
the descending duodenum and omentum. But they are displaced so only see the serosa of the abomasum in RDA
Through what tissue should a purse string in the abomasum to hold a decompression tube be tied
seromuscular layer
How should the abomasum be pulled to resolve a RDA
lateroventral and caudally in clockwise fashion
How do you know you’ve resolved a RDA using the R. flank approach
You can see the pylorus from your right flank incision
Which approaches are used for LDA, but not RDA
L flank abomasopexy
Closed suture or bar technique
What is the clinical sign for a cecal problem in a cow
A ping that is only heard in the right paralumbar fossa
T/F
Dont use ketamine in head trauma cases
T- contraindicated
What muscle is dissected through for trachea approach during tracheostomy procedure
sternothyroid muscle
What activity is associated with calvarial fractures in horse
flipping over backward
What is blood inside the eye called
Hyphaema
What fracture is this
What fracture
Basilar fracture
What is the procedure that uses radiographic contrast to evaluate the nasolacrimal duct called
Dacryocysto-rhinography
Dacryocysto-rhinography
radiographic contrast evaluation of the nasolacrimal duct
chemosis
swelling of eye conjunctiva
swelling of eye conjunctiva
chemosis
How much distraction is appropriate for bone lengthening
1 mm per day (0.5 mm BID)
What is fractured
Dens of the axis
What anatomical feature of a horse is indicated by the blue arrow
Curve of Spee
How deep are incisor cups?
How fast do cups wear?
6 mm deep
Wear 2 mm/year
Which sides of a horse tooth are long? Buccal and lingual
maxillary: buccal side is long
Mandible: lingual side is long
In the horse where are points found
points are found on the buccal side of the maxillary teeth and lingual side of the mandibular teeth
swale’s mouth gag
Hausmann mouth gag
Which tooth has a hook
PM2 of maxilla
At what age does a horse have a full mouth
5 years
What tooth has a ramp
M3 of mandible
What is a wolf tooth in a horse
rudimentary P1 of the maxilla
Molar forceps
What are features of dentigerous cyst of horse
congenital abnormality of dental elements in a cyst. may see lesion draining at the base of the ear
Epidermal Inclusion Cyst
What respiratory noise is made with redundant alar folds
Expiratory noise
wry nose
From what tissue does ethmoid hematoma arise
the mucosa of the ethmoid turbinates
T/F
Ethmoid turbinates can be scoped with a nasal endoscope
F
need trephine hold and use 4 mm arthroscope
A. Arytenoids
B. Cricoid
C. Epiglottis
D. Thyroid
A. Thyroarytenoideus
B. Arytenoideus
C. Cricoarytenoid dorsalis
D. Cricoarytenoideus
E. Cricothyroideus
What grade is normal for a horse’s arytenoid
grade 1 is normal
Grade 1 equine arytenoids
normal
grade 2 equine arytenoids
asynchronous, but can be abduct
Grade 3 equine arytenoids
asymmetry at rest, full abduction not achieved
grade 4 equine arytenoid
no movement
What is another name for laryngoplasty in a horse
Tieback
What is the goal and procedure of laryngoplasty surgery in the horse
To tie the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage back toward the dorsal cricoid cartilage. The suture2 (2) lie under the cricopharyngeus muscle.
What is the procedure that removes the horse’s laryngeal ventricles called
Ventriculectomy (Sacculoectomy)
What instrument is used to remove the horses ventricles
Roaring bur
What is the procedure for reinnervating the cricoarytenoid muscle
Neuromuscular pedicle graft
What is the term for inflammation and thickening of the arytenoid cartilage
Arytenoid chondritis
What is left in a partial arytenoidectomy surgery
articular process (muscular process)
What is the preferred treatment for arytenoid chondritis
Partial arytenoidectomy - 50% return to race
What is the common name for dorsal displacement of the soft palate
choking up
What muscle pulls the larynx caudally, and used to be cut for treatment of DDSP
Sternothyroidhyoideus “strap muscle”
What is the preferred treatment for DDSP
Laryngeal Tie-forward
What is a cause of DDSP that the recommended treatment overcomes
Thyrohyoideus muscle innervation is disturbed and it cont contract to pull the larynx rostrally
What structures are engaged in a Laryngeal tie-forward procedure
Thyroid cartilage caudally and basihyoid bone rostrally
What is the importance of loose mucosa below the epiglottis
It allows the epiglottis to flip back (resisting entrapped epiglottis)
Bistoury- used for epiglottic entrapment
what is a common cause for illium impaction in horse
sand
where do sand impactions tend to occur in horse
illium
Right Dorsal Colon
How much water does a horse drink in a day
5 gallons (19 L)
How much does a horse defecate in a day
8-11 piles
What eggs are these
strongyle egg
What is another name for hepatosplenic entrapment of hosre colon
Left Dorsal Displacemnt
A Left Dorsal Displacement can also be called Nephrosplenic entrapment
What structure is involved in a Right Dorsal Displacement of horse colon
Pelvic flexure?
What aspect of the horse bowel is associated with impaction related to salmonella
Descending colon
What pathology is the descending colon of the horse know for
Salmonella
What structure joins the L. ventral colon and the L. dorsal colon
Pelvic flexor
What equine parasite is this
Strongylus vulgaris
What is the most common tape worm of horses
Anoplocephala perfoliata
What is a common etiology of equine ileocecal intussusception
Tape worm - Anoplocephala perfoliata
Where do Bezoars/Enteroliths tend to cause problems in horses
Transverse colon
What are the boundaries of the epiploic Foramen of the horse
Caudate process of liver
Portal vein
Gastropancreatic fold
What can predispose a horse to Epiploic Foramen Entrapment (EFE)
Cribbing
In which direction do EFE (epiploic foramen entrapments) tend to occur
Left to Right
What is a specific complication of EFE (epiploic foramen entrapment) surgery
Portal vein rupture
What are the risk factors for large colon torsion in the horse
post parturient mare
new green pasture
What is the order of the flow for digesta in the horse
SI
Cecum
Right Ventral
Sternal flexor
L Ventral
Pelvic flexor
Left Dorsal
Diaphragmatic flexor
Right Dorsal
Transverse Colon
Descending Colon
Rectum
In the horse, Ultrasound is confirmatory diagnostic test for what 4 pathologies
LDD (Left Dorsal Displacement)
SI distention
Bowel thickening
Free Fluid
What are the FLASH abdominal windows depicted
- Ventral abdomen
- Gastric window
- Splenorenal window
- Left middle 1/3 (of abdomen)
- Duodenal Window
- Right middle 1/3 (abdomen)
7 (T). Cranial Ventral Thorax
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the duodenum viewed
Right side- mid thorax
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, from which side of the horse is the stomach viewed
Left via the Gastric Window
Using FLASH ultrasound technique, which side of the horse is the Spleenorenal window
If correctly placed, which side of the neck will a nasogastric tube be palpated
Left- in the esophagus
When tubing a horse, when is spontaneous reflux normal
NEVER
T/F
The minimum database for colic includes lactate
T
ALso: PCV, CBC/Chem
What is the location for abdominocentesis in a horse
4 fingers caudal to xiphoid (most ventral)
Right of midline
Equine peritoneal fluid should normal values
WBC: (adult and foal values)
TP:
Lactate:
WBC: adult less than 5000, foal 1500 /ul
TP: less than 2
Lactate: less than 2
What percent of horses with a lactate less than 6 survive colic?
Greater than 7?
less than 6, 90% survive
greater than 7, 30%
What is Rompun
Xylazine
What is Sedivet
Romifidine
What opioid do most vets use for colic pain
Butorphanol
What is the normal IgG in a foal
800
What is the partial failure of passive transfer IgG in foal
600
What parasite is an impaction problem in foals
Ascarid
What are the dimensions of the foal umbilicus by ultrasound?
Umbilical vein= 1 cm
Umbilical artery = 1.3 cm
urachus and arteries= 2.5 cm
Where can the urachus be ultrasounded in the foal
just cranial to the bladder
should be less than 2.5 cm
G- organisms are a common umbilical problem in foals. What G+ organism is a common etiology of umbilical infection in foal
B. haemolytic streptococcus
What is top differential for colic in 3 hour old foal
Meconium impaction
Top 3 differentials for 2-5 day old foal colic
Ruptured bladder
GI ulcer
Enteritis
Where do fillies tend to rupture their bladders
at the urachus
What is the maximum horizontal diameter in the Foal
2.5 cm across
What is the youngest age to use Xylazine in foal
2 weeks old is the soonest to use xylazine
xylazine is not used in foals less than 2 weeks of age, what sedative is used instead
Benzodiazepine- Diazepam (valium)
Why should Alpha 2s (xylazine) not be used in foal less than 2 weeks old
the young foal cant adjust stroke volume to adjust for hypotension associated with Alpha 2
Ranitidine is the gastric protectant for use in foals, what is the youngest Omeprazole can be used
30 days is the youngest
What is the appropriate gastroprotection to use in foals
Ranitidine
Where do male foals tend to rupture bladder?
fillie?
male- dorsal aspect of bladder
female- urachal
What electrolyte abnormalities are seen in ruptured bladder
Hyperkalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Why do fillies rupture their bladders
secondary to urachal infection
a creatinine level of peritoneal fluid higher than serum creatinine suggests what abnormality
Rupture bladder
What chemistry abnormality can be found when comparing Serum and abdominocentesis fluids
1:2 Serum:Peritoneal creatinine ratio
tremors and arrhythmias are pathognomonic for what chemistry abnormality in foals
Hyperkalemia- greater than 5.5 mEq
How can a foal with hyperkalemia be medically stabilized?
Ca++ to protect the heart
Insulin and glucose to drive K+ into cells
How many umbilical arteries does the foal have
2
What suture is associated with Urolith formation in foals
Dexon
What Ascaris is associated with foal impaction
Parascaris equorum
A. Intussuscipien
B. Intussusceptum
What is a risk factor to illiocecocolic intussusception in the horse
Tape worms
Why is Ca++ given to horses with hyperkalemia
Cardioprotective
What 7 aspects of the GI can not be exteriorized
Stomach
Duodenum
Distal Ileum
Base of cecum
Distal RDC
Transverse colon
Terminal small colon
What aspect of the intestinal tract is seen first during cystocentesis
Sparky (the cecum)
Why can’t the duodenum be exteriorized during abdominal cystocentesis
It is fixed to the dorsal abdominal wall by the duodenocolic ligament
How many L isotonic saline must follow 1 L hypertonic saline
10 L iso for each 1 hyper
Gross visual assessment of tisue is 54% accurate. What is the gold standard
Histopathology
What are the maintenance requirements for fluids in the equine
50 ml/kg/hr (1L/hr)
How many L/hr of fluids does a horse need for maintenance
1 L/hr
What is a common electrolyte abnormality in the horse post colic surgery
hypomagnesemia - leads to hypocalcemia
What is the maximum K+ that can be given
0.5 mEq/kg/hr
Reasonable indicators that fluid therapy post colic surgery is “good enough”
HR
PCV
TP
HR <80
PCV <50%
TP>4.1
What is the most common treatment for POI (post-op ileus)
Lidocaine
What fluid type is commonly used after colic surgery, and why
colloids commonly used due to endotoxemia associated protein loss
What is the endotoxemia management dose of flunixin meglumine
1/4 dose is endotoxemia dose
What is Biosponge (DTO) used for
Biosponge (Dr-tri-octhahedral) is pumped into colon to bind endo and entero toxins
What antibiotic also binds lipid A
Polymyxin B binds endotoxin
What is the prognostic indicator for POI after colic surgery
Hyperglycemia
What is the most common lesion leading to POI
strangulating SI
3 prokinetic agents for use in the post-op colic horse
Lidocaine
Metoclopramide
Erythromycin
What direct action does Lidocaine have as a pro-kinetic
Directly stimulates smooth muscle
What clinical signs are seen with lidocaine toxicity in the horse
muscle fasciculations, ataxia, seizure
If POI (post-op illius) is refractory to lidocaine, what is the next therapy to use in the horse
metoclopramide
Two treatments for POI in the horse are Lidocaine and Metoclopramide. Both cause seizures, but there is a difference. What is the difference
Metoclopramide can cause seizures at normal dose
What are the extrapyramidal effects of metoclopramide
Excitement, restlessness, sweating, SEIZURE
Post colic surgery the incisional infection complication rate is up to 37%. What is the most common negative sequelae to incisional infection
Incisional hernia
How long after a colic surgery related incisional hernia should the defect be fixed
3 months minimum
1 and #2 reason for repeat colic surgery in horse
1- POI
What is Carboxy Methly Cellulose (Belly Jelly) used for
Adhesion prevention post colic surgery
What is the post colic surgery mortality rate for horses that get septic peritonitis
56%
What Serum-peritoneal glucose difference is diagnostic for peritonitis
Serum lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL
Serum glucose lower than peritoneal by 50 mg/dL is diagnostic of peritonitis in the horse. What other abnormality would be seen in a horse with peritonitis and glucose difference of 30 mg/dL
peritoneal pH less than 7.2 and glucose difference of 30 = peritonitis
What pH and serum-peritoneal glucose difference are diagnostic for peritonitis
glucose difference of 30 mg/dL
with
pH > 7.2
How much is the risk of laminitis increased in a horse with endotoxemia
5X
What is the most common hernia in the horse
Indirect (True) inguinal hernia is most common in horses
How should Standardbreds be castrated
Closed castration due to increase breed disposition for inguinal hernia and intestinal eventration
What is the usual type of hernia seen with the equine inguinal hernia
true indirect (without a tear)
Which structures are most commonly herniated in a horse
ileum and distal jejunum
What structure attaches the vaginal sac to the scrotum
scrotal ligament
A non-reducible, firm hernia in a foal is suggestive of what pathology
Richter hernia (antimesenteric ileum incarceration)
With out treatment what is a bad sequelae to a Richter hernia
Enterocutaneous fistula of the ileum
Another name for a parietal umbilical hernia in a foal
Richter hernia
What are the features of an umbilical hernia that can be managed conservatively
less than 5 cm
reducible
foal younger than 4 months
What is the preferred surgical treatment of foal umbilical hernia
Open herniorrhaphy
What is an umbilical infection called
omphalitis
What is the most common birth defect in cattle
Uncomplicated umbilical hernia- tend to contain abomasum
T/F
Uncomplicated umbilical hernias in calves often contain abomasum
T
What structure is most commonly involved in umbilical infection of calves
Urachus
What is an infection of a calves umbilical vein called
Omphalophlebitis
An epiglottis in a horse is graded as 1, what does this mean
normal
What are the 4 guttural pouch approaches
Hyovertebrotomy
Viborg’s triangle
Whitehouse
Modified White House
Guttural Pouch Approaches
A. Hyovertebrotomy
B. Viborg
C. Modified Whitehouse
D. Whitehouse
What are the margins of Viborg’s triangle approach to guttural pouch
Sternomandibular muscle
linguofacial vein
Caudal border of the verticle ramus of mandible
Which guttural pouch approach is ventral to linguofacial vein
Modified Whitehouse
What is pus in the guttural pouch called
Empyema
What nerves are located around the guttural pouch
9, 10, 11, 12
What is the importance of performing an angiogram prior to occluding vessels before gutteral pouch mycosis therapy
need to determine where the occipital artery diverges- anatomical differences
What is the common term for vulvoplasty
Caslick’s operation
What suture pattern is used for a Caslick’s procedure
Vertical mattress
What is the procedure of opening a Caslick’s called
Episiotomy
Which reproductive surgery of the mare does not result in a decrease in vulvar or vestibular opening size
Perineal body transection
What is another name for urine pooling in the mare
Vesicovaginal reflux (VVR)
The surgery that provides caudal relocation of the transverse fold is called what?
vaginoplasty
What are the 4 techniques for urethroplasty (Caudal urethral extension)
Brown
McKinnon- Austraila
Shire- former Dean
Monin
Which urethroplasty uses mucosa to mucosa contact
Shire’s technique
T/F
Asymptomatic carriers of salmonella are common in swine
T
What are the 2 most common etiologies of salmonellosis in swine
- S.* choerasuis
- S.* typhimurium
What are the 2 host adapted Salmonella strains
- S.* cholerasuis
- S.* typhisuis
Salmonella disease is not common in pigs, but when it does occur, what age groups are effected.
Weaned/growing
Where do asymptomatic swine harbor Salmonella
tonsils,
intestine,
lymph nodes,
gal bladder
Rodents and Birds are important disseminators of what cause of diarrhea in swine
Salmonella
What Salmonella is not host adapted to swine
S. typhimurium
What is the morbidity and mortality of Salmonella cholerasuis in swine
morbidity low
mortality high (in sick)
T/F hyperthermia is associated with Salmonella of swine
T- up to 107 F
What causes septicemic salmonellosis
S. cholerasuis
What causes enterocolitic salmonellosis
S. typhimurium
What is the etiology of blood, fibrin and mucus in diarrhea of pigs
Salmonella typhimurium
How is Salmonellosis diagnosed in swine
culture
Which form and etiology of salmonellosis in swine require parenteral treatment
Septicemic (S. cholerasuis)
T/F
Salmonella can cause cyanotic ears in swine
T
What is the etiology of Porcine Proliferative Enteritis in swine
Lawsonia intracellularis
3 names of the disease caused by Lawsonia intracellularis
Ileitis
Intesrinal adenomatosis
Porcine proliferative enteritis
PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) is an enteric disease characterized by hyperplasia of what tissue
crypt enterocytes
What stage life is PPE (Porcine Proliferative Enteritis) seen in swine
usually during grower stage
T/F
The carrier phase of PPE (Lawsonia intracellularis) is long
T
As is the incubation and recovery
T/F
Carrier sows can infect their litter with Lawsonia intracellularis as early as 6 days
T
T/F
Infection with Lawsonia intracellyularis is often subclinical
T
What percentage of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar Joint and the MFT
60-65%
What % of horses have communication between the Femoropatellar joint and the LFT
1-25%
What toxin and associated disease causes gangrenous soughing of tails ears and hooves in swine
Claviceps purpurea fungus
Ergotism
What disease related to a toxin inhibits mammary development
Ergotism
