Exam2 COPY Flashcards
Process of abnormal bone and cartilage formation
OCD (Osteochondritis dissecans)
What is the pathophysiology of OCD
Failure of blood vessels to penetrate the cartilage leads to necrosis
What type of cartilage are healthy joints made of
Type 2 collagen
During OCD development- what type of cartilage is laid down?
fibrocartilage
Is OCD more common in male or female horses
Male- 2:1
What mineral, deficient in Kentucky is linked to OCD in horses
Copper
What is the primary clinical sign seen with OCD
Synovial effusion
What is the lay term for OCD of the tarsal crural joint of the horse
Bog Spavin
what joint is involved in Bog Spavin
Tarsal crural joint- OCD
What joint is most commonly effected by OCD in the equine patient
Tibiotarsal joint (Hock)
What aspect of the hock is most commonly effected by OCD in the horse? The second?
Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia is most common, Lateral trochlear ridge is second most common
What is this lesion
OCD of the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia in the hock
What is this lesion
OCD of the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia in the hock
What is this lesion
OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge
What is this lesion
OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge
What is this lesion
OCD of the lateral malleolus in horse hock
What is this lesion
OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge of the stifle
Where is the only place that an OCD cyst has been reported in a horse
Medial femoral condyle
What is the location and lesion
This is an OCD cyst in the medial condyle of a horses femur- the only reported location
What is the location and lesion
OCD of the sagittal ridge of Metacarpal 3
That is the anatomical region that is misdescribed as an OCD lesion but is really a fracture
Palmar eminence of P1
What tissue is primarily shown here
Hyaline cartilage
What are the components of Hyaline cartilage
A.
B.
C.
A. Collagen type 2
B. PSGAG
C. Hyaluronic acid
What cells make articular surface
Chondrocytes make all components of the Hyaline cartilage
Which cytokine starts the joint inflammation proccess
IL-1
What is IRAP that is used as a therapy of OCD
Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist protein (IRAP)
What type of collagen is fibrocartilage made of
Fibrocartilage is collagen type 1
What type of collagen is hyaline cartilage made of
Hyaline cartilage is made from collagen type 1
What are the most common dimensions of an arthroscope eyepiece for use in horse
4mm, 30 degrees
In addition to a basic surgical pack, what instruments are commonly used during arthroscopy?
A.
B.
C.
A. Periosteal elevator
B. Ferris-Smith rongeur
C. Exploring probe
What is the most common fracture of the carpus in the horse
distal radial carpal bone is the most common fractured bone
Which side is medial in this horse carpus
Where is the lesion
distal radial carpal bone
Where is the lesion
Proximal intermediate carpal bone
What is this, and what is it’s use
Verres needle- for insufflation
What are the dimensions of a laparoscope for use in the horse
10 mm diameter and 30 deg
Which side of the horse is used for laparoscopic approach in the standing horse
Right side
What are the landmarks for standing laparoscopy in a horse
Tuber coxae, 18th rib, border of the internal abdominal oblique muscle- right side
What is the name of the slip knot that is used laparoscopically to tie off structures
Roeder knot
What stapler is this
Thoraco Abdominal stapler (TA 90)
What kind of stapler is this
Ligating-Dividing-Stapler (LDS)
What kind of stapler is this
End-End_Anastomosis stapler (EEA)
What kind of stapler is this
Gastro-Intestinal-Anastomosis stapler (GIA)
What is the Meckel diverticulum
embryonic yolk sack remnant
What stapler would you use for functional End-End anastomosis
GIA to close the lumen-lumen defect and TA to close the ends
What are the 4 treatments for LDA in cattle
Right flank omentopexy
Left flank abomasopexy
Right paramedian abomasopexy
Closed suture (bar) technique
What are the margins of the Proximal paravertebral block in cattle
T13-L2
What are the margins of the distal paravertebral block in cattle
T12-L2
What is the landmark for the abomaso-momento structure, the sow’s ear
Where the pylorus enters the abomasum
How is the sow’s ear fixed to treat LDA
Matress suture which includes the transverse abdominal muscle
Where is the abomasum fixed with an RF abomasopexy
To the incision site
Where is the abomasum fixed with an LF abomasopexy
R paramedian abdominal wall
What are the landmarks for a Right para median abomasopexy approach incision
20 cm long incision between midline and right s.q. abdominal vein, 8 cm behind xiphoid
How is the abomasum fixed during a right paramedian abomasopexy surgery
The lateral aspect of the greater curvature of the abomasum is sutured to the peritoneum and rectus sheath
What are the margins of ping for RDA
Paralumbar fossa to 8th rib
What are the margins for cecal ping
just paralumbar fossa on R. side
What type of septic arteritis is associated with a foal less than 1 week old, and acutely presented
S- type: synovial fluid and membrane
What are the clinical signs associated with E-type foal septic arteritis
Epiphysis: few weeks old, acute on chronic lameness, in multiple joints
What are the clinical parameters associated with P-type septic arteritis in foals
Physis: weeks to months old, localized disease. severe lameness
What is the etiology of iatrogenic septic arteritis in adult horses
Staphylococcus spp.
What is the gold standard diagnosis for septic arthritis in horse
microbiology
What are the normal values for an equine joint?
WBC:
Diff.:
TP:
normal values for an equine joint?
WBC: < 500 cells
Diff.: < 10% Neut.
TP: < 2 g
What are standard antibiotic choices for septic joints
Broad spectrum (Pen/Gen)
How long are antibiotics used in the treatment of septic arthritis in horses
minimum of 30 days and 2 weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs
What is being used on the proximal aspect of the leg
Esmarch tourniquet
What vein is accessed for a regional limb profusion block for a digital amputation in a cow
Dorsal metacarpal/tarsal vein
What is the average survival post claw amputation in cattle
2 years
What is this surgical instrument
Trephine
What procedure has been performed on the ends of these bones
Osteostixis
What are the joints depicted
A.
B.
A. Distal intertarsal joint
B. Tarsometatarsal joint
What is the lay term for the pathology in the tarsal joints depicted
Bone Spavin
What is the pathology
Degenerative joint disease of the distal intertarsal joint and tarsometatarsal joint
Bone Spavin
What is the conformational abnormality
Sickle Hock
What is the conformational abnormality
Cow Hocked
Valgus
What position was used to take this radiograph
DLPM O
Dorso-Lateral Proximal Medial Oblique
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
A. Tibiotarsal Joint
B. Central tarsal bone
C. Third Tarsal Bone
D. Calcaneus bone
E. 4th tarsal bone
F. 4th metatarsal bone
What view is this
Lateral
A.
B.
C,
A. Talus
B. Talocalcaneal Joint
C. Calcaneus
What view is this
DLPMO
Dorso-Lateral proximomedial oblique
What bone is this? What is the view?
4th tarsal bone
DLPM oblique
What view is this
Dorso-medial proximolateral oblique
DMPLO
What bone is this?
What is the view?
second tarsal bone
What test is being performed
Spavin test
What block is used to test for bone spavin lameness
High 4 perineural block
What is the joint of movement in the horse’s hock
Tibiotarsal Joint
What is the view, what are the bones?
Dorsopalmar view
4th carpal bone and Metacarpal 4
What is the view, and what are the bones
Dorso-lateral proximolateral
4th carpal bone and metacarpal 4
What radiographic view highlights McIV bone
Dorsolateral-palmaromedial
What radiographic view highlights medial splint bone
Dorsomedial-proximolateral
What pathology is depicted
Splint exostosis
What pathology is depicted
Splint Exostosis
What artery runs between the lateral splint bone and metatarsal 3 bones
Dorsal metatarsal artery
What is another term for bucked shins in a horse
dorsal cortical fracture
what is the lay term for a dorsal cortical fracture in a horse
bucked shins
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
A. Apical (i)
B. Mid Body (ii)
C. Basal (iii)
D. Abaxial (iv)
E. Sagital/Axial (v)
F. Comminuted (vi)
What is the most common sesamoidal fracture
Apical (i) is most common sesamoid fracture in horse
What fracture
Mid-body (ii)
What fracture and what radiographic view
abaxial fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone and 60 deg skyline view
What fracture
Basilar fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone
What are the arteries of the bull penis
Deep artery supplies corpus cavernosum
Bulbourethral artery supplies the corpus spongiosum
Dorsal artery supplies the glans
Newberry knife
Elastrator
Callicrate
Burdizzo
The integrity of the dorsal nerve is essential for what?
Ejaculation
What is the treatment of choice for decubital ulcers in rams
surgical excision of dorsal prepuce
What is phimosis
inability to extend penis
inability to extend penis
phimosis
Inability to retract penis
paraphimosis
paraphimosis
inability to retract penis
cicatrix
scar
What nerve is blocked that allows suturing of the penis
dorsal nerve
What blood vessel and tissue are associated with very high pressure in the bull’s erection
corpus cavernosum reaches very high pressure by the deep artery of the penis
What muscular contractions are associated with erection in the bull
bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles
And the deep artery of the penis
What makes up the vascular portion of the eye
choroid
staphyloma
inflammation of the iris
iridocyclitis
inflammation of the vascular tunic of the eye
Uveitis
WBC accumulation in the anterior chamber
hypopyon
Lay term for annular ring obstruction of the cow teat
Spider teat
Full-thickness incision through the wall of the teat of the cow
Thelotomy
Lichty teat knife
Spiral teat curette
Hugs teat tumor extractor
Cornell teat curette
When performing a thelotomy, what structure should be avoided
streak canal should not be cut into
What is type 1 vagal indigestion using the Cornell classification
Bloat
What smooth muscle relaxant can be used to ease passage of an esophageal foreign body
Buscopan
What is this, and what is it’s use
Red Devil Trocar used to decompress bloat
T/F
The serosa is the holding layer of the esophagus
F- the esophagus doesn’t even have a serosa
What is the layer of strength for closure of the esophagus
mucosa and submucosa are the holding layers
Type 1 vagal indigestion refers to what in cattle
bloat
What is type 2 vagal indigestion
failure of omasal transport
Kingman tube
What suture pattern is used to fix the rumen to the skin during rumenotomy
cruciate
What toxic plant is associated with cleft palate
Poison hemlock
If the nose ring is pulled out, what nerve block is used to suture the lesion
infraorbital block
Lumpy Jaw is caused by what organism
Actinomyces bovis
What are the nerve blocks for dehorning
Cornual nerve block - branch of the zygomaticotemporal nerve
keystone dehorner
What is this, and when is it used
Tube gauge dehorner for calves less than 8 weeks old
For what age group calves is chemical dehorning used
caustic paste is for 3-7 day old calves
What dehorner is being used
Barns dehorner
What are the nerve blocks for dehorning kids
Cornual branch
Infratrochlear
lacrimal
What are the ages for disbudding buck kids and doe kids
Buck: 3-5 days
Doe: 5-7 days
To stop hemorrhage associated with dehorning, how many arteries might you have to pull
4
At what age does the frontal sinus extend into the horn of cattle
4-6 months
What is the most common cause of sinusitis in cattle
secondary to de-horning
What is the most common etiology of sinusitis associated with dehorning
Truperella pyogens
T/F
Pasteurella multocida is a common etiology of sinusitis associated with dehorning
F
It does cause pussy sinusitis, but is unrelated to dehorning
Trephine
What is used for medical management for arytenoid chondritis
Sodium Iodide
What are the blocks for the hind feet in cattle
Superficial peroneal nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Medial and lateral plantar nerve
What is the lay term for interdigital hyperplasia in cattle
corns
What is a solar abscess called in cattle
rusterholz ulcer
What smooth muscle relaxant is used in horses to decrease the risk of rectal tears
Buscopam
What are the grades of rectal tears in horses (1-4)
Grade 1: mucosa and submucosa
Grade 2: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis
Grade 3a: all layers except serosa
Grade 3b: Slpits the layers
Grade 4: all layers
What are the antibiotics used when there is a rectal tear in a horse
Pen, Gen, metronidazole
