Exam2 COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Process of abnormal bone and cartilage formation

A

OCD (Osteochondritis dissecans)

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2
Q

What is the pathophysiology of OCD

A

Failure of blood vessels to penetrate the cartilage leads to necrosis

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3
Q

What type of cartilage are healthy joints made of

A

Type 2 collagen

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4
Q

During OCD development- what type of cartilage is laid down?

A

fibrocartilage

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5
Q

Is OCD more common in male or female horses

A

Male- 2:1

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6
Q

What mineral, deficient in Kentucky is linked to OCD in horses

A

Copper

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7
Q

What is the primary clinical sign seen with OCD

A

Synovial effusion

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8
Q

What is the lay term for OCD of the tarsal crural joint of the horse

A

Bog Spavin

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9
Q

what joint is involved in Bog Spavin

A

Tarsal crural joint- OCD

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10
Q

What joint is most commonly effected by OCD in the equine patient

A

Tibiotarsal joint (Hock)

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11
Q

What aspect of the hock is most commonly effected by OCD in the horse? The second?

A

Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia is most common, Lateral trochlear ridge is second most common

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12
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia in the hock

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13
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the distal intermediate ridge of the tibia in the hock

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14
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge

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15
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge

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16
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the lateral malleolus in horse hock

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17
Q

What is this lesion

A

OCD of the lateral trochlear ridge of the stifle

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18
Q

Where is the only place that an OCD cyst has been reported in a horse

A

Medial femoral condyle

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19
Q

What is the location and lesion

A

This is an OCD cyst in the medial condyle of a horses femur- the only reported location

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20
Q

What is the location and lesion

A

OCD of the sagittal ridge of Metacarpal 3

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21
Q

That is the anatomical region that is misdescribed as an OCD lesion but is really a fracture

A

Palmar eminence of P1

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22
Q

What tissue is primarily shown here

A

Hyaline cartilage

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23
Q

What are the components of Hyaline cartilage

A.

B.

C.

A

A. Collagen type 2

B. PSGAG

C. Hyaluronic acid

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24
Q

What cells make articular surface

A

Chondrocytes make all components of the Hyaline cartilage

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25
Q

Which cytokine starts the joint inflammation proccess

A

IL-1

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26
Q

What is IRAP that is used as a therapy of OCD

A

Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist protein (IRAP)

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27
Q

What type of collagen is fibrocartilage made of

A

Fibrocartilage is collagen type 1

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28
Q

What type of collagen is hyaline cartilage made of

A

Hyaline cartilage is made from collagen type 1

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29
Q

What are the most common dimensions of an arthroscope eyepiece for use in horse

A

4mm, 30 degrees

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30
Q

In addition to a basic surgical pack, what instruments are commonly used during arthroscopy?

A.

B.

C.

A

A. Periosteal elevator

B. Ferris-Smith rongeur

C. Exploring probe

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31
Q

What is the most common fracture of the carpus in the horse

A

distal radial carpal bone is the most common fractured bone

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32
Q

Which side is medial in this horse carpus

A
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33
Q
A
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34
Q
A
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35
Q
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36
Q
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37
Q
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38
Q
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39
Q
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40
Q
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41
Q
A
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42
Q

Where is the lesion

A

distal radial carpal bone

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43
Q

Where is the lesion

A

Proximal intermediate carpal bone

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

What is this, and what is it’s use

A

Verres needle- for insufflation

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46
Q

What are the dimensions of a laparoscope for use in the horse

A

10 mm diameter and 30 deg

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47
Q

Which side of the horse is used for laparoscopic approach in the standing horse

A

Right side

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48
Q

What are the landmarks for standing laparoscopy in a horse

A

Tuber coxae, 18th rib, border of the internal abdominal oblique muscle- right side

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49
Q

What is the name of the slip knot that is used laparoscopically to tie off structures

A

Roeder knot

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50
Q

What stapler is this

A

Thoraco Abdominal stapler (TA 90)

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51
Q

What kind of stapler is this

A

Ligating-Dividing-Stapler (LDS)

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52
Q

What kind of stapler is this

A

End-End_Anastomosis stapler (EEA)

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53
Q

What kind of stapler is this

A

Gastro-Intestinal-Anastomosis stapler (GIA)

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54
Q

What is the Meckel diverticulum

A

embryonic yolk sack remnant

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55
Q

What stapler would you use for functional End-End anastomosis

A

GIA to close the lumen-lumen defect and TA to close the ends

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56
Q

What are the 4 treatments for LDA in cattle

A

Right flank omentopexy

Left flank abomasopexy

Right paramedian abomasopexy

Closed suture (bar) technique

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57
Q

What are the margins of the Proximal paravertebral block in cattle

A

T13-L2

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58
Q

What are the margins of the distal paravertebral block in cattle

A

T12-L2

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59
Q

What is the landmark for the abomaso-momento structure, the sow’s ear

A

Where the pylorus enters the abomasum

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60
Q

How is the sow’s ear fixed to treat LDA

A

Matress suture which includes the transverse abdominal muscle

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61
Q

Where is the abomasum fixed with an RF abomasopexy

A

To the incision site

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62
Q

Where is the abomasum fixed with an LF abomasopexy

A

R paramedian abdominal wall

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63
Q

What are the landmarks for a Right para median abomasopexy approach incision

A

20 cm long incision between midline and right s.q. abdominal vein, 8 cm behind xiphoid

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64
Q

How is the abomasum fixed during a right paramedian abomasopexy surgery

A

The lateral aspect of the greater curvature of the abomasum is sutured to the peritoneum and rectus sheath

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65
Q

What are the margins of ping for RDA

A

Paralumbar fossa to 8th rib

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66
Q

What are the margins for cecal ping

A

just paralumbar fossa on R. side

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67
Q

What type of septic arteritis is associated with a foal less than 1 week old, and acutely presented

A

S- type: synovial fluid and membrane

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68
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with E-type foal septic arteritis

A

Epiphysis: few weeks old, acute on chronic lameness, in multiple joints

69
Q

What are the clinical parameters associated with P-type septic arteritis in foals

A

Physis: weeks to months old, localized disease. severe lameness

70
Q

What is the etiology of iatrogenic septic arteritis in adult horses

A

Staphylococcus spp.

71
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis for septic arthritis in horse

A

microbiology

72
Q

What are the normal values for an equine joint?

WBC:

Diff.:

TP:

A

normal values for an equine joint?

WBC: < 500 cells

Diff.: < 10% Neut.

TP: < 2 g

73
Q

What are standard antibiotic choices for septic joints

A

Broad spectrum (Pen/Gen)

74
Q

How long are antibiotics used in the treatment of septic arthritis in horses

A

minimum of 30 days and 2 weeks beyond resolution of clinical signs

75
Q

What is being used on the proximal aspect of the leg

A

Esmarch tourniquet

76
Q

What vein is accessed for a regional limb profusion block for a digital amputation in a cow

A

Dorsal metacarpal/tarsal vein

77
Q

What is the average survival post claw amputation in cattle

A

2 years

78
Q

What is this surgical instrument

A

Trephine

79
Q

What procedure has been performed on the ends of these bones

A

Osteostixis

80
Q

What are the joints depicted

A.

B.

A

A. Distal intertarsal joint

B. Tarsometatarsal joint

81
Q

What is the lay term for the pathology in the tarsal joints depicted

A

Bone Spavin

82
Q

What is the pathology

A

Degenerative joint disease of the distal intertarsal joint and tarsometatarsal joint

Bone Spavin

83
Q

What is the conformational abnormality

A

Sickle Hock

84
Q

What is the conformational abnormality

A

Cow Hocked

Valgus

85
Q

What position was used to take this radiograph

A

DLPM O

Dorso-Lateral Proximal Medial Oblique

86
Q

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

A

A. Tibiotarsal Joint

B. Central tarsal bone

C. Third Tarsal Bone

D. Calcaneus bone

E. 4th tarsal bone

F. 4th metatarsal bone

87
Q

What view is this

A

Lateral

88
Q

A.

B.

C,

A

A. Talus

B. Talocalcaneal Joint

C. Calcaneus

89
Q

What view is this

A

DLPMO

Dorso-Lateral proximomedial oblique

90
Q

What bone is this? What is the view?

A

4th tarsal bone

DLPM oblique

91
Q

What view is this

A

Dorso-medial proximolateral oblique

DMPLO

92
Q

What bone is this?

What is the view?

A

second tarsal bone

93
Q

What test is being performed

A

Spavin test

94
Q

What block is used to test for bone spavin lameness

A

High 4 perineural block

95
Q

What is the joint of movement in the horse’s hock

A

Tibiotarsal Joint

96
Q

What is the view, what are the bones?

A

Dorsopalmar view

4th carpal bone and Metacarpal 4

97
Q

What is the view, and what are the bones

A

Dorso-lateral proximolateral

4th carpal bone and metacarpal 4

98
Q

What radiographic view highlights McIV bone

A

Dorsolateral-palmaromedial

99
Q

What radiographic view highlights medial splint bone

A

Dorsomedial-proximolateral

100
Q

What pathology is depicted

A

Splint exostosis

101
Q

What pathology is depicted

A

Splint Exostosis

102
Q

What artery runs between the lateral splint bone and metatarsal 3 bones

A

Dorsal metatarsal artery

103
Q

What is another term for bucked shins in a horse

A

dorsal cortical fracture

104
Q

what is the lay term for a dorsal cortical fracture in a horse

A

bucked shins

105
Q

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

F.

A

A. Apical (i)

B. Mid Body (ii)

C. Basal (iii)

D. Abaxial (iv)

E. Sagital/Axial (v)

F. Comminuted (vi)

106
Q

What is the most common sesamoidal fracture

A

Apical (i) is most common sesamoid fracture in horse

107
Q

What fracture

A

Mid-body (ii)

108
Q

What fracture and what radiographic view

A

abaxial fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone and 60 deg skyline view

109
Q

What fracture

A

Basilar fracture of the proximal sesamoid bone

110
Q

What are the arteries of the bull penis

A

Deep artery supplies corpus cavernosum

Bulbourethral artery supplies the corpus spongiosum

Dorsal artery supplies the glans

111
Q
A

Newberry knife

112
Q
A

Elastrator

113
Q
A

Callicrate

114
Q
A

Burdizzo

115
Q

The integrity of the dorsal nerve is essential for what?

A

Ejaculation

116
Q

What is the treatment of choice for decubital ulcers in rams

A

surgical excision of dorsal prepuce

117
Q

What is phimosis

A

inability to extend penis

118
Q

inability to extend penis

A

phimosis

119
Q

Inability to retract penis

A

paraphimosis

120
Q

paraphimosis

A

inability to retract penis

121
Q

cicatrix

A

scar

122
Q

What nerve is blocked that allows suturing of the penis

A

dorsal nerve

123
Q

What blood vessel and tissue are associated with very high pressure in the bull’s erection

A

corpus cavernosum reaches very high pressure by the deep artery of the penis

124
Q

What muscular contractions are associated with erection in the bull

A

bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernosus muscles

And the deep artery of the penis

125
Q

What makes up the vascular portion of the eye

A

choroid

126
Q
A

staphyloma

127
Q

inflammation of the iris

A

iridocyclitis

128
Q

inflammation of the vascular tunic of the eye

A

Uveitis

129
Q

WBC accumulation in the anterior chamber

A

hypopyon

130
Q

Lay term for annular ring obstruction of the cow teat

A

Spider teat

131
Q

Full-thickness incision through the wall of the teat of the cow

A

Thelotomy

132
Q
A

Lichty teat knife

133
Q
A

Spiral teat curette

134
Q
A

Hugs teat tumor extractor

135
Q
A

Cornell teat curette

136
Q

When performing a thelotomy, what structure should be avoided

A

streak canal should not be cut into

137
Q

What is type 1 vagal indigestion using the Cornell classification

A

Bloat

138
Q

What smooth muscle relaxant can be used to ease passage of an esophageal foreign body

A

Buscopan

139
Q

What is this, and what is it’s use

A

Red Devil Trocar used to decompress bloat

140
Q

T/F

The serosa is the holding layer of the esophagus

A

F- the esophagus doesn’t even have a serosa

141
Q

What is the layer of strength for closure of the esophagus

A

mucosa and submucosa are the holding layers

142
Q

Type 1 vagal indigestion refers to what in cattle

A

bloat

143
Q

What is type 2 vagal indigestion

A

failure of omasal transport

144
Q
A

Kingman tube

145
Q

What suture pattern is used to fix the rumen to the skin during rumenotomy

A

cruciate

146
Q

What toxic plant is associated with cleft palate

A

Poison hemlock

147
Q

If the nose ring is pulled out, what nerve block is used to suture the lesion

A

infraorbital block

148
Q

Lumpy Jaw is caused by what organism

A

Actinomyces bovis

149
Q

What are the nerve blocks for dehorning

A

Cornual nerve block - branch of the zygomaticotemporal nerve

150
Q
A

keystone dehorner

151
Q

What is this, and when is it used

A

Tube gauge dehorner for calves less than 8 weeks old

152
Q

For what age group calves is chemical dehorning used

A

caustic paste is for 3-7 day old calves

153
Q

What dehorner is being used

A

Barns dehorner

154
Q

What are the nerve blocks for dehorning kids

A

Cornual branch

Infratrochlear

lacrimal

155
Q

What are the ages for disbudding buck kids and doe kids

A

Buck: 3-5 days

Doe: 5-7 days

156
Q

To stop hemorrhage associated with dehorning, how many arteries might you have to pull

A

4

157
Q

At what age does the frontal sinus extend into the horn of cattle

A

4-6 months

158
Q

What is the most common cause of sinusitis in cattle

A

secondary to de-horning

159
Q

What is the most common etiology of sinusitis associated with dehorning

A

Truperella pyogens

160
Q

T/F

Pasteurella multocida is a common etiology of sinusitis associated with dehorning

A

F

It does cause pussy sinusitis, but is unrelated to dehorning

161
Q
A

Trephine

162
Q

What is used for medical management for arytenoid chondritis

A

Sodium Iodide

163
Q

What are the blocks for the hind feet in cattle

A

Superficial peroneal nerve

Deep peroneal nerve

Medial and lateral plantar nerve

164
Q

What is the lay term for interdigital hyperplasia in cattle

A

corns

165
Q

What is a solar abscess called in cattle

A

rusterholz ulcer

166
Q

What smooth muscle relaxant is used in horses to decrease the risk of rectal tears

A

Buscopam

167
Q

What are the grades of rectal tears in horses (1-4)

A

Grade 1: mucosa and submucosa

Grade 2: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis

Grade 3a: all layers except serosa

Grade 3b: Slpits the layers

Grade 4: all layers

168
Q

What are the antibiotics used when there is a rectal tear in a horse

A

Pen, Gen, metronidazole