Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A320/ FFS > FFS 1 > Flashcards

FFS 1 Flashcards

1
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START
In case the electrical power supply is interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by the loss of ECAM DUs), abort the start by

A

setting to OFF the ENG 2 MASTER lever. Then, perform a 30 S dry crank.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START
When the FADEC detects an impending hung start or hot start, the FADEC applies an automatic recovery sequence without an ECAM message. The crew will notice that

A

dual ignition (A+B) is applied, and that fuel will be commanded OFF, and then re-commanded ON within 0.5 s. It is not necessary for the crew to shut down the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START
Sequence after:
ENG 2 MASTER lever ON

A
  • ON ECAM UPPER DISPLAY N2 increases
  • ON ECAM LOWER DISPLAY Corresponding start valve inline.
    Bleed pressure indication green.
    Oil pressure increases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START Sequence 30 S after ENG 2 MASTER sw is ON:

A
  • ON ECAM UPPER DISPLAY
    FF increases.
  • ON ECAM LOWER DISPLAY
    Indication of the active igniter (A or B).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START Sequence 20 s (maximum) after fuel is on:

A
  • ON ECAM UPPER DISPLAY
    EGT increases
    N1 increases prior to 34 % N2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START Sequence at 43 % N2:

A
  • ON ECAM LOWER DISPLAY
    Igniter indication off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START Sequence at Slightly above 43 % N2:

A
  • ON ECAM LOWER DISPLAY
    Start valve crossline.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ENG IDLE PARAMETERS at ISA sea level:

A

EPR about 1.01
N1 about 21.4 %
N2 about 57.8 %
EGT about 414 °C
FF about 350 kg/h (775 lb/h)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AUTOMATIC ENGINE START
A PTU FAULT is triggered, if the last engine is started within ___ following the end of the cargo doors operation. Refer to HYD PTU FAULT.

A

40 s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TAXI ROLL AND STEERING
Before taxi, check that the amber “NWS DISC” ECAM message is off, to ensure that

A

steering is fully available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TILLER AND RUDDER PEDALS USE
Pedals control nosewheel steering at low speed ( ___ with full pedal deflection).

A

± 6 °

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

On straight taxiways, the aircraft , correctly aligned on the centerline, when the centerline is lined-up between the

A

PFD and ND.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If both pilots act on the tiller or pedals, their inputs are added until the maximum value of the steering angle (programmed within the ___ ) is reached.

A

BSCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When the seating position is correct, the cut-off angle is ___ , and the visual ground geometry provides an obscured segment of ___ .

A

20° / 42 ft (12.5 m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

___ can be used to initiate a tight turn and to keep the aircraft moving during the turn. If nosewheel lateral skidding occurs while turning, reduce taxi speed or increase turn radius. Avoid stopping the aircraft in a turn, because ___ will be required to start the aircraft moving again.

A

Asymmetric thrust / excessive thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The flight crew should be aware that the main gear on the inside of a turn will always cut the corner and track inside of the ___ . For this reason, the oversteering technique may be considered especially for A321 where main gear is ___ behind the pilot.

A

nosewheel track / 20 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the event that one or more tires is/are deflated on the main landing gear, the maximum permitted steering angle will be limited by the aircraft speed. Therefore, with one tire deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering can be used. With two tires deflated, the aircraft speed is limited to ___ and nosewheel steering angle should be limited to 30°.

A

7 kt / 3 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

180 DEGREES TURN ON RUNWAY
Note: On wet or contaminated runway, it is recommended to maintain a speed of ___ during the entire maneuver.

A

5 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When two airplanes are taxiing, the following airplane should maintain a minimum distance of

A

200 ft (60 m).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During single engine taxi, significantly higher thrust may be required to commence taxi and turns especially in case of up slope in order to prevent damage due to jet blast, maximum of ___ N1 is recommended.

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VISUAL APPROACH
Note: If the forecasted tailwind at landing is greater than ___ , decelerated approach is not allowed, and the speed should be stabilized around VREF + 5 kt in final.

A

10 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

VISUAL APPROACH
at the beginning of the downwind leg:
4 points

A
  • Manually ACTIVATE APPR
  • Select FDs to OFF
  • Select TRK FPA to have FPV displayed
  • Check A/THR active.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VISUAL APPROACH
Turn into base leg with a maximum of ___ of bank. Descent with approximate FPA, in FLAPS 2, at F speed.

A

30 °

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The final turn onto the runway centreline will be commenced with ___ angle of bank. Initially the rate of descent should be ___ when established on the correct descent path

A

20 ° / 400 ft/min, increasing to 700 ft/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In case of tailwind, or if crosswind is greater than 20 kt:
To counter the nose-up effect of setting engine takeoff thrust, apply half forward sidestick until the airspeed reaches 80 kt. Release the sidestick gradually to reach neutral at ___ .

A

100 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In case of tailwind, or if crosswind is greater than 20 kt:
Increase thrust progressively to reach takeoff thrust by ___ ground speed

A

40 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

At ___ (wheel speed), the connection between nosewheel steering and the rudder pedals is removed.

A

130 kt / Therefore, in strong crosswinds, more rudder input will be required at this point to prevent the aircraft from turning into the wind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Check that the actual N1/EPR of the individual engines has reached the N1/EPR rating limit, before the aircraft reaches ___ . Check EGT.

A

80 kt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Scan ___ throughout the takeoff.

A

airspeed, N1/EPR, and EGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

For crosswind takeoffs, routine use of into wind aileron is not necessary. In strong crosswind conditions, small lateral stick input may be used to maintain wings level, wheels on the spoiler extended side), spoiler deflection becomes significant with more than a ___ sidestick deflection.

A

third

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In case of low visibility takeoff, visual cues are primary means to track the runway centerline. The PFD ___ provides an assistance in case of expected fog patches if ILS available.

A

yaw bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CROSSWIND TAKEOFF
It is said in the TAKEOFF ROLL paragraph that care should be taken to avoid using large deflection, resulting in excessive spoiler deployment. A direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be a ___ .

A

reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tailstrike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In crosswind conditions, a ___ should be flown with the aircraft (cockpit) positioned on the extended runway centerline until the flare.

A

crabbed-approach wings-level

34
Q

FLARE
The objectives of the lateral and directional control of the aircraft during the flare are:

A
  • To land on the centerline, and
  • to minimize the lateral loads on the main landing gear.
35
Q

The recommended de-crab technique is to use all of the following:

A
  • The rudder to align the aircraft with the runway heading during the flare
  • The roll control, if needed, to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. Any tendency to drift downwind should be counteracted by an appropriate lateral (roll) input on the sidestick.
36
Q

In the case of strong crosswind, in the de-crab phase, the PF should be prepared to add small bank angle into the wind in order to maintain the aircraft on the runway centerline. The aircraft may be landed with a partial de-crab (residual crab angle up to ___ ) to prevent an excessive bank. This technique prevents wingtip/sharklet (or engine nacelle) strike caused by an excessive bank angle.

A

about 5°

37
Q

During the roll out, the rudder pedals will be used to steer the aircraft on the runway centreline. At high speed, directional control is achieved with rudder. As the speed reduces, the Nose Wheel Steering becomes active. However, the NWS tiller will not be used until ___ is reached.

A

taxi speed

38
Q

In case a lateral control problem occurs in high crosswind landing, the pilot will consider to set reversers back to ___ .

A

REV IDLE

39
Q

The reverse thrust side force and crosswind component can combine to cause the aircraft to drift to the ___ of the runway if the aircraft is allowed to weathercock into wind after landing.

A

downwind side

40
Q

APPROACH
During approach, the PM announces:

A

“SPEED” if the speed decreases below the speed target-5 kt or increases above the speed target +10 kt.
“SINK RATE” when the descent rate exceeds 000 ft/min
“BANK” when bank angle becomes greater than 7 °
“PITCH” when pitch attitude becomes lower than-2.5 ° or higher than +10 °
“LOC” or “GLIDE” when either localizer or glide slope deviation is:
½ dot LOC
½ dot GS.
“CROSS TRACK” when the XTK is greater than 0.1 NM
“V/DEV” when the vertical deviation is greater than ½ dot
“COURSE” when greater than ½/ dot or 2.5 ° (VOR) or 5 ° (ADF.).
“ ___ FT HIGH (LOW)” at altitude checks points.

41
Q

LANDING
During landing, the PM announces:

A

“PITCH PITCH”, if the pitch attitude approaches the tail strike pitch limit indicator &, or reaches 10 °
“BANK BANK”, if the bank angle reaches 7 °.

42
Q

GO-AROUND
During a go-around, the PM announces:

A

“BANK”, if the bank angle becomes greater than 7 °
“PITCH”, if the pitch attitude becomes greater than 20 ° up or less than 10 up
“SINK RATE”, if there is no climb rate.

43
Q

Speed brakes shall not be used below ___ on any approach.

A

1000 ft AAL

44
Q

F/CTL SLATS FAULT/LOCKED
If one SFCC is inoperative, both slats and flaps operate at ___
If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the corresponding surfaces (slats or flaps) operate at ___ .

A

half speed

45
Q

F/CTL SLATS FAULT/LOCKED
Triggering Conditions:
The SLATS FAULT alert triggers when there is a failure of both ___ . The SLATS LOCKED alert triggers when the ___ are activated.

A

slats channels / slats wing tip brakes

46
Q

[QRH] Landing with Slats or Flaps Jammed
The autopilot may be used down to ___ AGL. As it is not tuned for the abnormal configurations, its behavior could be less than optimum and must be monitored.

A

500 ft

47
Q

If there is a SLATS FAULT after both slat channels fail, ___ becomes active.

A

alternate law

48
Q

ABNORMAL FLAPS/SLATS CONFIGURATION
Abnormal operation of the flaps and/or slats may be due to one of the following problems:

A
  • Double SFCC failure
  • Double hydraulic failure (B+G or Y+G)
  • Flaps/Slats jammed (operation of the WTB)
49
Q

Abnormal operation of the flaps and slats has significant consequences since:

A
  • The control laws may change
  • The selected speed must be used
  • An early stabilized approach should be preferred
  • The approach attitudes change
  • Approach speeds and landing distances increase
  • The go-around procedure may have to be modified.
50
Q

FAILURE AT TAKEOFF
Should a flap/slat retraction problem occur at takeoff, the crew will PULL the speed knob for selected speed to stop the acceleration and avoid exceeding VFE. The overspeed warning is computed according to the ___ .

A

actual slats/flaps position

51
Q

The detection of a slat or flap a failure occurs with the selection of flap lever during the approach. With A/THR operative, the managed speed target will become the next manoeuvring characteristic speed e.g. S speed when selecting flap lever to 1. At this stage, if a slat or flap failure occurs, the crew will:

A
  • Pull the speed knob for selected speed to avoid further deceleration
  • Delay the approach to complete the ECAM procedure
  • Refer to LANDING WITH FLAPS OR SLATS JAMMED QRH procedure.
  • Update the approach briefing.
52
Q

ABNORMAL FLAPS/SLATS CONFIGURATION
During the approach briefing, emphasis should be made of:

A
  • Tail strike awareness
  • The go-around configuration
  • Any deviation from standard call out
  • The speeds to be flown, following a missed approach
  • At the acceleration altitude, selected speed must be used to control the acceleration to
    the required speed for the configuration.
53
Q

ABNORMAL FLAPS/SLATS CONFIGURATION
Consider the fuel available and the increased consumption associated with a diversion when flying with flaps and/or slats jammed. Additionally, when diverting with flaps/slats extended, cruise altitude is limited to ___ .

A

20 000 ft

54
Q

LANDING WITH SLATS OR FLAPS JAMMED
In some cases, the recommended speed for go around requested by the procedure might be slightly above the VFE displayed on PFD as the VFE is linked to the S/F lever position. The Overspeed Warning will not be triggered as it is taking into account the ___ .

A

actual slat/flap position

55
Q

LANDING WITH SLATS OR FLAPS JAMMED
If VLS is greater than VFE NEXT (overweight landing case), the FLAPS lever can be set in the required next position, while the speed is reduced to follow VLS reduction as surfaces extend. The ___ warning threshold should not be triggered.
In this case, disconnect the A/THR. A/THR can be re-engaged when the landing configuration is established.

A

VFE

56
Q

LOW ENERGY AURAL ALERT
An aural low-energy “SPEED SPEED SPEED” alert, repeated every ___ , warns the flight crew that the aircraft’s energy level is going below a threshold under which the flight crew has to increase thrust, in order to regain a positive flight path angle through pitch control.
It is available in Configuration ___

A

5 s / 2, 3, and FULL.

57
Q

LOW ENERGY AURAL ALERT
The aural alert is inhibited when:

A
  • TOGA is selected, or
  • Below 100 ft RA, or
  • Above 2 000 ft RA, or
  • Alpha-floor, or the ground proximity warning system alert is triggered, or
  • In alternate or direct law, or
  • If both radio altimeters fail.
58
Q

During deceleration, the low-energy aural alert is triggered before ___ . The amount of time between the two alerts depends on the deceleration rate.

A

alpha floor (unless alpha floor is triggered by stick deflection)

59
Q

TA shall be selected in the case of:
4 points

A
  • Engine failure
  • Known nearby traffic, which is in visual contact
  • Flight with landing gear down
  • Operations at specific airports, and during specific procedures that an operator identifies as having a significant potential for not wanted and not appropriate RAs, e.g. closely spaced parallel runways, converging runways.
60
Q

If a TA is generated:

A
  • The PF announces: “TCAS, I have control”.
  • No evasive maneuver should be initiated, only on the basis of a TA.
61
Q

If a RA is generated:
The flight crew must always follow the TCAS RA orders in the correct direction, even:
3 points

A
  • If the TCAS RA orders are in contradiction with the ATC instructions
  • At the maximum ceiling altitude with CLIMB, CLIMB or INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB TCAS RA orders
  • If it results in crossing the altitude of the intruder.
62
Q

The PF disconnects the AP, and smoothly and firmly follows the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) green sector within 5 S, and requests that both FDs be disconnected.
Note: Both FDs must be disconnected once APs are disconnected:
2 points

A
  • To ensure autothrust speed mode
  • To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders and, TCAS aural and VSI orders
63
Q

The flight crew should never maneuver in the opposite direction of the RA, because TCAS maneuvers are ___ .

A

coordinated

64
Q

In final approach, i.e. “CLIMB”, “CLIMB NOW”, “INCREASE CLIMB”, the flight crew will initiate a ___ .

A

go-around

65
Q

ENG 1(2) START FAULT
This alert triggers when start fault due to:
7 points

A

No light up, or
Engine stall, or
Engine overtemperature, or Hung start, or
No N1 rotation, or
Low start air pressure, or Thrust lever not at idle.

66
Q

ENGINE START WITH AN AIR START UNIT
Packs are selected off to prevent

A

any possible contamination of the packs by the air start unit.

67
Q

ENGINE START WITH AN AIR START UNIT
The minimum recommended starter air supply pressure is ___ when the start valve is open.

A

25 PSI

68
Q

CROSSBLEED ENGINE START
Adjust thrust of supplying engine to obtain an engine bleed pressure of ___ before start initiation, and at least 25 PSI during the start sequence.
If the thrust required to obtain the appropriate engine bleed pressure exceeds ___ N1, pay particular attention to the surrounding area.

A

30 PSI / 40 %

69
Q

ENGINE VENTILATION (DRY CRANKING)
On ground, after:
An unsuccessful manual engine start, or An unsuccessful automatic start not followed by an automatic dry crank, the flight crew can perform a dry crank cycle on the affected engine to

A

remove the fuel vapors.

70
Q

ENGINE VENTILATION (DRY CRANKING)
To clear fuel vapors, a ___ seconds dry crank cycle is the minimum required.

A

30

71
Q

ILS RAW DATA
The TRK index will be set to the ILS course and, once established on the LOC, the tail of the bird should be coincident with the

A

TRK index. This method allows accurate LOC tracking taking into account the drift.

72
Q

ILS RAW DATA
FINAL APPROACH
When ___ below the G/S, the pilot should initiate the interception of the G/S by smoothly flying the FPV down to the glide path angle.

A

½ dot

73
Q

The flight crew should pay attention to the following deviations that may indicate a possible windshear condition:
8 points

A
  • Indicated airspeed variations in excess of 15 kt
  • Ground speed variations
  • Wind indication variations on the ND or HUD &: directions and velocity
  • Vertical speed excursions of 500 ft/min
  • Pitch attitude excursions of 5 °
  • Glide slope deviation of 1 dot
  • Heading variations of 10 °
  • Unusual A/THR activity.
74
Q

The PWS automatically operates below a given altitude (Refer to FCOM/General), if the radar is ON or OFF, provided that the PWS sw is in the

A

AUTO position.

75
Q

When a predictive windshear & aural alert (“WINDSHEAR AHEAD” or “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD”) is triggered, the flight crew must carefully check that there is no hazard. If this is the case, the flight crew can disregard the alert, as long as both the following apply:

A
  • There are no other signs of possible windshear conditions
  • The reactive windshear system is operational.
76
Q

Predictive windshear alerts are inhibited when the aircraft speed is above ___ and up to ___ .

A

100 kt / 50 ft

77
Q

If the windshear occurs after V1, the flight crew must select TOGA. The flight crew must pay attention to the following:
The flight crew should not change the configuration, until the aircraft is out of the windshear, because ___

A

operating the landing gear doors causes additional drag

78
Q

The Predictive Windshear Function detected a windshear.
If “ ___ “ or the visual alert appears, or in case of suspected windshear, the flight crew should either delay the approach or divert to another airport.

A

MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY

79
Q

APPROACH
SUSPECTED WINDSHEAR OR PREDICTIVE WINDSHEAR
Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the ___ in the case of a go-around

A

climb gradient capability

80
Q

In the case of “GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alert triggering, the PF must set TOGA for a go-around. The flight crew can change the aircraft configuration, provided that ___ .

A

the windshear is not entered

81
Q

17.3.6.5.1 Wind shear Crew action
Crew actions are divided into three areas:

A

Avoidance, Prevention and Recovery.

A320/ FFS (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions